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Network+ Certification | CompTIA IT Certifications:https://certification.comptia.org/certifications/network

About the exam:

Network+ ensures an IT professional has the knowledge and skills to:
Design and implement functional networks
Configure, manage, and maintain essential network devices
Use devices such as switches and routers to segment network traffic and create resilient networks
Identify benefits and drawbacks of existing network configurations
Implement network security, standards, and protocols
Troubleshoot network problems
Support the creation of virtualized networks
CompTIA Network+ (N10-006) English retires 8/31/18; Other languages retire 1/31/19.

The new CompTIA Network+ N10-007 exam is available as of March 2018. More information on both versions of the exam is available in the Exam Details below.​

Pass4itsure offers the latest CompTIA Network+ N10-006 practice test free of charge (51Q&As)

QUESTION 1
A technician has installed an 802.11n network, and most users are able to see speeds of up to 300Mbps. There are a few users who have an 802.1 1n network card but are unable to get speeds higher that 108Mbps. Which of the following
should the technician perform to fix the issue?
A. Upgrade the OS version to 64-bit
B. Roll back the firmware on WLAN card
C. Install a vulnerability patch
D. Upgrade the WLAN card driver
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 2
UDP is BEST used for:
A. remote desktop connections
B. file download
C. streaming media
D. secure tunneling
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/User_Datagram_Protocol

QUESTION 3
Which of the following BEST describes the process of documenting everyone who has physical access or possession of evidence
A. Legal hold
B. Chain of custody
C. Secure copy protocol
D. Financial responsiblity
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 4
Which of the following 802.11g antennas broadcast an RF signal in a specific direction with a narrow path?
A. Omni-direction
B. Unidirectional
C. Patch
D. Yagi
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 5
A technician has determined the most likely cause of an issue and implement a solution. Which of the following is the NEXT step that should be taken?
A. Document the findings, actions, and outcomes
B. Duplicate the problem if possible
C. Verify system functionality
D. Make an archival backup
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 6
A user has a network device that streams media to the LAN. The device is visible on the network. All PCs on the LAN can ping the device. All firewalls are turned off. The streaming device appears to function properly, but the media will not
stream as requested. Which of the following TCP/IP technologies is not implemented properly?
A. Multicast
B. Broadcasts
C. Unicast
D. Anycast
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 7
A technician uses a cable tester to verify the pinout in an Ethernet cable. After testing each pin, the technician records the following output:
pass4itsure N10-006 question
Based on this information, which of the following identification describes this cable?
A. Crossover cable
B. Rollover cable
C. Patch cable
D. RJ-48 cable
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 8
Two office buildings are connected via copper network cabling buried in the ground. During local construction, the second building suffers a permanent network outage. Which of the following are MOST likely the causes of the outage? (Select
two.)
A. Crosstalk
B. Open circuit
C. Short circuit
D. Signal attenuation
E. Electromagnetic interference
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 9
A technician is configuring an ACL and needs to allow for traffic from a server to assign IP addresses to network devices.
Which of the following ports and protocols should the technician configure? (Select two.)
A. 67
B. 53
C. 161
D. DNS
E. SNMP
F. DHCP
Correct Answer: AF
Explanation

QUESTION 10
A company is selecting a fire suppression system for their new datacenter and wants to minimize the IT system recovery period in the event of a fire. Which of the following is the best choice for the fire suppression system?
A. Portable extinguishers
B. Wet Pipe
C. Clean Gas
D. Dry Pipe
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 11
A technician is dispatched to investigate sporadic network outages. After looking at the event logs of the network equipment, the technician finds that all of the equipment is restarting at the same time every day. Which of the following can the
technician deploy to correct this issue?
A. Grounding bar
B. Rack monitoring
C. UPS
D. Air flow management
E. Surge protector
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 12
Which of the following broadband WAN technologies would MOST likely be used to connect several remote branches that have no fiber or satellite connections?
A. OC12
B. POTS
C. WiMax
D. OC3
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 13
A technician is being tasked to centralize the management of the switches and segment the switches by broadcast domains. The company is currently all on VLAN1 using a single private IP address range with a 24 bit mask. The supervisor
wants VLAN 100 to be the management subnet and all switches to share the VLAN information. Which of the following options would work BEST to accomplish these requirements?
A. Use VLSM on the IP address range, with STP and 802.1q on the inter switch connections with native VLAN 100
B. Use VLSM on the IP address range with VTP and 802.1x on all inter switch connections with native VLAN 100
C. Use VLSM on VLAN1, with VTP and 802.1w on the inter switch connections with native VLAN 100
D. Use VLSM on the IP address range with VTP and 802.1q on the inter switch connections with native VLAN 100
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 14
A company technician has set up the network so that all external protections and internal protections across the network are segregated from any malicious attacks and there are firewalls configured on both sides of the DMZ. During the
configuration review of the device installation, there is evidence of unauthorized network traffic penetrating the internal network. Which of the following is either missing or incorrectly configured in the firewall settings?
A. Stateful settings
B. UTM
C. ACL
D. Implicit deny
E. Stateless settings
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 15
A network administrator wants to logically separate web function servers on the network. Which of the following network devices will need to be configured?
A. IPS
B. Switch
C. Hub
D. HIDS
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 16
A network administrator notices that the border router is having high network capacity loads during non-working hours which is causing web services outages. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?
A. Evil twin
B. Session hijacking
C. Distributed DoS
D. ARP cache poisoning
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 17
A technician who is working with a junior member of the team is called away for another issue. The junior technician orders an SC 80/125 fiber cable instead of an ST 80/125. Which of the following will MOST likely be an issue with the new
cable?
A. Wavelength mismatch
B. Distance limitations
C. Connector mismatch
D. Attenuation/Db loss:
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 18
There has been an increased amount of successful social engineering attacks at a corporate office. Which of the following will reduce this attack in the near future?
A. Helpdesk training
B. Appropriate use policy
C. User awareness training
D. Personal Identifiable Information
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 19
A technician is testing a new web-based tool capable of generating automatic teller machine (ATM) cash and service availability reports. The web-based tool was developed by a consortium of financial institutions. Which of the following cloud
delivery models and technologies are being utilized? (Select two.)
A. SaaS
B. Public
C. Community
D. PaaS
E. Private
F. IaaS
Correct Answer: CE
Explanation

