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Exam Code: 70-773
Exam Name: Analyzing Big Data with Microsoft R (beta)
Updated: Aug 26, 2017
Q&As: 102

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The recommended way to create new methods in a core service is to use a service wrapper hook.
A. True
B. False
70-773 exam Correct Answer: B
The recommended way to implement a new SSO solution that captures the SSO header is to:
A. Create an Ext plugin that adds a sen/let filter to capture the SSO header

B. Create a hook plugin that implements a servlet filter to capture the SSO header
C. Modify the portal source code and create an SSO servlet filter in the portal to capture the SSO header
D. Create a hook plugin to override the Struts action for the Loginportletto capture the SSO header
Correct Answer: B
Service Builder is able to: (Please select all correct answers.)
A. Generate Hibernate configuration files
B. Generate base implementations of models, services, persistence and basic finders
C. Generate struts-config.xml and tiles-defs.xml
D. Generate web services
70-773 dumps Correct Answer: ABD
A hook plugin can extend and override: (Please select all correct answers.)
A. Core portal Struts actions
B. CoreportletStruts actions
C. Portletplugin Struts actions
D. Layout template Struts actions
Correct Answer: AB
Given the service.xml:
<entity name=”AcmeItem” local-service = “true” remote-service=”false”> <column name= “acmeltemld”
type= “long’ primary= “true” /> <column name= groupld” type=”long” />
The generated classes include: (Please select all correct answers.)
A. AcmeltemServiceUtil
B. AcmeltemModel
C. AcmeltemLocalServiceUtil
D. AcmeltemJSONSerializer
E. AcmeltemPersistencelmpI
70-773 pdf Correct Answer: BCE
The hooks that can import classes from the plugin class loader are: (Please select all correct answers.)
A. Auto login hooks
B. JSP hooks
C. Service wrapper hooks
D. Servlet filter hooks
E. Struts action hooks
F. Indexer post processor hooks
Correct Answer: ACDEF
When adding new users to Liferay, the form will display the Details, Organizations and Personal Site
sections based on the following property in portal.properties:

users.form.add.main =detaiIs,organizations,personal-site
The “users.form.add.main” property is listed in the liferay-hook_6_l_0.dtd as a portal property that can be
overridden with a hook.
Deploying a hook with the following property in the portal.properties file will remove the Personal Site
users.form.add.main =details,organizations
A. True
B. False
70-773 vce Correct Answer: B
Hook plugins can only override core JSPs, services, language keys and Struts actions.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
An Expando is:
A. A tool for writing newportlets in Liferay
B. A code generator which generates services based on service.xml
C. A service in Liferay which allows you to dynamically define a collection of data
D. A new administrative interface in 6.1
70-773 exam Correct Answer: C
The recommended way to implement code that only runs once to modify columns in the database is with a
A. GlobalStartupAction
B. ServicePreAction
C. UpgradeProcess
D. ServicePostAction
E. VerifyProcess
F. GlobalShutdownAction
Correct Answer: C
The bundled property file that contains settings for a development environment is:
A. portal-ext. properties
B. portal-developer, properties
C. developer, properties
D. None of the above
70-773 dumps Correct Answer: B
Only an Ext plugin can:
A. Override language keys
B. Modify the initialization parameters of a coreportlet
C. Create a model listener
D. Override a JSP
E. Override Liferay services
Correct Answer: B
To customize the User service in a hook plugin, create a class that extends:
A. UserServicelmpI
B. UserServiceBaseImpI
C. UserService
D. UserServiceWrapper
70-773 pdf Correct Answer: D
The recommended way to override multiple JSPs in the Documents and Media portlet is to:
A. Create a separate hook plug in for each JSP
B. Create an Ext plugin
C. Create a hook plugin that contains all the JSPs
D. Copy them directly into Liferay
Correct Answer: C
Default rankings in the Message Boards portlet are set as portlet preferences. To make all new instances
of the portlet display custom rankings, it is recommended to:
A. Navigate to System Defaults in the Control Panel and update theportletpreferences
B. Create a hook plugin that modifies the defaultmessage.board.ranks portal property
C. Create an Ext plugin that contains the desired configuration inportlet-ext.xml
D. Create a JSP hook that overrides the rankings for all instances of the Message Boardsportlet
70-773 vce Correct Answer: C
The method to send a redirect response and prevent resubmitting a form when a user refreshes the page
A. clearRequ estPara mete rs ()
B. removeDuplicates()
C. removeParameters()
D. send Red irect()
Correct Answer: D
Question: 32
Your manager has approached you regarding her desire to outsource certain functions to an external
firm. She would like for you to create a document to send to three vendors asking them for solutions
for these functions that your organization is to outsource. What type of a procurement document
would you create and send to the vendors in this instance?
A. Request for Proposal
B. Request for Quote
C. Invitation for Bid
D. Request for Information
70-773 exam Answer: A
A request for proposal (RFP) is a procurement document that asks the vendor to provide solutions,
ideas, and detailed information about the outsourced function. The vendor will provide a proposal in
response to the RFP. An RFP is often sent with a statement of work that details the outsourcing need
that the vendor is to provide a solution and a price.
Answer option B is incorrect. A Request for Quote (RFQ) is a procurement document that asks the
vendor to provide just a price for the solution to be purchased – no ideas or suggestions are needed
from the vendor. RFQ are often used with materials, such as cost per metric ton or cost per unit.
Answer option C is incorrect. An invitation for bid (IFB) is identical to the request for quote. It is a
procurement document asking the vendor for a fixed price for a specific thing to be purchased.
Answer option D is incorrect. A request for information (RFI) asks the vendor for more information
about their solution, services, or company.
An RFI could ask for samples, references of work, white papers, and more information.
Question: 33
Kelly’s organization has posted a new job opening for their organization. This job opening is for a
woman to be the restroom attended, for all women’s restrooms and locker rooms, in their
organization. Kelly believes, however, that the requirement for the applicant to be a female is a
violation of the Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964. Which one of the following is the best answer
for this scenario?

