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Exam Code: 70-743
Exam Name: Microsoft Upgrading Your Skills to MCSA: Windows Server 2016
Q&As: 107

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QUESTION 10
At the Desktop > Background node a Desktop background image is configured for the users. If an
administrator creates a Building Block of this setting, what will happen with that image?
A. The background image will be inserted into the Building Block.
B. It is not possible to create a Building Block of items containing images.
C. The background image will be stored in an additional file.
D. All settings will be included, but the background image is ignored.
70-743 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11
RES Workspace Manager is configured to monitor CPU usage to prevent bad applications from disturbing
other sessions. What happens when an application takes too much processing time?
RES Workspace Manager will:
A. Lower the process priority so the operating system will only run it in leftover CPU time.
B. Kill the application after notifying the user about the misbehaving process.
C. Automatically move the running instance to a free server, if available.
D. Pause the application, notify the user, and continue the application when there’s enough free
CPUpower.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12
An administrator wants to be notified by e-mail when a user installs an application. What is the easiest way
to accomplish this?
A. Create an e-mail notification type and set the alerting option `User installed Applications- Applications
installed’ to this notification type.
B. Set the Administrator e-mail address in the alerting option `User installed Applications- Applications
installed’.
C. Create a custom e-mail task and attach this to all applications.
D. Create a notification type and select the option `Applications installed’.
70-743 dumps 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13
With application license control enabled for all applications, where can an administrator find a detailed
report on application license usage?
A. In Usage Tracking
B. In Instant Reports
C. In Modification Log
D. In Workspace Analysis
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 14
Can the option “Windows Shell Shortcut creation: Do Nothing” be used in combination with the RES
Workspace Manager Shell?
A. Yes, and applications will not be managed.
B. Yes, and the session will not be managed.
C. No, RES Workspace Manager will not continue when the session is started
D. No, RES Workspace Manager will automatically revert to `Replace’.

70-743 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 15
A Workspace Container can be used to organize the RES Workspace Manager environment in the
following ways:
1. By computer type (e.g. laptops, desktops, terminal servers)
2. By customer (e.g. hosting multiple environments on shared infrastructure)
3. By hardware requirements (e.g. amount of RAM or processor present)
4. By functionality (e.g. basic and advanced desktop environments)
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 1 and 4 only
C. 1, 2 and 4 only
D. 1, 3 and 4 only
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 16
When using E- Mail Templates with Microsoft App-V, the MAPI profile will be created
A. On the Microsoft App-V Server.
B. On the user’s home drive.
C. In the virtual environment.
D. In the Datastore.
70-743 vce 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 17
Which rules can be used with Zones?
1. USB serial number
2. Active Directory Site
3. Hardware requirement
4. Terminal Server listener name
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 18
Which VMware multi-pathing scheme should be used to avoid non-owning access with HDS modular
storage systems with multiple VMware servers?
A. Most Recently Used (MRU)
B. Fixed
C. Round-Robin
D. Extended Round-Robin
70-743 exam Answer: B
QUESTION 19
A customer is using Hitachi Dynamic Provisioning (HDP) on a Universal Storage Platform (USP) V
and runs an Oracle database on HDP Volumes allocated to a HDP Pool. The customer is experiencing
unexpected growth of the database and a lack of capacity in the HDP Pool. What should be done?
A. Build a new HDP Pool using the same disk and RAID type and migrate the DP-Volumes to the new
pool.
B. Build a new HDP Pool using any disk and any RAID type and migrate the DP-Volumes to the new pool.
C. Extend the existing HDP Pool with Pool Volumes using the same RAID and disk type.
D. Extend the existing HDP Pool with Pool Volumes using any RAID and disk type.
Answer: C
QUESTION 20
Which two statements are true about the Hitachi Tuning Manager Agent for RAID Product Interval (PI)
record type? (Choose two.)
A. Performance data is collected by the Agent Collector at specified intervals and summarized for every
hour/day/week/month/year.
B. Configuration data is collected by the Agent Collector at specified intervals and summarized for every
hour/day/week/month/year.
C. Performance Reporter can directly access Product Interval records through Hitachi Tuning Manager.
D. Product Interval.
70-743 dumps Answer:AC
QUESTION 21
A customer, which runs a large Web server farm as an Internet service and hosting provider, wants to
consolidate the data from all these servers from the internal server disks to an iSCSI SAN solution which
uses a Universal Storage Platform (USP) V as the storage system. The IO is generally random read in
small block size. Which two RAID Group configurations would you recommend for the USP V? (Choose
two.)
A. RAID1 2+2
B. RAID1 4+4 C. RAID5 7+1
D. RAID6 6+2
Answer: CD
QUESTION 22
What happens when the Extended Round-Robin load balancing algorithm is used with an LDEV that
is executing only random type IOs?
A. Performance will be severely impacted.
B. Load balancing will be disabled for this LDEV.
C. Round-Robin will be used.
D. HGLAM will be notified of this inconsistency.
70-743 pdf Answer: C
QUESTION 23
Which three metrics aid in calculating how long a block of data remains available in cache after its last
access? (Choose three.)
A. IOPS rate into the cache partition or storage system