QUESTION 20
A PC is having trouble connecting to a remote resource.
Which of the following will identify the routers a packet travels through and provide real- time feedback regarding latency?
A. tracert
B. NETBIOS
C. ipconfig
D. nslookup
E. ping
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 21
Exploiting a weakness in a user’s wireless headset to compromise the mobile device is known as which of the following?
A. Multiplexing
B. Zero-day attack
C. Smurfing
D. Bluejacking
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 22
A technician has terminated a cable on the datacenter with an RJ-11 connector. Which of the following applications is MOST likely being used?
A. Ethernet for a NAS appliance
B. Out-of-band management
C. VRRP interconnect link
D. Crossover patch cabling
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 23
An administrator needs to install a centrally located firewall that needs to block specific incoming and outgoing IP addresses, without denying legitimate return traffic. Which of the following firewall types should the administrator install?
A. A host- based firewall
B. A network-based firewall
C. A host-based stateful firewall
D. A stateless network-based firewall.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 24
A new OC3 experiencing intermittent connectivity and loss of signal alarms. A network administrator finds all the cables are properly connected. There is excess cable between the patch panel and the network node. The cables were forced
into their storage compartments about the rack. Which of the following is MOST likely cause of the connectivity issue and alarms?
A. The OC2 was improperly provisioned.
B. The cable was improperly crimped.
C. The bend radius of the cable has been exceeded.
D. The new OC3 cable is experiencing EMI.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 25
Two switches are connected using both a CAT6 cable and a CAT5e cable. Which of the following problems is occurring?
A. Missing route
B. Autosensing ports
C. Improper cable types
D. Switching loop
E. Media mismatch
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 26
A client is concerned with theft of equipment from the datacenter. Which of the following would provide the highest level of physical security for the client?
A. Cipher lock
B. Proximity reader
C. Magnetic key swipe
D. Man trap
E. CCTV
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 27
A company has decided to upgrade its legacy phone system to VoIP. The new phones will download the configurations from a TFTP server each time they boot up. Which of the following firewall ports must be opened to ensure the phones
can communicate with the server?
A. 20
B. 53
C. 69
D. 161
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Trivial_File_Transfer_Protocol

QUESTION 28
The networking concept of split horizon is designed to prevent which of the following?
A. Large routing tables
B. Duplicate addresses
C. Collisions
D. Loops
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 29
OFDM, QAM and QPSK are all examples of which of the following wireless technologies?
A. Frequency
B. Modulation
C. RF interferenceD. Spectrum
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 30
Which of the following network infrastructure implementations would be used to connect two remote sales back to the main campus for all data and voice traffic?
A. Crossover cable
B. Multimode fiber
C. Satellite
D. MPLS
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Multi-mode_optical_fiber

QUESTION 31
A CSU/DSU device will connect which of the following?
A. A T1 line to a network router
B. An analog line to a network router
C. A cable modern to a wireless router
D. A local network to a VPN
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 32
A network administrator wants to deploy a wireless network in a location that has too much RF interference at 2.4 GHz. Which of the following standards requires the use of 5 GHz band wireless transmissions? (Select TWO)
A. 802.11a
B. 802.11ac
C. 802.11b
D. 802.11g
E. 802.11n
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation

QUESTION 33
Joe, a home user, would like to share music throughout the computers in his house using a USB drive connected to a router he purchased a year ago. The manufacturer states that the router is capable of recognizing 4 TB, however, Joe is
unable to get his 3TB drive to show up on the network. Which of the following should Joe perform in order to resolve this issue?
A. Load the latest hardware drivers for his USB drive
B. Install the latest OS on his computers
C. Download the latest playback software for his musicfiles
D. Flash the latest firmware for his router
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 34
A network technician is responsible for the basic security of the network. Management has asked if there is a way to improve the level of access users have to the company file server. Right now, any employee can upload and download files
with basic system credentials. Which of the following would require additional credentials?
A. Kerberos authentication
B. MDS authentication
C. Multifactor authentication
D. Single sign-on authentication
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 35
Which of the following cloud infrastructure designs includes on premise servers utilizing a centralized syslog server that is hosted at a third party organization for review?
A. Hybrid
B. Public
C. Community
D. Private
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 36
Which of the following ports should be allowed to provide access to certain VoIP applications?
A. 110
B. 139
C. 1720
D. 5060
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 37
A technician wants to configure the inbound port of a router to prevent FTP traffic from leaving the LAN. Which of the following should be placed on the router interface to accomplish this goal?
A. Static routes for all port 80 traffic
B. DHCP reservations for all /24 subnets
C. ACL for ports 20 and 21
D. MAC filtering using wildcards
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 38
A network technician discovers an issue with spanning tree on the core switch. Which of the following troubleshooting steps should the network technician perform NEXT to resolve the issue?
A. Test a theory to determine the cause
B. Escalate to a senior technician
C. Identify the symptoms
D. Establish a theory of probable cause
E. Establish a plan of action
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 39
An area to which access is controlled by retina scan is protected by which of the following security measure types?
A. Two-factor authentication
B. Biometric
C. Cipher locksD. Optical reader
E. Proximity reader
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 40
Workstations are unable to access the Internet after a recent power outage. Configure the appropriate devices to ensure ALL workstations have Internet connectivity.
Instructions: All ports can be enabled (green) or disabled (red). When you have completed the simu-lation please select the Done button.
pass4itsure N10-006 question
pass4itsure N10-006 question
Hot Area:
pass4itsure N10-006 question
Correct Answer:
pass4itsure N10-006 question
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
All ports should be enabled.

QUESTION 41
DRAG DROP
Your company recently purchased a new building down the street from the existing office.
For each of the tasks below, select the appropriate antenna type and encryption object for all wireless access point (AP).
1. Create an encrypted wireless connection between the two buildings that BEST controls signal propagation, while maximizing security.
2. Restrict the wireless signal generated by the access points (AP’s) inside Building 1, so that it minimizes broadcast beyond the building.
3. Maximize wireless coverage inside Building 1.
4. Building 1’s internal wireless network is for visitors only and must not require any special configuration on the visitor’s device to connect
pass4itsure N10-006 question
pass4itsure N10-006 question
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 42
DRAG DROP
pass4itsure N10-006 question
pass4itsure N10-006 question
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 43
DRAG DROP
You are tasked with creating a network that will accomplish the following requirements
Requirements:
1) The remote sales team must be able to connect to the corporate network
2) Each department must have ONLY two PCs and a server
3) Each department must be segmented from each other
4) The following VLANs have been designated:
a) VLAN 2- Finance
b) VLAN 12- Sales
c) VLAN 22- Human Resources (HR)
Complete the network by dragging the required objects into the diagram
INSTRUCTIONS: Objects can be used multiple times and not all placeholders need to be filled
pass4itsure N10-006 question
pass4itsure N10-006 question
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 44
A customer’s email server is not sending emails. Arrange the troubleshooting steps in the order the technician should perform them
pass4itsure N10-006 question
pass4itsure N10-006 question
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 45
DRAG DROP
Build a T-658B Connection
pass4itsure N10-006 question
pass4itsure N10-006 question
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Cat5/6 Cable Pinouts

QUESTION 46
SIMULATION
You have been tasked with setting up a wireless network in an office. The network will consist of 3 access points and a single switch. The network must meet the following parameters.
The SSIDs need to be configured as corpnet with a key of S3cr3t!
The wireless signals should not interfere with each other
The subnet the Access points and Switch are on should only support 30 devices maximum
The access Points should be configured to only support TKIP clients at a maximum speed
Instructions: Click on the devices to review their information and adjust the setting of the APs to meet the given requirements.
pass4itsure N10-006 question
Correct Answer: Explanation
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
This simulation is still under construction. On the first exhibit, the layout should be as follows
Access Point Name AP1
IP Address 192.168.1.3
Gateway 192.168.1.2
SSID corpnet
SSID Broadcast yes
Mode G
Channel 1
Speed Auto
Duplex Auto
WPA
Passphrase S3cr3t!
Exhibit 2 as follows
Access Point Name AP2
IP Address 192.168.1.4
Gateway 192.168.1.2
SSID corpnet
SSID Broadcast yes
Mode G
Channel 6
Speed Auto
Duplex Auto
WPA
Passphrase S3cr3t!
Exhibit 3 as follows
Access Point Name AP3
IP Address 192.168.1.5
Gateway 192.168.1.2
SSID corpnet
SSID Broadcast yes
Mode G
Channel 11
Speed Auto
Duplex Auto
WPA
Passphrase S3cr3t!