A. This is an example of an exception by bona fide occupational qualification to the Title VII of the
Civil Rights Act of 1964
B. This is an example of a violation of the Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964
C. The sex of applicants is excluded from the Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964
D. This is not a violation of the Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 because there is an equal
paying and titled job for the men’s restroom and locker rooms in the company
Answer: A
This is an example of a bona fide occupational qualification for the position because of the nature of
the job and type of employee, female, that is needed in this instance.
Answer option C is incorrect. The sex of applicants is not excluded from the Title VII of the Civil
Rights Act of 1964.
Answer option B is incorrect. This is not a violation of the Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964
because some jobs may have an unintended discriminatory basis.
Answer option D is incorrect. The existence of a similar job for men or women does not
automatically create exclusion to the Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964.
Question: 34
You are an HR Professional for your organization. You and your supervisor are reviewing the EEO
reporting requirements for your company to comply with the reports your firm should file. Which
EEO Report is a survey, collected every other year on even calendar years?
A. EEO-4 Report
B. EEO-5 Report
C. EEO-3 Report
D. EEO-1 Report
70-773 dumps Answer: C
The EEO-3 Report, formally known as the Local Union Report, is collected on even years.
Answer option D is incorrect. The EEO-1 Report is collected yearly for firms with 100 or more
employees. It reports the race, ethnicity, and gender and job distribution of the organization.
Answer option A is incorrect. The EEO-4 Report, formally known as the state and local government
report, is collected on odd years.
Answer option B is incorrect. This report, formally known as the Elementary-Secondary Staff
Information Report, is collected by the EEOC, the Office for Civil Rights, and the national Center for
Education Statistics of the Department of Education. It is collected in even numbers for school
districts with 100 or more employees.

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Exam Code: 300-135
Exam Name: Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks (TSHOOT v2.0)
Updated: Aug 23, 2017
Q&As: 118