B. number of available cache segments
C. the cache hit rate
D. average response time
E. average LUN queue size
Answer: ABC

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[New Cisco Release] Most Accurate CCNP Switch 300-115 Dumps PDF Questions with Latest Version PDF&VCE Youtube Study (From Google Drive)

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Exam Code: 300-115
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Switched Networks (SWITCH v2.0)
Updated: Sep 05, 2017
Q&As: 437

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Question Set 1
QUESTION 1
What is the maximum number of switches that can be stacked using Cisco StackWise?
A. 4
B. 5
C. 8
D. 9
E. 10
F. 13
300-115 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Up to 9 Cisco Catalyst switches can be stacked together to build single logical StackWise switch since Cisco IOS XE Release 3.3.0SE. Prior to Cisco IOS XE
Release3.3.0SE, up to 4 Cisco Catalyst switches could be stacked together.
QUESTION 2
A network engineer wants to add a new switch to an existing switch stack. Which configuration must be added to the new switch before it can be added to the 300-115 dumps switch stack?
A. No configuration must be added.
B. stack ID
C. IP address
D. VLAN information
E. VTP information
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Switch Stack Offline Configuration
You can use the offline configuration feature to provision (to supply a configuration to) a new switch before it joins the switch stack. You can configure in advance
the stack member number, the switch type, and the inter- faces associated with a switch that is not currently part of the stack. The configuration that you create on
the switch stack is called the provisioned configuration . The switch that is added to the switch stack and that re- ceives this configuration is called the provisioned
switch .
You manually create the provisioned configuration through the switch stack-member-number provision type global configuration command. The provisioned
configuration is automatically created when a switch is added to a switch stack and when no provisioned configuration exists.
When you configure the interfaces associated with a provisioned switch (for example, as part of a VLAN), the switch stack accepts the configuration, and the
information appears in the running configuration. The interface associated with the provisioned switch is not active, operates as if it is administratively shut down,
and the no shutdown interface configuration command does not return it to active service. The interface associated with the provisioned switch does not appear in
the display of the specific feature; for example, it does not appear in the show vlan user EXEC command output.
The switch stack retains the provisioned configuration in the running configuration whether or not the provi- sioned switch is part of the stack. You can save the
provisioned configuration to the startup configuration file by entering the copy running-config startup-config privileged EXEC command. The startup configuration
file ensures that the switch stack can reload and can use the saved information whether or not the provisioned switch is part of the switch stack.Effects of Adding a Provisioned Switch to a Switch Stack
When you add a provisioned switch to the switch stack, the stack applies either the provisioned configuration or the default configuration. Table 5-1 lists the events that occur when the switch stack compares the provisioned configuration with the provisioned switch.Table 5-1 Results of Comparing the Provisioned Configuration with the Provisioned Switch
Scenario Result The stack member num- 1. If the stack member number The switch stack applies bers and the switch types of the provisioned switch the provisioned configura match. matches the stack member num- tion to the provisioned ber in the provisioned configura- switch and adds it to the tion on the stack, and stack.
2. If the switch type of the provisioned switch matches the switch type in the provisioned configuration on the stack.
The stack member num- 1. If the stack member number The switch stack applies bers match but the switch of the provisioned switch the default configuration to types do not match. matches the stack member num- the provisioned switch and ber in the provisioned configuration on the stack, but adds it to the stack.
2. The switch type of the provi- The provisioned configura- sioned switch does not match the tion is changed to reflect switch type in the provisioned the new information.configuration on the stack.The stack member num- The switch stack appliesber is not found in the pro- the default configuration tovisioned configuration. the provisioned switch and adds it to the stack.The provisioned configuration is changed to reflect the new information. The stack member num- The stack master assigns a new The switch stack applies ber of the provisioned stack member number to the pro- the provisioned configura- switch is in conflict with an visioned switch. tion to the provisioned existing stack member. switch and adds it to the The stack member numbers and stack.
 the switch types match: The provisioned configura-
1. If the new stack member
tion is changed to reflect
number of the provisioned switch
the new information.
matches the stack member num
ber in the provisioned configura
tion on the stack, and
2. If the switch type of the provi
sioned switch matches the switch
type in the provisioned configura
tion on the stack.
The stack member numbers The switch stack applies
match, but the switch types do the default configuration to not match: the provisioned switch and
adds it to the stack.
1. If the stack member number
of the provisioned switch The provisioned configura
matches the stack member num- tion is changed to reflect
ber in the provisioned configura- the new information.
tion on the stack, but
2. The switch type of the provi
sioned switch does not match the
switch type in the provisioned
configuration on the stack.
The stack member num- The switch stack applies
ber of the provisioned the default configuration to
switch is not found in the the provisioned switch and
provisioned configuration. adds it to the stack.
Reference:
QUESTION 3
What percentage of bandwidth is reduced when a stack cable is broken?
A. 0
B. 25
C. 50
D. 75
E. 100
300-115 pdf Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Physical Sequential Linkage
The switches are physically connected sequentially, as shown in Figure 3. A break in any one of the cables will result in the stack bandwidth being reduced to half
of its full capacity. Subsecond timing mechanisms detect traffic problems and immediately institute failover. This mechanism restores dual path flow when the
timing mechanisms detect renewed activity on the cable.
Figure 3. Cisco StackWise Technology Resilient Cabling