QUESTION 47
DRAG DROP
pass4itsure N10-006 question
pass4itsure N10-006 question
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 48
DRAG DROP
Build a T-658A Connection
pass4itsure N10-006 question
pass4itsure N10-006 question
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Cat5/6 Cable Pinouts

QUESTION 49
DRAG DROP
Wireless network users recently began experiencing speed and performance issues after access point 2 (AP2) was replaced due to faulty hardware. The original network was installed according to a consultant’s specifications and has always
worked without a problem.
You a network technician, have been tasked with evaluating the situation and resolving the issues to improve both performance and connectivity. Refer to the following exhibits and perform any necessary changes to the wireless and wired
infrastructure by adjusting devices. Note: Adjust the LEAST number of devices needed to fix the issue.
pass4itsure N10-006 question
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
After you fix AP2, you must click on the switch, which will bring up the switch interface.
Type in the two commands that they show there, to prove the fix. Donot worry that interface 4 is down, there is no interface 4 for you to do
pass4itsure N10-006 question

QUESTION 50
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the fiber cable connection types to the appropriate image.
pass4itsure N10-006 question
pass4itsure N10-006 question
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 51
SIMULATIONAfter recent changes to the pictured network, several users are unable to access the servers. Only PC1, PC2, PC3, and PC4 are configurable. You can only change the adapter configurations to each PC.
pass4itsure N10-006 question
pass4itsure N10-006 question
Correct Answer: Explanation
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
On PC3, change the subnet mask to 255.255.255.0. When it is set to 255.255.255.128, then the PC with a .129 address will not be on the same subnet as the default gateway which is .1
On PC4, change the default gateway to 10.0.2.1. It has been incorrectly set as 10.1.2.1.
On this simulation, you will be asked to test connectivity after fixing the issues. You MUST ping the other three computers on EACH computer (i.e. from PC1, ping PC2, PC3, PC4, and from PC2, ping PC1, PC3 and PC4, etc)

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QUESTION 1
You have access to the desktop version of Microsoft Excel and Excel Online.
You need to perform a bulk update of data for 225 contacts.
What are two ways to achieve the goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Open the data in Excel Online, make updates, and then save changes to Microsoft Dynamics 365.
B. Export data as a dynamic pivot table, make updates, and then save changes to Microsoft Dynamics 365.
C. Export the data as a static worksheet make updates, and then save changes to Microsoft Dynamics 365.
D. Export the data as a static worksheet, make updates, and then import the data back into Microsoft Dynamics 365.
MB2-718 exam Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 2
You need to enable the Map view for the schedule board. What should you do first?
A. Enable service territories.
B. Enable the connection to Bing Maps.
C. Enable Custom Geolocation.
D. Select a resource details view.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which of the following capabilities is only available when using enhanced SLAs?
A. pause an SLA
B. use security roles to control SLA creation
C. track Key Performance Indicators (KPIs)
D. define failure actions
MB2-718 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
You assign a case to a user named User A.
User A is not available to work on the case. The customer service manager moves the case to the queue for User B .
Which of the following statements is true?
A. User A still owns the case, but the case is located in the queue for UserB .
B. The customer service manager now owns the case.
C. User B now owns the case.
D. The case is not moved to the queue for User B until User A approves the move.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
What is a limitation of the Field Service mobile app?
A. Windows 10 phones do not support the app.
B. You cannot work offline.
C. GPS locations are not available.
D. You cannot create follow-ups.
MB2-718 pdf Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which of the following records can you convert into a case?
A. task
B. queue
C. lead
D. opportunity
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
You are creating a new knowledge base article about a known product defect
After publishing the article, you discover an inaccuracy.
You need to correct the issue while maintaining a traceable history of what was published.
What should you do?
A. Use the update article option.
B. Revert the article to draft status, fix the error, and then republish the article.
C. Delete and recreate the article.
D. Publish a minor revision to the article.
MB2-718 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which two security roles are created when you install the Field Service application? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Field Service Administrator
B. Field Service Dispatcher
C. Field Service Representative
D. Field Service Read Only
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 9
You need to provide quick ad-hoc analysis of data from within the Microsoft Dynamics 365 environment Which Export to Excel option should you use?
A. Excel Online
B. static worksheet
C. dynamic worksheet
D. dynamic pivot table
MB2-718 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
You use the interactive service hub to manage cases.
Users report that they have difficulty finding a specific knowledge base article when they initiate a search from within a case.
You need to ensure that search returns relevant results.
What are two possible ways to achieve the goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Relate the article to one or more categories.
B. Relate the article to a more relevant subject.
C. Update the article description.
D. Add additional keywords.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 11
You ship a replacement part to a customer.
The customer reports that they receive the incorrect part.
You need to initiate a process to return the product to the warehouse.
What should you do?
A. Create a new return merchandise authorization (RMA) record.
B. Create a new return to vendor (RTV) record.
C. Create a new Agreement record.
D. Create a new Inventory Adjustment record.
MB2-718 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Which two statements regarding case routing are true? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. You can add a maximum of five routing rule items to a routing rule set
B. A workflow is automatically created for each routing rule.
C. A maximum of three routing rule sets can be active at the same time.
D. You can route or assign a case to a user, queue, or team.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 13
Which two of the following are valid routing rule actions? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Cancel Case
B. Send Email
C. Assign to User/Team
D. Route to Queue
MB2-718 pdf Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 14
You have a Microsoft Dynamics 365 environment You implement Field Service.
You need to set up a service task type.
Which three fields, components, or relationships are available when you create a new service task type? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Description
B. Notes
C. Field Agent
D. Estimated Duration
E. Work Order Duration
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 15
You need to change the warehouse location for product inventory. What should you do?
A. Create a new Product Relationship record.
B. Create a new Warehouse record.
C. Create a new Inventory Transfer record.
D. Create a new Inventory Adjustment record.
MB2-718 vce Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
You implement the Unified Service Desk (USD). You plan to implement actions and replacement parameters. Which three symbols are valid replacement keys? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. ^
B. –
C. +
D. $
E. ~
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 17
You enable feedback for a Voice of the Customer survey. What is the total number of questions allowed for the survey?
A. 30
B. 40
C. 100
D. 250
MB2-718 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
You use the automatic creation and update rule feature to create case records automatically.
Which three source record types are available for automatically creating a case? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. social activity
B. mailbox alert
C. survey activity
D. auto post
E. booking alert
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 19
You create a queue and assign it to a team. Which type of queue is created?
A. Personal
B. System
C. Escalation
D. Shared
MB2-718 dumps Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 20
You create a service-level agreement (SLA). For which two of the following key performance indicators (KPIs) can you create actions? Each correct answer
presents a complete solution.
A. Escalate By
B. Resolve By
C. First Response By
D. Close By
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 21
Under which two circumstances will a routing rule be applied to a case without user intervention? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. a case is created as the result of a record creation rule
B. a case was created before the routing rule was activated
C. a case is created by using a convert to case action
D. a case is created manually
MB2-718 pdf Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 22
You manage a Microsoft Dynamics 365 deployment for Contoso, Ltd.
You need to provide users the URL to their Microsoft Dynamics 365 Online interactive service hub.
What is the URL format for the Microsoft Dynamics 365 Online interactive service hub?
A. hnps://www.microsoht.com/en-US/crynamics/crm-custo-customer-center/interactive- service-hub-user-s-guide.aspx#bkmk_Access
B. https://contoso.crm.dynamics.com/XRMServices/2011/Discovery.svc
C. https://contoso.crm.dynamics,com/engagementhub.aspx
D. https://contoso.crm.dynamics.com/main.aspx
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 23
You have a Microsoft Dynamics 365 environment. You implement Field Service and create a Field Service Agreement for a specific account
Where should you define the preferred resource?
A. Schedule Board Setting
B. Booking Setup
C. Field Service Settings
D. Scheduler Field Service slot text template
MB2-718 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 24
You implement the Unified Service Desk (USD). Which three of the following objects are events? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Realignwindow
B. BrowserDocumentComplete
C. DesktopReady
D. SessionClosing
E. FireEvent
Correct Answer: CDE