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A customer wants to discuss manual site failover design. The solution design must guarantee the
replication of file system snapshots. What should the customer use?
A. TrueCopy
B. Intelligent Data Replication
C. Incremental Data Replication
D. Transfer Primary Access
300-135 exam Answer: A
A customer has a Hitachi AMS2100 attached to a 2-node Hitachi NAS Platform 3090 cluster. They
initially purchased 15 TB and have just purchased an additional 5 TB. They now need to expand
their existing storage pools. What must be considered when expanding the storage pools?
A. All system drives must be of the same size in terms of capacity.
B. All system drives must be offline.
C. All system drives must be in the same system drive group.
D. All storage pools must be offline.
Answer: A
A production Hitachi NAS Platform is connected to a Hitachi VSP with a storage pool consisting of
SATA drives. To improve performance, the customer wants to migrate to SAS drives on an
externalized Hitachi AMS2300 with minimal customer involvement and minimal impact to the
system and users. Which two products should be deployed? (Choose two.)
A. Hitachi Universal Replicator
B. Hitachi Tiered Storage Manager
C. Hitachi Device Manager
D. Hitachi Tuning Manager
300-135 dumps Answer: B,C
A customer is planning to use the JetMirror functionality on their Hitachi NAS Platform. Which two
are required from the customer to plan the implementation? (Choose two.)
A. the size of the storage pools in use
B. the number of files used
C. the distance to the destination system
D. if systems are managed by a common SMU
Answer: C,D
Which three documents are required deliverables as part a Hitachi NAS Platform data migration
service? (Choose three.)
A. the file system migration workbook
B. the network topology diagram
C. the NAS service workbook
D. the NAS migration hardware configuration sheet
E. the hardware inventory sheet
300-135 pdf Answer: A,C,D
A customer must have 24/7 uptime on their Hitachi NAS Platform 4-node 3200 cluster. They need
to complete a major upgrade on each of the 4 nodes and must have a method of failing over their
production services to a non-production cluster. Which two topics must be discussed with the
customer prior to the major upgrade? (Choose two.)
A. automatic failover using HiTrack
B. the purchase of a backup cluster
C. establishing a Server Farm
D. use of MPIO for failover
Answer: B,C
A customer environment consists of a Hitachi NAS Platform 3090 cluster connected to a Hitachi
AMS2500 with SATA disk drives in RAID-6 configuration. The customer is using this solution
primarily for data backup and is expecting optimal write performance and optimal reliability. Which
“SATA Write & Compare” mode should be used?
A. SATA Write & Compare Full
B. SATA Write & Compare Enabled
C. SATA Write & Compare Disabled
D. SATA Write & Compare Optimal
300-135 vce Answer: B
When configuring iSCSI initiators, which two must be configured to facilitate dynamic target
(server) discovery from the Hitachi NAS platform? (Choose two.)
A. the iSCSI LUN
B. the iSCSI target portal
C. the iSCSI IQN
D. the iSNS
Answer: B,D
A customer has a Hitachi NAS Platform 3100 cluster dual fabric attached to a Hitachi AMS 2000
Family storage system in a fault tolerant configuration containing multiple EVSs.. What would
cause all of the EVSs to fail?
A. The preferred SD path fails.
B. An AMS controller fails.
C. The SIM blade fails.
D. A SAN switch fails.
300-135 exam Answer: C
The administrator of a production Hitachi NAS Platform 3200 wants to maximize potential
performance and fault tolerance to an attached Hitachi USP V storage system. Which
configuration should be used?
A. Use hports 1, 2, 3 and 4 of the Hitachi NAS Platform to connect to different FED ports on
cluster 1 of the USP V.
B. Use hports 1, 2, 3 and 4 of the Hitachi NAS Platform to connect to FEDs on cluster 1 and
cluster 2 of the USP V.
C. Use hports 4, 5, 6 and 7 of the Hitachi NAS Platform to connect to different FED ports on
cluster 1 of the USP V.
D. Use hports 1, 3, 5 and 7 of the Hitachi NAS Platform to connect to FEDs on cluster 1 and
cluster 2 on the USP V.
Answer: D
A customer has a heterogenous server and desktop operating systems environment. Users are
experiencing authentication issues across multiple OS platforms. Which business-related qualifiers
are relevant for designing a Hitachi NAS Platform solution to resolve these issues?
A. backup window and SLAs
B. type of external authentication
C. number of concurrent sessions/users
D. type of users’ tasks and responsibilities
300-135 dumps Answer: B
Your customer is planning to purchase a Hitachi NAS Platform model 3200 cluster. Which type of
optical 10 GbE interface will they need for their network switches?
A. Twinax
Answer: D
A customer with a Hitachi NAS Platform 3100 wants to implement anti-virus scanning. In which
Hitachi NAS Platform related document do you find information about supported anti-virus scan
engine software?
A. the Access Control List (ACL)
B. the Administration Guide
C. the Independent Software Vendor (ISV) list
D. the Hardware Compatibility List (HCL)
300-135 pdf Answer: C
A customer wants to use the data migration function with their Hitachi NAS Platform. Which three
criteria are used by this function? (Choose three.)
A. by last access
B. by source file system block size
C. by file name
D. by path
E. by protocol type
Answer: A,C,D
You are asked to design a Hitachi NAS Platform solution for a customer with existing Hitachi
storage systems installed. The existing storage and SAN infrastructure should be used wherever
possible. Which two can be re-used? (Choose two.)
A. spare Qlogic 2310 HBAs
B. Fibre Channel switches
C. Hitachi AMS500 storage systems
D. Hitachi 7700E storage systems
300-135 vce Answer: B,C
You are designing a Hitachi NAS Platform solution to migrate files to a Hitachi Content Platform
(HCP). Which configuration method must be used?
A. Use the connector wizard.
B. Use the CLI command xvl-path-add.
C. Use the CLI command external-path-add.
D. Use the CLI command migration-add-external-path.
Answer: D
The administrator of a production Hitachi NAS Platform connected to a Hitachi AMS2300 requires
file level replication to another Hitachi NAS Platform. However, there is a concern over the large
numbers of files and about the high change rate as the replication time window is small. What
should be done to reduce the replication time?
A. Use Transfer Primary Access.
B. Use the changed directory list option.
C. Migrate the admin EVS to the node replicating the data.
D. Create an additional IP address on the source EVS.
300-135 exam Answer: B