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps

Which set of configurations will result in all ports on both switches successfully bundling into an EtherChannel?
A. switch1
channel-group 1 mode active
switch2
channel-group 1 mode auto
B. switch1
channel-group 1 mode desirable
switch2
channel-group 1 mode passive
C. switch1
channel-group 1 mode on
switch2
channel-group 1 mode auto
D. switch1
channel-group 1 mode desirable
switch2
channel-group 1 mode auto
300-115 vce Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The different etherchannel modes are described in the table below:
Mode Description
active Places an interface into an active negotiating state, in which the interface starts negotiations with other interfaces by sending LACP packets.
auto Places an interface into a passive negotiating state, in which the interface re- sponds to PAgP packets it receives but does not start PAgP packet negotia
tion. This setting minimizes the transmission of PAgP packets.
desirable Places an interface into an active negotiating state, in which the interface starts negotiations with other interfaces by sending PAgP packets.
on Forces the interface into an EtherChannel without PAgP or LACP. With the on mode, a usable EtherChannel exists only when an interface group in the on
mode is connected to another interface group in the on mode.
passive Places an interface into a passive negotiating state, in which the interface re- sponds to LACP packets that it receives, but does not start LACP packet ne
gotiation. This setting minimizes the transmission of LACP packets.
Both the auto and desirable PAgP modes allow interfaces to negotiate with partner interfaces to determine if they can form an EtherChannel based on criteria such
as interface speed and, for Layer 2 EtherChannels, trunking state and VLAN numbers.
Interfaces can form an EtherChannel when they are in different PAgP modes as long as the modes are compatible. For example:
An interface in the desirable mode can form an EtherChannel with another interface that is in the desirable or auto mode.
An interface in the auto mode can form an EtherChannel with another interface in the desirable mode.
An interface in the auto mode cannot form an EtherChannel with another interface that is also in the auto mode because neither interface starts PAgP negotiation.
An interface in the on mode that is added to a port channel is forced to have the same characteristics as the already existing on mode interfaces in the channel.

5.Consider an information system of a Pay-Tv company based on a SOA architecture.
The integrated system currently consists of three core systems:
– a CRM (Customer Relationship Management) system
– a BRM (Billing and Revenue Management) system
– a CAS (Conditional Access System) system all of them communicating with SOA Middleware.
You have been asked to manage the testing activities for the integration of two additional off-the-shelf
systems from two different vendors: a SMS (Short Message Service) server and an IVR (Interactive Voice
Response) system.
Assume that there is a high likelihood that the two off-the-shelf systems will be low-quality and that you
have a clear proof that the testing performed by the two vendors on their systems has been unsystematic
and unprofessional. This obviously leads to higher quality risk for the overall integrated system.
You are the Test Manager of this project. Your main goal is to plan for testing activities to mitigate this risk.