QUESTION 25
What are two examples of entitlement allotment options? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Number of Channels
B. Number of Products
C. Number of Cases
D. Number of Hours
MB2-718 exam Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 26
Which three statements regarding Voice of The Customer are true. Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. The survey definition is stored in Microsoft Azure. The survey response is temporarily stored in Azure Service Bus then later retrieved and stored in Microsoft Dynamics 365. Survey responses are deleted from Azure Service Bus after they are stored in Microsoft Dynamics 365.
B. Collateral, such as themes and images, can be stored as web resources and included in solutions.
C. Surveys can be included in solutions.
D. Each new environment requires the creation of configuration records.
E. Each survey contains three forms.
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 27
You are a customer service agent in a call center. AH customer service agents use Unified Service Desk (USD) to respond to calls.
You need to respond to two calls from two different customers at the same time. What should you do?
A. Create one session for each customer.
B. Create two sessions and use connections to create a relationship between them.
C. Create one session and add each customer to a separate section on the form.
D. Create one session and add each customer to the related customer sub grid.
MB2-718 dumps Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 28
You release an item from a queue.
What is the outcome?
A. The current routing rule is applied.
B. The value from the Worked By field is removed.
C. The record is returned to the originating queue.
D. The record is removed from the current queue and placed in the user’s personal queue.
Correct Answer: D

Exam Code: MB2-718
Exam Name: Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Customer Service
Q&As: 90

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2.0 Secure Access 14%
3.0 VPN 17%
4.0 Secure Routing and Switching 18%
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6.0 IPS 9%
7.0 Content and Endpoint Security

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QUESTION 21
Which ports need to be active for AAA server and a Microsoft server to permit Active Directory authentication?
A. 445 and 389
B. 888 and 3389
C. 636 and 4445
D. 363 and 983
210-260 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 22
DRAG DROP
Drag the hash or algorithm from the left column to its appropriate category on the right.
Select and Place:
210-260 dumps
Correct Answer:
210-260 dumps
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 23
If a switch receives a superior BPDU and goes directly into a blocked state, what mechanism must be in use?
A. root guard
B. EtherChannel guard
C. loop guard
D. BPDU guard
210-260  dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 24
Which two are valid types of VLANs using PVLANs? (Choose two.)
A. Backup VLAN
B. Secondary VLAN
C. Promiscuous VLAN
D. Community VLAN
E. Isolated VLAN
Correct Answer: DE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 25
Which two are the default settings for port security? (Choose two.)
A. Violation is Protect
B. Maximum number of MAC addresses is 1
C. Violation is Restrict
D. Violation is Shutdown
E. Maximum number of MAC addresses is 2
210-260 pdf Correct Answer: BD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 26
Refer to the exhibit.
210-260 dumps
Which area represents the data center?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 27
Refer to the exhibit.
210-260 dumps
A network security administrator checks the ASA firewall NAT policy table with the show nat command. Which statement is false?
A. First policy in the Section 1 is dynamic nat entry defined in the object configuration.
B. There are only reverse translation matches for the REAL_SERVER object.
C. NAT policy in Section 2 is a static entry defined in the object configuration.
D. Translation in Section 3 is used when a connection does not match any entries in first two sections.
210-260 vce Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 28
Which two are characteristics of RADIUS? (Choose two.)
A. Uses TCP ports 1812/1813
B. Uses UDP port 49
C. Encrypts only the password between user and server
D. Uses TCP port 49
E. Uses UDP ports 1812/1813
Correct Answer: CE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 29
Which two types of firewalls work at layer 4 and above? (Choose two.)
A. Application level firewall
B. Circuit-level gateway
C. Static packet filter
D. Network Address Translation
E. Stateful inspection
210-260 exam Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 30
When setting up a site-to-site VPN with PSK authentication on a Cisco router, which two elements must be configured under crypto map? (Choose two.)
A. nat
B. peer
C. pfs
D. reverse-route
E. transform-set
Correct Answer: BE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 31
Which two commands are used to implement Resilient IOS Configuration? (Choose two.)
A. copy flash:/ios.bin tftp
B. copy running-config tftp
C. copy running-config startup-config
D. secure boot-image
E. secure boot-config
210-260 dumps Correct Answer: DE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 32
Which two events would cause the state table of a stateful firewall to be updated? (Choose two.)
A. when a connection’s timer has expired within the state table
B. when a connection is created
C. when rate-limiting is applied
D. when a packet is evaluated against the outbound access list and is denied
E. when an outbound packet is forwarded to the outbound interface
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 33
Which IPSec mode is used to encrypt traffic directly between a client and a server VPN endpoint?
A. transport mode
B. tunnel mode
C. aggressive mode
D. quick mode
210-260 pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 34
On an ASA, the policy that indicates that traffic should not be translated is often referred to as which of the following?
A. NAT zero
B. NAT forward
C. NAT null
D. NAT allow
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 35
What is true of an ASA in transparent mode?
A. It requires a management IP address
B. It allows the use of dynamic NAT
C. It requires an IP address for each interface
D. It supports OSPF
210-260 vce Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 36
Which component offers a variety of security solutions, including firewall, IPS, VPN, antispyware, antivirus, and antiphishing features?
A. Cisco IOS router
B. Cisco ASA 5500-X Series Next Gen. Security appliance
C. Cisco 4200 series IPS appliance
D. Cisco ASA 5500 series security appliance
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 37
How does a zone pair handle traffic if the policy definition of the zone pair is missing?
A. It permits all traffic without logging.
B. It drops all traffic.
C. It inspects all traffic.
D. It permits and logs all traffic.
210-260 exam Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 38
Which command do you enter to configure your firewall to conceal internal addresses?
A. no ip logging facility
B. no ip directed-broadcast
C. no ip inspect
D. no proxy-arp
E. no ip source-route
F. no ip inspect audit-trail
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 39
Which IOS command do you enter to test authentication against a AAA server?
A. aaa authentication enable default test group tacacs+
B. dialer aaa suffix password C. ppp authentication chap pap test
D. test aaa-server authentication dialergroup username password
210-260 dumps Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 40
Which technology can block a non-malicious program that is run from a local computer that has been disconnected from the network?
A. antivirus software
B. firewall
C. host IPS
D. network IPS
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