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Exam Code: 400-201
Exam Name: CCIE Service Provider Written Exam Version 4.0
Updated: Aug 16, 2017
Q&As: 451

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Question No : 1 Select two valid administratively scoped multicast addresses in networks running Interior
Gateway protocols like EIGRP and OSPF (Choose two).
400-201 exam 
Answer: A,C

Question No : 2 The product team at an ISP that offers VoIP services wants to add two-way video
conferencing to their product offering. Which three QoS methods can be applied for real
time traffic on WAN links with speeds that are slower than 768 Kbps?
(Choose three.)
A. Apply voice-adaptive fragmentation to ensure that large video packets are fragmented
and interleaved.
B. Apply LLQ with video traffic that is dedicated in the priority queue.
C. Apply MLP link fragmentation and interleaving to the interface.
D. Apply CBWFQ with video traffic in its own class, which is marked with aPHB value of
E. Apply CBWFQ with VoIP traffic in its own class, which is marked with aPHB value of EF.
F. Apply LLQ with both voice traffic and video traffic in the same priority queue
Answer: C,D,E

Question No : 3  An engineer is deploying RTBH. What is necessary routing constraint required for
successful implementation?
A. The trigger device must have an iBGP session with all the clusters/route reflectors in the
autonomous system.
B. The trigger device must redistribute the static route pointing to a null interface into the
IGP process.
C. The no ip reachables command must be issued on the PE router interface under attack.
D. The attacker’s destination IP address must be routed to a null interface.
E. The eBGP sessions need to set the next-hop attribute value to the trigger device
loopback interface.
400-201 dumps Answer: A
Explanation: Explanation :

Question No : 4  Where are MPLS point-to-multipoint traffic engineering packets replicated?
A. head-end router
B. branch-point router
C. midpoint router
D. leaf-point router
E. tail-end router
Answer: B

Question No : 5  Retaining LDP session if one links fail out of two for two neighbors.
A. MPLS LDP targeted-hello accept
B. MPLS LDP sync
D. MPLS LDP autoconfig
400-201 pdf 
Answer: B

Question No : 6  Refer to the exhibit.
400-201 dumps

A CE connected to a service provider has an agreement to use 512Mbps of bandwidth.
Which QoS configuration must be modified to ensure that the traffic matches the agreed
A. Apply the same CE QoS configuration on PE on inbound direction.
B. Change the outbound direction of the service-policy to inbound for ingress traffic
C. Treat the class-default as best-effort by removing the shape average 512000 command
D. Replace the shape keyword with police keyword in both classes
E. Reconfigure the policy-map as a nested policy with the shaping appliedas a parent for all
child policies
Answer: E