Which of the following answers best describes the test activities (assuming it is possible to perform all of
them) you should plan for?
K4 3 credits
A. You should plan for an informal and minimal acceptance test of the two off-the-shelf systems and then
a single end-to-end test of the overall integrated system
B. You should directly plan for a single end-to-end test focused on end-to-end tests of the overall
integrated system without an acceptance test of the two off-the-shelf systems
C. You should plan for two levels: a system integration test and an end-to-end test of the overall
integrated system
D. You should plan for adequate re-testing of both the systems followed by a system integration test and
an end-to-end test of the overall integrated system
300-115 exam Answer: D
6.The following are the exit criteria described in the test plan of a software product:
EX1. The test suite for the product must ensure that at least each quality risk item is covered by at least
one test case (a quality risk item can be covered by more test cases).
EX2. All test cases in the test suite must be run during the execution phase.
EX3. Defects are classified into two categories: C (critical defect) and NC (non-critical defect). No
known C defects shall exist in the product at the end of the test execution phase.
Which of the following information is useless when the specified exit criteria is evaluated?
A. A traceability matrix showing the relationships between the product risk items and the test cases
B. A list of all the open defects with the associated classification information extracted from the defect
tracking system
C. A chart, showing the trend in the lag time from defect reporting to resolution, extracted from the defect
tracking system
D. The execution status of all the test cases extracted from the test management tool
300-115 dumps Answer: C
7.Which of the following is an example of the test closure activity indicated as “lessons learned”?
A. Archive all the test results of the acceptance testing phase
B. Deliver a list of the open defects of a software product released into production to the service desk
team
C. Participate in a meeting at the end of a project aimed at better managing the events and problems of
future projects
D. Deliver an automated regression test suite, used during the system test phase of a software product
released into production, to the team responsible for maintenance testing
Answer: C
8.Assume that you are the Test Manager for a small banking application development project.
You have decided to adopt a risk-based testing strategy and 5 product risks (R1, R2, R3, R4, and R5)
have been identified during the quality risk analysis.
The following table shows the risk level associated to these product risks (higher numbers mean higher
risk):

55 test cases have been designed and implemented to cover all these 5 product risks. The coverage is
described in a traceability matrix.
This is the test execution status table, after the after the first week of test execution:
About 56% of the planned test cases have been successfully executed.
Assume that no additional product risks have been identified during the first week of test execution.

Which of the following answers would you expect to best describe the residual risks associated with the
identified product risks, at the end of the first week of test execution?
A. Since R3 is the only risk for which all test cases have passed, the risk has been reduced by 20%
B. The test execution status table indicates that the risk has been reduced by 56%
C. The residual risk level can t be determined, because it requires that all the test cases have been
executed
D. The test execution table doesn t give an indication of the risk level of the open defects and the test
cases that failed or are not run yet
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 70-773
Exam Name: Analyzing Big Data with Microsoft R (beta)
Updated: Aug 26, 2017
Q&As: 102

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QUESTION 16
The recommended way to create new methods in a core service is to use a service wrapper hook.
A. True
B. False
70-773 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 17
The recommended way to implement a new SSO solution that captures the SSO header is to:
A. Create an Ext plugin that adds a sen/let filter to capture the SSO header

B. Create a hook plugin that implements a servlet filter to capture the SSO header
C. Modify the portal source code and create an SSO servlet filter in the portal to capture the SSO header
D. Create a hook plugin to override the Struts action for the Loginportletto capture the SSO header
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 18
Service Builder is able to: (Please select all correct answers.)
A. Generate Hibernate configuration files
B. Generate base implementations of models, services, persistence and basic finders
C. Generate struts-config.xml and tiles-defs.xml
D. Generate web services
70-773 dumps Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 19
A hook plugin can extend and override: (Please select all correct answers.)
A. Core portal Struts actions
B. CoreportletStruts actions
C. Portletplugin Struts actions
D. Layout template Struts actions
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 20
Given the service.xml:
<entity name=”AcmeItem” local-service = “true” remote-service=”false”> <column name= “acmeltemld”
type= “long’ primary= “true” /> <column name= groupld” type=”long” />
</entity>
The generated classes include: (Please select all correct answers.)
A. AcmeltemServiceUtil
B. AcmeltemModel
C. AcmeltemLocalServiceUtil
D. AcmeltemJSONSerializer
E. AcmeltemPersistencelmpI
70-773 pdf Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 21
The hooks that can import classes from the plugin class loader are: (Please select all correct answers.)
A. Auto login hooks
B. JSP hooks
C. Service wrapper hooks
D. Servlet filter hooks
E. Struts action hooks
F. Indexer post processor hooks
Correct Answer: ACDEF
QUESTION 22
When adding new users to Liferay, the form will display the Details, Organizations and Personal Site
sections based on the following property in portal.properties:

users.form.add.main =detaiIs,organizations,personal-site
The “users.form.add.main” property is listed in the liferay-hook_6_l_0.dtd as a portal property that can be
overridden with a hook.
Deploying a hook with the following property in the portal.properties file will remove the Personal Site
section:
users.form.add.main =details,organizations
A. True
B. False
70-773 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 23
Hook plugins can only override core JSPs, services, language keys and Struts actions.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 24
An Expando is:
A. A tool for writing newportlets in Liferay
B. A code generator which generates services based on service.xml
C. A service in Liferay which allows you to dynamically define a collection of data
D. A new administrative interface in 6.1
70-773 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 25
The recommended way to implement code that only runs once to modify columns in the database is with a
(n):
A. GlobalStartupAction
B. ServicePreAction
C. UpgradeProcess
D. ServicePostAction
E. VerifyProcess
F. GlobalShutdownAction
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 26
The bundled property file that contains settings for a development environment is:
A. portal-ext. properties
B. portal-developer, properties
C. developer, properties
D. None of the above
70-773 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 27
Only an Ext plugin can:
A. Override language keys
B. Modify the initialization parameters of a coreportlet
C. Create a model listener
D. Override a JSP
E. Override Liferay services
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 28
To customize the User service in a hook plugin, create a class that extends:
A. UserServicelmpI
B. UserServiceBaseImpI
C. UserService
D. UserServiceWrapper
70-773 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 29
The recommended way to override multiple JSPs in the Documents and Media portlet is to:
A. Create a separate hook plug in for each JSP
B. Create an Ext plugin
C. Create a hook plugin that contains all the JSPs
D. Copy them directly into Liferay
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 30
Default rankings in the Message Boards portlet are set as portlet preferences. To make all new instances
of the portlet display custom rankings, it is recommended to:
A. Navigate to System Defaults in the Control Panel and update theportletpreferences
B. Create a hook plugin that modifies the defaultmessage.board.ranks portal property
C. Create an Ext plugin that contains the desired configuration inportlet-ext.xml
D. Create a JSP hook that overrides the rankings for all instances of the Message Boardsportlet
70-773 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 31
The method to send a redirect response and prevent resubmitting a form when a user refreshes the page
is:
A. clearRequ estPara mete rs ()
B. removeDuplicates()
C. removeParameters()
D. send Red irect()
Correct Answer: D
Question: 32
Your manager has approached you regarding her desire to outsource certain functions to an external
firm. She would like for you to create a document to send to three vendors asking them for solutions
for these functions that your organization is to outsource. What type of a procurement document
would you create and send to the vendors in this instance?
A. Request for Proposal
B. Request for Quote
C. Invitation for Bid
D. Request for Information
70-773 exam Answer: A
Explanation:
A request for proposal (RFP) is a procurement document that asks the vendor to provide solutions,
ideas, and detailed information about the outsourced function. The vendor will provide a proposal in
response to the RFP. An RFP is often sent with a statement of work that details the outsourcing need
that the vendor is to provide a solution and a price.
Answer option B is incorrect. A Request for Quote (RFQ) is a procurement document that asks the
vendor to provide just a price for the solution to be purchased – no ideas or suggestions are needed
from the vendor. RFQ are often used with materials, such as cost per metric ton or cost per unit.
Answer option C is incorrect. An invitation for bid (IFB) is identical to the request for quote. It is a
procurement document asking the vendor for a fixed price for a specific thing to be purchased.
Answer option D is incorrect. A request for information (RFI) asks the vendor for more information
about their solution, services, or company.
An RFI could ask for samples, references of work, white papers, and more information.
Question: 33
Kelly’s organization has posted a new job opening for their organization. This job opening is for a
woman to be the restroom attended, for all women’s restrooms and locker rooms, in their
organization. Kelly believes, however, that the requirement for the applicant to be a female is a
violation of the Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964. Which one of the following is the best answer
for this scenario?

A. This is an example of an exception by bona fide occupational qualification to the Title VII of the
Civil Rights Act of 1964
B. This is an example of a violation of the Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964
C. The sex of applicants is excluded from the Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964
D. This is not a violation of the Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 because there is an equal
paying and titled job for the men’s restroom and locker rooms in the company
Answer: A
Explanation:
This is an example of a bona fide occupational qualification for the position because of the nature of
the job and type of employee, female, that is needed in this instance.
Answer option C is incorrect. The sex of applicants is not excluded from the Title VII of the Civil
Rights Act of 1964.
Answer option B is incorrect. This is not a violation of the Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964
because some jobs may have an unintended discriminatory basis.
Answer option D is incorrect. The existence of a similar job for men or women does not
automatically create exclusion to the Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964.
Question: 34
You are an HR Professional for your organization. You and your supervisor are reviewing the EEO
reporting requirements for your company to comply with the reports your firm should file. Which
EEO Report is a survey, collected every other year on even calendar years?
A. EEO-4 Report
B. EEO-5 Report
C. EEO-3 Report
D. EEO-1 Report
70-773 dumps Answer: C
Explanation:
The EEO-3 Report, formally known as the Local Union Report, is collected on even years.
Answer option D is incorrect. The EEO-1 Report is collected yearly for firms with 100 or more
employees. It reports the race, ethnicity, and gender and job distribution of the organization.
Answer option A is incorrect. The EEO-4 Report, formally known as the state and local government
report, is collected on odd years.
Answer option B is incorrect. This report, formally known as the Elementary-Secondary Staff
Information Report, is collected by the EEOC, the Office for Civil Rights, and the national Center for
Education Statistics of the Department of Education. It is collected in even numbers for school
districts with 100 or more employees.