Exam Code: 210-260
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Network Security
Q&As: 329

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IINS Study Material:

Security Concepts

  • Implementing Cisco Network Security (IINS) v3.0CLN Store Content
  • CCNA Security Official Study Guide by Cisco PressCisco Press Content
  • Diffie Hellman Exchange
  • Mitigating Layer 2 Attacks
  • CCNA Security 210-260 Complete Video CourseCisco Press Content
  • CCNA Security (210-260) Portable Command Guide, 2nd EditionCisco Press Content
  • Current Security Threat Landscape Networking Talks LiveLessonsCisco Press Content
  • Cisco Firepower Threat Defense (FTD): Configuration and Troubleshooting Best Practices for the Next-Generation Firewall (NGFW), Next-Generation Intrusion Prevention System (NGIPS), and Advanced Malware Protection (AMP)

Secure Access

  • Implementing Cisco Network Security (IINS) v3.0CLN Store Content
  • Securing Cisco Routers 1.0 (SECR)
  • CCNA Security Prep from Networkers
  • CCNA Security 210-260 Complete Video CourseCisco Press Content
  • CCNA Security (210-260) Portable Command Guide, 2nd EditionCisco Press Content
  • Cisco Firepower Threat Defense (FTD): Configuration and Troubleshooting Best Practices for the Next-Generation Firewall (NGFW), Next-Generation Intrusion Prevention System (NGIPS), and Advanced Malware Protection (AMP)

VPN

  • Implementing Cisco Network Security (IINS) v3.0CLN Store Content
  • CCNA Security: IPsec VPNs
  • CCNA Security: SSL VPNs Varies
  • Configuring IPsec Site-to-Site VPN
  • Site-to-Site IPsec VPN Operations
  • Diffie Hellman Exchange
  • Securing Cisco Routers 1.0 (SECR)
  • CCNA Security 210-260 Complete Video CourseCisco Press Content
  • CCNA Security (210-260) Portable Command Guide, 2nd EditionCisco Press Content

Secure Routing and Switching

  • Implementing Cisco Network Security (IINS) v3.0CLN Store Content
  • Mitigating Layer 2 Attacks
  • Hardening Cisco IOS Devices
  • Securing Cisco Routers 1.0 (SECR)
  • CCNA Security 210-260 Complete Video CourseCisco Press Content
  • CCNA Security (210-260) Portable Command Guide, 2nd EditionCisco Press Content

Cisco Firewall Technologies

  • Implementing Cisco Network Security (IINS) v3.0CLN Store Content
  • CCNA Security 210-260 Complete Video CourseCisco Press Content
  • CCNA Security (210-260) Portable Command Guide, 2nd EditionCisco Press Content
  • Cisco Next-Generation Security Solutions: All-in-one Cisco ASA Firepower Services, NGIPS, and AMPCisco Press Content

IPS

  • Implementing Cisco Network Security (IINS) v3.0CLN Store Content
  • Chapter 6: Network Security Using Cisco IOS IPS
  • Chapter 5: Cisco IOS IPS
  • Securing Hosts Using Cisco Security Agent (HIPS) v3.1
  • Securing Cisco Routers 1.0 (SECR)
  • CCNA Security 210-260 Complete Video CourseCisco Press Content
  • CCNA Security (210-260) Portable Command Guide, 2nd EditionCisco Press Content
  • Introduction to FirePOWER & FireSIGHT Policies
  • Cisco Next-Generation Security Solutions: All-in-one Cisco ASA Firepower Services, NGIPS, and AMPCisco Press Content
  • Cisco Firepower Threat Defense (FTD): Configuration and Troubleshooting Best Practices for the Next-Generation Firewall (NGFW), Next-Generation Intrusion Prevention System (NGIPS), and Advanced Malware Protection (AMP)

Content and Endpoint Security

  • Implementing Cisco Network Security (IINS) v3.0CLN Store Content
  • Securing Hosts Using Cisco Security Agent (HIPS) v3.1
  • CCNA Security 210-260 Complete Video CourseCLN Store Content
  • CCNA Security (210-260) Portable Command Guide, 2nd EditionCLN Store Content
  • Introduction to FirePOWER & FireSIGHT Policies
  • Cisco Next-Generation Security Solutions: All-in-one Cisco ASA Firepower Services, NGIPS, and AMPCisco Press Content
  • Cisco Firepower Threat Defense (FTD): Configuration and Troubleshooting Best Practices for the Next-Generation Firewall (NGFW), Next-Generation Intrusion Prevention System (NGIPS), and Advanced Malware Protection (AMP)

This exam tests the candidate’s knowledge of secure network infrastructure, understanding core security concepts, managing secure access, VPN encryption, firewalls, intrusion prevention, web and email content security, and endpoint security. This exam validates skills for installation, troubleshooting, and monitoring of a secure network to maintain integrity, confidentiality, and availability of data and devices. The pass4itsure practice test 210-260 prepares candidates for the Cisco exam 210-260: Implementing Cisco Network Security exam. This exam also shows competency in the technologies that Cisco uses in its security infrastructure. Experts assess students’ capability through pass4itsure 210-260 dumps exams. Pass4itsure have remarkably contributed to a vital role in your life and also the improvement of your living standards. Candidates can prepare for this exam by taking the Implementing Cisco Network Security (IINS) course.
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QUESTION 1
You manage two solutions in separate Azure subscriptions.
You need to ensure that the two solutions can communicate on a private network.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer a
Select and Place:
70-533 dumps
70-533 exam Correct Answer:
70-533 dumps
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Configure a VNet to VNet connection
There are 5 sections to plan and configure. Configure each section in the order listed below:
Note: In this procedure, we’ll walk you through connecting two virtual networks, VNet1 and VNet2. You’ll need to be comfortable with networking in order to substitute the IP address ranges that are compatible with your network design requirements. From an Azure virtual network, connecting to another Azure virtual network is the same as connecting to an on premises network via Site-to-site (S2S) VPN. This procedure primarily uses the Management Portal, however, you must use Microsoft Azure PowerShell cmdlets to connect the VPN gateways.
References:

QUESTION 2
Your company has a main office and several branch offices.
You create an Azure subscription and you deploy several virtual machines. The virtual machines are located in multiple subnets.
You need to provide remote access to the virtual machines to five users in each office by using a VPN connection. The remote access connections will not require a VPN device nor a public-facing IP address in order to work. Which three actions should you perform in sequence before you download the VPN client on each computer? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:
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Correct Answer:
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Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 3
You manage an Azure virtual network environment for a company that has an office in Boston. The company plans to open a new office location in Paris.
You must replicate the Boston virtual network environment in Paris. How should you complete the relevant Azure PowerShell commands? To answer, drag the appropriate Azure PowerShell segment to the correct location. Each Azure PowerShell segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You
may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
Select and Place:
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70-533 dumps Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 4
HOTSPOT
You manage a web application named Contoso that is accessible from the URL
You need to view a live stream of log events for the web application. How should you configure the Azure PowerShell command? To answer, select the appropriate Azure PowerShell segment from each list in the answer area.
Hot Area:
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Correct Answer:
70-533 dumps
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
References:

QUESTION 5
You are the Azure administrator for Contoso Ltd. You plan to use SharePoint Online to facilitate collaboration with a partner company named Fabrikam, Inc.
You have the following collaboration requirements:
You need to configure SharePoint Online.
Which configuration setting should you use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
Hot Area:
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70-533 pdf Correct Answer:
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Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
References:

QUESTION 6
You are the administrator for your company’s Azure environment.
A developer creates an application that needs to access resources in external systems.
The application will be deployed in the domain.
You need to use the Azure Command-Line Interface (CLI) to create a service principal.
How should you configure the command? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:
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Correct Answer:
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Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
References:

QUESTION 7
DRAG DROP
You plan to deploy a cloud service named contosoapp. The service includes a web role named contosowebrole. The web role has an endpoint named restrictedEndpoint. You need to allow access to restricted Endpoint only from your office machine using the IP address 145.34.67.82. Which values should you use within the service configuration file? To answer, drag the appropriate value to the correct location in the service configuration file. Each value may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
Select and Place:
70-533 dumps
70-533 pdf Correct Answer:
70-533 dumps
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
* Rule with lower order are applied first.
* We can selectively permit or deny network traffic (in the management portal or from PowerShell) for a virtual machine input endpoint by creating rules that specify “permit” or “deny”. By default, when an endpoint is created, all traffic is permitted to the endpoint. So for that reason, it’s important to understand how to create permit/deny rules and place them in the proper order of precedence to gain granular control over the network traffic that you choose to allow to reach the virtual machine endpoint. Note that at the instant you add one or more “permit” ranges, you are denying all other ranges by default. Moving forward from the first permit range, only packets from the permitted IP range will be able to communicate with the virtual machine endpoint.

QUESTION 8
You are managing an Azure SQL Database.
You need to export the database to a BACPAC file and verify that the export completes successfully.
Which four Azure PowerShell cmdlets or scripts should you run in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate cmdlets or scripts from the list of cmdlets to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:
70-533 dumps
Correct Answer:
70-533 dumps
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
References:

QUESTION 9
HOTSPOT
You manage a public-facing web application which allows authenticated users to upload and download large files. On the initial public page there is a promotional video. You plan to give users access to the site content and promotional video.In the table below, identify the access method that should be used for the anonymous and authenticated parts of the application. Make only one selection in each column.
Hot Area:
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QUESTION 10
You manage an Azure environment that has 12 virtual machines (VMs). A set of VMs run a Web App that uses ASP.NET. The developer of the application must have access to ASP.NET metrics and Internet Information Services (IIS) logs from the VMs. You need to ensure that the metrics and logs are saved and provide the developer access to the data. For each requirement, which option should you use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
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Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 11
You have an Azure Web App that uses the URL contoso.azurewebsites.net. The virtual IP address of the web app is subject to change. Users must be able to navigate to a custom domain name to access the Web App. You set up the DNS records for a custom domain at a third party registrar. You need to configure the web app to use the custom domain name. For each mapping, which DNS record type should you create? To answer, select the appropriate DNS record type from each list in the answer area.
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QUESTION 12
Your company network has two branch offices. Some employees work remotely, including at public locations. You manage an Azure environment that includes several virtual networks. All users require access to the virtual networks. In the table below, identify which secure cross-premise connectivity option is needed for each type of user. Make only one selection in each column.
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Explanation
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* A site-to-site VPN allows you to create a secure connection between your on-premises site and your virtual network.
* A point-to-site VPN also allows you to create a secure connection to your virtual network.
In a point-to-site configuration, the connection is configured individually on each client computer that you want to connect to the virtual network.
* Use a point-to-site configuration when:
You want connect to your virtual network from a remote location. For example, connecting from a coffee shop.
You have a site-to-site connection, but have some clients that need to connect from a remote location.

QUESTION 13
HOTSPOT
You manage an Azure Web Site for a consumer-product company.
The website runs in Standard mode on a single medium instance.
You expect increased traffic to the website due to an upcoming sale during a holiday weekend.
You need to ensure that the website performs optimally when user activity is at its highest.
Which option should you select? To answer, select the appropriate option in the answer area.
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Note: The ‘small’ instance is selected. This setting would be for the weekdays. Then you would select a larger instance for the ‘weekend’ schedule setting to cover the increased activity.
References:

Exam Code: 70-533
Exam Name: Implementing Microsoft Azure Infrastructure Solutions
Q&As: 236

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  • 1.0 Implement Cisco Unified Computing 28%
  • 2.0 Unified Computing Maintenance and Operations 20%
  • 3.0 Automation 12%
  • 4.0 Unified Computing Security 13%
  • 5.0 Unified Computing Storage 27%

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1. According to the SAS Rapid Warehousing Methodology, which of the following are valid outputs from the Requirements Phase? I.project plan II.cost/benefit analysis III.logical and physical models IV.metadata exploitation, population, and update process
A. I and II only
B. I, II, and III only
C. I, II, and IV only
D. I, II, III, and IV
300-175 exam Answer: A

2. Which of the following provides read access control to a SAS dataset?
A. Racf and RSA
B. LDAP and Racf
C. Roscoe and RSA
D. Panvelet and Roscoe
Answer: B

3. The performance scalability of SAS full table scans is being estimated. Which of the following metrics is appropriate for direct attached storage?
A. I/O per second
B. I/O latency per request
C. I/O request average size
D. I/O in megabytes per second
300-175 dumps Answer: D

4. Usage success criteria have been defined for a data warehouse project. Which of the following metrics supports these criteria?
A. number of queries in a given time period
B. performance against a pre-warehouse baseline
C. number of gigabytes of data stored in the warehouse
D. amount of time between the close of business and warehouse refresh
Answer: A

5. A data warehouse uses a relational database management system (RDBMS) for its core data repository. Bulk loading has been proposed as the method for loading larger RDBMS tables into the warehouse. Which of the following must be considered when developing the bulk load routines? I.indexes II.join efficiency III.integrity constraints IV.representation of null values
A. I and II only
B. III and IV only
C. I, II, and III only
D. I, III, and IV only
300-175 pdf Answer: D

6. Which of the following factors must be considered when designing an efficient client-server ad hoc query system?
A. output appearance
B. user access privileges
C. graphical user interface
D. number of rows in the result set
Answer: D

7. During warehouse process and architecture planning, which of the following are required inputs for an
effective gap analysis of the operational source systems? I.detailed logical models II.locations of source
data III.detailed physical models IV.business requirements document
A. I and III only
B. III and IV only
C. I, II, and IV only
D. I, III, and IV only
300-175 vce Answer: D