Question No : 7
What is the minimum hardware configuration of the multishelf Cisco CRS-1 system?
A. One route processor (RP) card and one modular services card (MSC)
B. One distributed route processor (DRP) and one S13 fabric card (SFC)
C. One line card chassis (LCC) and one fabric card chassis (FCC)
D. One route processor (RP) and one fabric card chassis (FCC)
E. One line card chassis (LCC) and one S13 fabric card (SFC)
400-201 vce 
Answer: C
1.4. SP high end product
A minimum of one LCC and one FCC are required to configure a multishelf system.


Question No : 8 Which QoS method is available when GRE is used to provide MPLS VPN services over an
IP-only core?
A. matching MPLS EXP on the physical interface
B. matching EXP on the tunnel interface
C. matching DSCP on the physical interface
D. matching DSCP on the tunnel interface
Answer: C

Question No : 9  A company is deciding between an HVR and SVR solution in order to finalize a
virtualization project proposal. Which is an advantage of a HVR solution versus a SVR
A. A HVR solution implements dedicated data plane resources.
B. A HVR solution implements shared control plane resources.
C. A HVR solution introduces significant contention of resources.
D. A HVR solution implements dedicated chassis resources.
400-201 exam Answer: A
Comparison of Virtualized Routing Architectures
Hardware-Isolated Virtual Router
Software-Isolated Virtual Router
Control plane resources (CPU, memory)
Data plane resources (forwarding engine, queues)
Chassis resources (power supplies, blowers, fabric)
Management, configuration
Typically shared, but varies depending on degree of virtualization
Connections between virtualized routing entities
Typically external
Typically internal, but possibly external
Per-chassis scalability (routing adjacencies, prefixes)
Increased with additional logical routers
Unaffected by additional virtual routers

Question No : 10  Which are the three header fields that affect how Equal-Cost Multipath hashes traffic flow into interface groups? (Choose three.)
A. source MAC address
B. source port
C. source IP address
D. destination IP address
E. IP protocol ID
F. destination MAC address
Answer: B,C,D
Question No : 11  What loop prevention mechanism can be used for ospf type 3 sla in L3VPN?
A. DNbit
B. Pending
C. Pending
D. Pending
400-201 dumps Answer: A

Question No : 12  Customers connecting to a Service Provider for Internet access are intending to implement redundant peering. The design requirements call for preferring a primary link for both
ingress and egress traffic. Secondary links should be used only during primary outages.
What two BGP deployment options will accomplish this design goal? (Choose two.)
A. On the router handling the secondary link, advertise routes with a MED value of 0.
B. On the router handling the primary link, set the weight for all incoming routes to be a
value of 0.
C. On the router handling the secondary link, advertise all routes with a longer AS-PATH
D. On the router handling the primary link, advertise all routes with a longer AS-PATH
E. On the router handling the secondary link, set the local preference for all incoming
routes to be a value of 0.
Answer: C,E

Question No : 13  Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true?
400-201 dumps

A. This is an inter autonomous unicast route.
B. The BGP MED value is 26.
C. This is an mVPN route.
D. The route target value is
E. There is a route reflector in this network.
F. The route did not import this route into the VRF one.
400-201 pdf Answer: E


Question No : 14 Which statement about Remotely Triggered Black Hole (RTBH) is true?
A. Route tagging is one of the techniques used by RTBH
B. It is used for BGP authentication
C. It cannot work with static routes
D. It uses extended ACLs for blocking attacks by creating a black hole
E. Before configuring RTBH. LDP must be enabled on the interface
Answer: A

Question No : 15
  Which description is true of that the fast-reroute keep all paths command accomplishes
when used under OSPF process?
A. All possible alternate routes are installed in the OSPF RIB, even if the alternate paths do
not meet the LFA criteria (the LFA inequalities)
B. By default, only the /32 routes have a backup path installed. This command creates a  backup path for the router with any subnet mask.
C. Besides the regular LFA backup paths, this command also installs the remote LFA
backup paths.
D. All backup routes – not only the best backup route are installed in the OSPF RIB.
400-201 vce Answer: D

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