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Exam Code: 300-135
Exam Name: Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks (TSHOOT v2.0)
Updated: Aug 23, 2017
Q&As: 118

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QUESTION 1
A customer wants to discuss manual site failover design. The solution design must guarantee the
replication of file system snapshots. What should the customer use?
A. TrueCopy
B. Intelligent Data Replication
C. Incremental Data Replication
D. Transfer Primary Access
300-135 exam Answer: A
QUESTION 2
A customer has a Hitachi AMS2100 attached to a 2-node Hitachi NAS Platform 3090 cluster. They
initially purchased 15 TB and have just purchased an additional 5 TB. They now need to expand
their existing storage pools. What must be considered when expanding the storage pools?
A. All system drives must be of the same size in terms of capacity.
B. All system drives must be offline.
C. All system drives must be in the same system drive group.
D. All storage pools must be offline.
Answer: A
QUESTION 3
A production Hitachi NAS Platform is connected to a Hitachi VSP with a storage pool consisting of
SATA drives. To improve performance, the customer wants to migrate to SAS drives on an
externalized Hitachi AMS2300 with minimal customer involvement and minimal impact to the
system and users. Which two products should be deployed? (Choose two.)
A. Hitachi Universal Replicator
B. Hitachi Tiered Storage Manager
C. Hitachi Device Manager
D. Hitachi Tuning Manager
300-135 dumps Answer: B,C
QUESTION 4
A customer is planning to use the JetMirror functionality on their Hitachi NAS Platform. Which two
are required from the customer to plan the implementation? (Choose two.)
A. the size of the storage pools in use
B. the number of files used
C. the distance to the destination system
D. if systems are managed by a common SMU
Answer: C,D
QUESTION 5
Which three documents are required deliverables as part a Hitachi NAS Platform data migration
service? (Choose three.)
A. the file system migration workbook
B. the network topology diagram
C. the NAS service workbook
D. the NAS migration hardware configuration sheet
E. the hardware inventory sheet
300-135 pdf Answer: A,C,D
QUESTION 6
A customer must have 24/7 uptime on their Hitachi NAS Platform 4-node 3200 cluster. They need
to complete a major upgrade on each of the 4 nodes and must have a method of failing over their
production services to a non-production cluster. Which two topics must be discussed with the
customer prior to the major upgrade? (Choose two.)
A. automatic failover using HiTrack
B. the purchase of a backup cluster
C. establishing a Server Farm
D. use of MPIO for failover
Answer: B,C
QUESTION 7
A customer environment consists of a Hitachi NAS Platform 3090 cluster connected to a Hitachi
AMS2500 with SATA disk drives in RAID-6 configuration. The customer is using this solution
primarily for data backup and is expecting optimal write performance and optimal reliability. Which
“SATA Write & Compare” mode should be used?
A. SATA Write & Compare Full
B. SATA Write & Compare Enabled
C. SATA Write & Compare Disabled
D. SATA Write & Compare Optimal
300-135 vce Answer: B
QUESTION 8
When configuring iSCSI initiators, which two must be configured to facilitate dynamic target
(server) discovery from the Hitachi NAS platform? (Choose two.)
A. the iSCSI LUN
B. the iSCSI target portal
C. the iSCSI IQN
D. the iSNS
Answer: B,D
QUESTION 9
A customer has a Hitachi NAS Platform 3100 cluster dual fabric attached to a Hitachi AMS 2000
Family storage system in a fault tolerant configuration containing multiple EVSs.. What would
cause all of the EVSs to fail?
A. The preferred SD path fails.
B. An AMS controller fails.
C. The SIM blade fails.
D. A SAN switch fails.
300-135 exam Answer: C
QUESTION 10
The administrator of a production Hitachi NAS Platform 3200 wants to maximize potential
performance and fault tolerance to an attached Hitachi USP V storage system. Which
configuration should be used?
A. Use hports 1, 2, 3 and 4 of the Hitachi NAS Platform to connect to different FED ports on
cluster 1 of the USP V.
B. Use hports 1, 2, 3 and 4 of the Hitachi NAS Platform to connect to FEDs on cluster 1 and
cluster 2 of the USP V.
C. Use hports 4, 5, 6 and 7 of the Hitachi NAS Platform to connect to different FED ports on
cluster 1 of the USP V.
D. Use hports 1, 3, 5 and 7 of the Hitachi NAS Platform to connect to FEDs on cluster 1 and
cluster 2 on the USP V.
Answer: D
QUESTION 11
A customer has a heterogenous server and desktop operating systems environment. Users are
experiencing authentication issues across multiple OS platforms. Which business-related qualifiers
are relevant for designing a Hitachi NAS Platform solution to resolve these issues?
A. backup window and SLAs
B. type of external authentication
C. number of concurrent sessions/users
D. type of users’ tasks and responsibilities
300-135 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION 12
Your customer is planning to purchase a Hitachi NAS Platform model 3200 cluster. Which type of
optical 10 GbE interface will they need for their network switches?
A. Twinax
B. XENPAK
C. SFP+
D. XFP
Answer: D
QUESTION 13
A customer with a Hitachi NAS Platform 3100 wants to implement anti-virus scanning. In which
Hitachi NAS Platform related document do you find information about supported anti-virus scan
engine software?
A. the Access Control List (ACL)
B. the Administration Guide
C. the Independent Software Vendor (ISV) list
D. the Hardware Compatibility List (HCL)
300-135 pdf Answer: C
QUESTION 14
A customer wants to use the data migration function with their Hitachi NAS Platform. Which three
criteria are used by this function? (Choose three.)
A. by last access
B. by source file system block size
C. by file name
D. by path
E. by protocol type
Answer: A,C,D
QUESTION 15
You are asked to design a Hitachi NAS Platform solution for a customer with existing Hitachi
storage systems installed. The existing storage and SAN infrastructure should be used wherever
possible. Which two can be re-used? (Choose two.)
A. spare Qlogic 2310 HBAs
B. Fibre Channel switches
C. Hitachi AMS500 storage systems
D. Hitachi 7700E storage systems
300-135 vce Answer: B,C
QUESTION 16
You are designing a Hitachi NAS Platform solution to migrate files to a Hitachi Content Platform
(HCP). Which configuration method must be used?
A. Use the connector wizard.
B. Use the CLI command xvl-path-add.
C. Use the CLI command external-path-add.
D. Use the CLI command migration-add-external-path.
Answer: D
QUESTION 17
The administrator of a production Hitachi NAS Platform connected to a Hitachi AMS2300 requires
file level replication to another Hitachi NAS Platform. However, there is a concern over the large
numbers of files and about the high change rate as the replication time window is small. What
should be done to reduce the replication time?
A. Use Transfer Primary Access.
B. Use the changed directory list option.
C. Migrate the admin EVS to the node replicating the data.
D. Create an additional IP address on the source EVS.
300-135 exam Answer: B