8. A diagram of a logical entity-relationship model of a magazine subscription company is shown below: Which of the following statements about this model is true?
A. Every sales region has several sales reps.
B. A package may be related to several subscriptions.
C. All magazines are included in at least one package.
D. A subscription may be related to several subscribers.
Answer: B

9. A medical insurance company has developed a data warehouse containing confidential data about its customers. Power users require OLAP functionality with reach-through to the detail data. Which of the following supports the users’ requirements while protecting customer privacy?
A. providing only aggregated statistics
B. securing the data within the OLAP application
C. securing sensitive data within the detail schema
D. suppressing personal details from summarized reports
300-175 exam Answer: C

10. A SAS reporting application is used by 100 users within a company. The user base is equally divided between power, intermediate, and novice users. All users are currently sharing the same temporary space when executing queries to produce reports. Examination of the user logs indicates I/O contention
when using the temporary space. Which of the following would improve I/O performance?
A. prioritizing execution of all jobs by user level
B. assigning all 100 users their individual temporary space
C. forcing all users to execute queries using permanent space
D. using logical partitioning of the temporary space by user group
Answer: B

QUESTION: 11
When applying the Messaging Metadata pattern, it is customary to place business document data in the message header and supplementary messaging metadata in the message body.
A. True
B. False
300-175 dumps Answer: B

QUESTION: 12
The Messaging Metadata pattern requires a messaging framework that supports the processing of messages with headers or properties.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

QUESTION: 13
Which of the following statements is false?
A. Widespread use of the Messaging Metadata pattern can be seen in the emergence of many WS-* extensions that define industry standard SOAP header blocks that carry metadata.
B. Messaging frameworks and technologies need to provide support for the reading and writing of message headers or properties in order to fully support the application of the Messaging Metadata pattern.
C. The Messaging Metadata pattern is not applicable to situations where the message sender and receiver need to participate in stateful or conversational message exchanges.
D. The Messaging Metadata pattern can support the application of patterns such as Intermediate Routing by supplementing messages with activity-specific metadata.
300-175 exam Answer: C

QUESTION: 14
A service agent has a technical contract that allows it to be explicitly invoked by service consumer programs.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

QUESTION: 15
Which of the following functions would not be suitable for a typical service agent?
A. event logging
B. message routing
C. complex Web service composition
D. error logging
300-175 dumps Answer: C

QUESTION: 16
The use of service agents will affect the design of service compositions as follows:
A. it will tend to increase the number of required services
B. it will tend to decrease the number of required services
C. it will tend to increase the number of required service compositions
D. it will tend to decrease the number of required service compositions
Answer: B

QUESTION: 17
Which of the following statements is true?
A. The overuse of service agents can lead to dependencies on proprietary vendor platforms.
B. The use of service agents is limited to the service architecture.
C. Service agents are common in orchestration environments but not within enterprise service bus environments.
D. None of these statements are true.
300-175 pdf Answer: A

QUESTION: 8
Governance can become an issue with service agents because:
A. You will need to determine who will own and maintain the service agents.
B. Changes to a single service agent can impact multiple services throughout a service inventory.
C. Service agents need to be versioned, just like services.
D. All of the above.
Answer: D

QUESTION: 9
Which of the following patterns may also require the application of the Service Agent pattern?
A. Reliable Messaging
B. Asynchronous Queuing
C. Intermediate Routing
D. Policy Centralization
300-175 exam Answer: A, B, C, D

QUESTION: 10
Which statement regarding intermediate routing is true?
A. The application of the Intermediate Routing pattern is suitable for handling message routing requirements that are dynamic in nature and difficult to anticipate in advance.
B. The application of the Intermediate Routing pattern is suitable for handling pre determined message paths with fixed routing requirements that cannot be changed at runtime.
C. The application of the Intermediate Routing pattern tends to improve runtime performance when compared to an approach whereby routing logic is embedded within individual services.
D. None of these statements are true.
Answer: A

QUESTION: 11
The application of the Intermediate Routing pattern can address which of the following needs?
A. The need to increase the autonomy of a service due to its reliance on a shared data source.
B. The need to perform content-based routing based upon metadata found in the message header.
C. The need for load-balanced access to a redundantly deployed service.
D. The need to provide pre-defined compensating logic for when an atomic service transaction fails.
300-175 dumps Answer: B, C

QUESTION: 12
Load balancing is commonly associated with which pattern?
A. Atomic Service Transaction
B. Intermediate Routing
C. Service Broker
D. Decoupled Contract
Answer: B

QUESTION: 13
The use of the Intermediate Routing pattern typically results in:
A. common routing logic being removed from service logic and placed into service agents
B. common routing logic being removed from service agents and placed into a database
C. common routing logic being physically centralized into a single service
D. common routing logic being physically centralized into a single service composition
300-175 pdf Answer: A

QUESTION: 14
The application of the Intermediate Routing pattern can result in multiple service agents intercepting a message before it arrives at its destination.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

QUESTION:15
When applying the Asynchronous Queuing pattern you aim to establish an environment in which:
A. an intermediate buffer exists between a service and its service consumer
B. temporary message storage is provided in case either the service or service consumer are unavailable
C. periodic re-transmission of a message is supported until it is successfully delivered
D. enforcement of consistent, uninterrupted, synchronous communication between service and service consumer are guaranteed
300-175 vce Answer: A, B, C

QUESTION: 16
The queue established by applying the Asynchronous Queuing pattern enables service consumer and service to revert to a stateless condition before a data exchange has fully completed.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

QUESTION: 17
The Reliable Messaging pattern requires:
A. the use of standardized service contracts in order to enable message atomic transaction details to be carried in the message header
B. a framework for temporarily persisting messages and issuing acknowledgements
C. the application of the Official Endpoint pattern in order to enable acknowledgement features
D. a framework capable of bridging disparate messaging protocols in order to exchange schemas between compatible services
300-175 exam Answer: B
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Exam Code: 300-175
Exam Name: DCUCI Implementing Cisco Data Center Unified Computing (DCUCI)
Q&As: 249

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Implement Unified Computing:

  • BRKINI-2201 – Deploying Cisco UCS in Modern Datacenters
  • Cisco Unified Computing System At-a-glance
  • Cisco Data Center Equipment and Technology Overview
  • Cisco UCS B-Series Blade Servers
  • Cisco UCS C-Series Rack Servers
  • Cisco UCS Manager Support Documentation And Software
  • Cisco UCS Central Software Support Documentation And Software
  • Cisco UCS Director Support Documentation And Software
  • Understanding Cisco Unified Computing System Service Profiles

Unified Computing Maintenance and Operations

  • Cisco UCS Manager Support Documentation And Software
  • BRKCOM-3008 – Unraveling UCS Manager Features, Policies and Mechanics

Automation

  • DEVNET-2060 – Managing Cisco UCS with the Python SDK
  • Introduction to Python Programming
  • Cisco UCS Manager Support Documentation And Software