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Exam Code: 400-201
Exam Name: CCIE Service Provider Written Exam Version 4.0
Updated: Aug 16, 2017
Q&As: 451

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Question No : 1 Select two valid administratively scoped multicast addresses in networks running Interior
Gateway protocols like EIGRP and OSPF (Choose two).
A. 239.255.255.255
B. 224.0.0.10
C. 239.0.0.1
D. 224.0.0.5
400-201 exam 
Answer: A,C


Question No : 2 The product team at an ISP that offers VoIP services wants to add two-way video
conferencing to their product offering. Which three QoS methods can be applied for real
time traffic on WAN links with speeds that are slower than 768 Kbps?
(Choose three.)
A. Apply voice-adaptive fragmentation to ensure that large video packets are fragmented
and interleaved.
B. Apply LLQ with video traffic that is dedicated in the priority queue.
C. Apply MLP link fragmentation and interleaving to the interface.
D. Apply CBWFQ with video traffic in its own class, which is marked with aPHB value of
AF41.
E. Apply CBWFQ with VoIP traffic in its own class, which is marked with aPHB value of EF.
F. Apply LLQ with both voice traffic and video traffic in the same priority queue
Answer: C,D,E


Question No : 3  An engineer is deploying RTBH. What is necessary routing constraint required for
successful implementation?
A. The trigger device must have an iBGP session with all the clusters/route reflectors in the
autonomous system.
B. The trigger device must redistribute the static route pointing to a null interface into the
IGP process.
C. The no ip reachables command must be issued on the PE router interface under attack.
D. The attacker’s destination IP address must be routed to a null interface.
E. The eBGP sessions need to set the next-hop attribute value to the trigger device
loopback interface.
400-201 dumps Answer: A
Explanation: Explanation :

Question No : 4  Where are MPLS point-to-multipoint traffic engineering packets replicated?
A. head-end router
B. branch-point router
C. midpoint router
D. leaf-point router
E. tail-end router
Answer: B

Question No : 5  Retaining LDP session if one links fail out of two for two neighbors.
A. MPLS LDP targeted-hello accept
B. MPLS LDP sync
C. MPLS IP
D. MPLS LDP autoconfig
400-201 pdf 
Answer: B
Explanation:

Question No : 6  Refer to the exhibit.
400-201 dumps

A CE connected to a service provider has an agreement to use 512Mbps of bandwidth.
Which QoS configuration must be modified to ensure that the traffic matches the agreed
bandwidth?
A. Apply the same CE QoS configuration on PE on inbound direction.
B. Change the outbound direction of the service-policy to inbound for ingress traffic
shaping.
C. Treat the class-default as best-effort by removing the shape average 512000 command
D. Replace the shape keyword with police keyword in both classes
E. Reconfigure the policy-map as a nested policy with the shaping appliedas a parent for all
child policies
Answer: E

 

Question No : 7
What is the minimum hardware configuration of the multishelf Cisco CRS-1 system?
A. One route processor (RP) card and one modular services card (MSC)
B. One distributed route processor (DRP) and one S13 fabric card (SFC)
C. One line card chassis (LCC) and one fabric card chassis (FCC)
D. One route processor (RP) and one fabric card chassis (FCC)
E. One line card chassis (LCC) and one S13 fabric card (SFC)
400-201 vce 
Answer: C
Explanation:
1.4. SP high end product
A minimum of one LCC and one FCC are required to configure a multishelf system.

 

Question No : 8 Which QoS method is available when GRE is used to provide MPLS VPN services over an
IP-only core?
A. matching MPLS EXP on the physical interface
B. matching EXP on the tunnel interface
C. matching DSCP on the physical interface
D. matching DSCP on the tunnel interface
Answer: C


Question No : 9  A company is deciding between an HVR and SVR solution in order to finalize a
virtualization project proposal. Which is an advantage of a HVR solution versus a SVR
solution?
A. A HVR solution implements dedicated data plane resources.
B. A HVR solution implements shared control plane resources.
C. A HVR solution introduces significant contention of resources.
D. A HVR solution implements dedicated chassis resources.
400-201 exam Answer: A
Explanation:
Comparison of Virtualized Routing Architectures
Category
Hardware-Isolated Virtual Router
Software-Isolated Virtual Router
Control plane resources (CPU, memory)
Dedicated
Shared
Data plane resources (forwarding engine, queues)
Dedicated
Shared
Chassis resources (power supplies, blowers, fabric)
Shared
Shared
Management, configuration
Dedicated
Typically shared, but varies depending on degree of virtualization
Connections between virtualized routing entities
Typically external
Typically internal, but possibly external
Per-chassis scalability (routing adjacencies, prefixes)
Increased with additional logical routers
Unaffected by additional virtual routers
Reference:

Question No : 10  Which are the three header fields that affect how Equal-Cost Multipath hashes traffic flow into interface groups? (Choose three.)
A. source MAC address
B. source port
C. source IP address
D. destination IP address
E. IP protocol ID
F. destination MAC address
Answer: B,C,D
Question No : 11  What loop prevention mechanism can be used for ospf type 3 sla in L3VPN?
A. DNbit
B. Pending
C. Pending
D. Pending
400-201 dumps Answer: A

Question No : 12  Customers connecting to a Service Provider for Internet access are intending to implement redundant peering. The design requirements call for preferring a primary link for both
ingress and egress traffic. Secondary links should be used only during primary outages.
What two BGP deployment options will accomplish this design goal? (Choose two.)
A. On the router handling the secondary link, advertise routes with a MED value of 0.
B. On the router handling the primary link, set the weight for all incoming routes to be a
value of 0.
C. On the router handling the secondary link, advertise all routes with a longer AS-PATH
value.
D. On the router handling the primary link, advertise all routes with a longer AS-PATH
value.
E. On the router handling the secondary link, set the local preference for all incoming
routes to be a value of 0.
Answer: C,E

Question No : 13  Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true?
400-201 dumps

A. This is an inter autonomous unicast route.
B. The BGP MED value is 26.
C. This is an mVPN route.
D. The route target value is 10.1.100.2:3.
E. There is a route reflector in this network.
F. The route did not import this route into the VRF one.
400-201 pdf Answer: E

 

Question No : 14 Which statement about Remotely Triggered Black Hole (RTBH) is true?
A. Route tagging is one of the techniques used by RTBH
B. It is used for BGP authentication
C. It cannot work with static routes
D. It uses extended ACLs for blocking attacks by creating a black hole
E. Before configuring RTBH. LDP must be enabled on the interface
Answer: A


Question No : 15
  Which description is true of that the fast-reroute keep all paths command accomplishes
when used under OSPF process?
A. All possible alternate routes are installed in the OSPF RIB, even if the alternate paths do
not meet the LFA criteria (the LFA inequalities)
B. By default, only the /32 routes have a backup path installed. This command creates a  backup path for the router with any subnet mask.
C. Besides the regular LFA backup paths, this command also installs the remote LFA
backup paths.
D. All backup routes – not only the best backup route are installed in the OSPF RIB.
400-201 vce Answer: D

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