Unified Computing Security

  • Cisco UCS Manager Support Documentation And Software

Unified Computing Storage

  • Cisco UCS Manager Support Documentation And Software
  • BRKCOM-2007 – UCS Storage Integration, Technologies, and Topologies
  • Storage Networking Protocol Fundamentals
  • Storage Networking Fundamentals: An Introduction to Storage Devices, Subsystems, Applications, Management, and File Systems 480

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Question No : 14  You use Group Policy to standardize Internet Explorer settings on Windows 7 client computers. Users occasionally change the Internet Explorer settings on individual client computers. What should you do?
A. Use Group Policy to disable the Advanced tab of the Internet Explorer Properties dialog box.
B. Use the Group Policy Update utility to refresh Group Policy.
C. Enable Internet Explorer Maintenance Policy Processing in Group Policy.
D. Enable User Group Policy loopback processing mode.
70-686 exam 
Answer: C
Explanation:
nternet Explorer Maintenance policy processing
This policy affects all policies that use the Internet Explorer Maintenance component of Group Policy, such as those in Windows Settings\Internet Explorer Maintenance. It overrides customized settings that the program implementing the Internet Explorer Maintenance policy set when it was installed. If you enable this policy, you can use the check boxes provided to change the options. Allow processing across a slow network connection updates the policies even when the update is being transmitted across a slow network connection, such as a telephone line. Updates across slow connections can cause significant delays. Do not apply during periodic background processing prevents the system from updating affected policies in the background while the computer is in use. Background updates can disrupt the user, cause a program to stop or operate abnormally, and, in rare cases, damage data.  Process even if the Group Policy objects have not changed updates and reapplies the policies even if the policies have not changed. Many policy implementations specify that they are updated only when changed. However, you might want to update unchanged policies, such as reapplying a desired setting in case a user has changed it.

Question No : 15
Your companys network includes client computers that run Windows 7. You design a wireless network to use Extensible Authentication ProtocolCTransport Level Security (EAP-TLS). The Network Policy Server has a certificate installed. Client computers are unable to connect to the wireless access points. You need to enable client computers to connect to the wireless network. What should you do?
A. Install a certificate in the Trusted Root Certification Authorities certificate store.
B. Configure client computers to use Protected Extensible Authentication ProtocolCTransport Layer Security (PEAP-TLS).
C. Configure client computers to use Protected Extensible Authentication Protocol Microsoft Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol version 2 (PEAP-MS-CHAP v2).
D. Install a certificate in the Third-Party Root Certification Authorities certificate store.
Answer: A
Explanation:

Question No : 16
Your company infrastructure includes a Windows Server 2008 R2 file server and 1,000 Windows 7 Enterprise client computers. The company wants to require a secure connection between client computers and the file server. You need to create and deploy a Group Policy object (GPO) that includes a rule for Windows Firewall with Advanced Security. What should you do?
A. Create an Isolation rule and specify Request authentication for inbound and outbound connections.
B. Create a Tunnel rule and specify Gateway-to-client as the tunnel type.
C. Create a Server-to-server rule and specify the endpoints as Any IP address and the file server IP address.
D. Create an Authentication exemption rule and add the file server IP address to the Exempt Computers list.
70-686 dumps Answer: C
Explanation:
The PDC emulator master also serves as the machine to which all domain controllers in the domain will synchronise their clocks. It, in turn, should be configured to synchronise to an external NTP time source

Question No : 17
You deploy Windows 7 to the computers that are used by your companys Web developers. All Web developer user accounts are in a single organizational unit (OU). Internet Explorer is blocking pop-up windows for multiple internal Web applications that are hosted on different servers. You need to use Group Policy to ensure that Internet Explorer does not block pop-up windows for internal Web applications. What should you do?
A. Enable Compatibility View in Internet Explorer.
B. Add each server to the Intranet zone.
C. Add each server to the Trusted Sites zone.
D. Set the default security setting in Internet Explorer to Medium.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Pop-up Blocker features
Pop-up Blocker is turned on by default. There are restrictions on the size and position of pop-up windows, regardless of the Pop-up Blocker setting. Pop-up windows cannot be opened larger than or outside the viewable desktop area. For more information, see “Windows Restrictions” in this document. When this functionality is enabled, automatic and background pop-up windows are blocked, but windows that are opened by a user click will still open in the usual manner. Note that sites in the Trusted Sites and Local Intranet zones do not have their pop-up windows blocked by default, as they are considered safe. This setting can be configured in the Security tab in Internet Options.
hints: internal web , so i choose intranet zones.
Local Intranet Zone
By default, the Local Intranet zone contains all network connections that were established
by using a Universal
Naming Convention (UNC) path, and Web sites that bypass the proxy server or have names that do not include periods (for example, http://local), as long as they are not assigned to either the Restricted Sites or Trusted Sites zone. The default security level for the Local Intranet zone is set to Medium (Internet Explorer 4) or Medium-low (Internet Explorer 5 and 6). Be aware that when you access a local area network (LAN) or an intranet share, or an intranet Web site by using an Internet Protocol (IP) address or by using a fully qualified domain name (FQDN), the share or Web site is identified as being in the Internet zone instead of in the Local intranet zone.
Trusted Sites Zone
This zone contains Web sites that you trust as safe (such as Web sites that are on your organization’s intranet or that come from established companies in whom you have confidence). When you add a Web site to the Trusted Sites zone, you believe that files you download or that you run from the Web site will not damage your computer or data. By default, there are no Web sites that are assigned to the Trusted Sites zone, and the security level is set to Low.

Question No : 18
Your network has client computers that run Windows 7 Enterprise. You plan to deploy new administrative template policy settings by using custom ADMX files. You create the custom ADMX files, and you save them on a network share. You start Group Policy Object Editor (GPO Editor). The custom ADMX files are not available in the Group Policy editing session. You need to ensure that the ADMX files are available to the GPO Editor. What should you do?
A. Copy the ADMX files to the % systemroot% \ inf folder on each Windows 7 computer, and then restart the GPO Editor.
B. Set the network share permissions to grant all Windows 7 users Read access for the share.
C. Copy the ADMX files to the %systemroot% \ system32 folder on each Windows 7 computer, and then restart the GPO Editor.
D. Copy the ADMX files to the central store, and then restart the GPO Editor.
70-686 pdf Answer: D
Explanation:
To take advantage of the benefits of .admx files, you must create a Central Store in the SYSVOL folder on a domain controller. The Central Store is a file location that is checked by the Group Policy tools. The Group Policy tools use any .admx files that are in the Central Store. The files that are in the Central Store are later replicated to all domain controllers in the domain.

Question No : 19 DRAG DROP
You are planning to deploy Windows 7 Enterprise to all of your company’s client
computers.
You have the following requirements:
• Create two custom partitions on each client computer’s hard disk, one for the operating system and the other for data.
• Automatically create the partitions during Windows Setup.
You need to design an image that meets the requirements. Which two actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order)
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Question No : 20 DRAG DROP
All client computers in an organization run Windows 7 and are joined to an Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain. All user objects are stored in an Organizational Unit (OU) named Contoso Users. All computer objects are stored in an OU named Contoso Computers. You need to add a proxy server to the Microsoft Internet Explorer 9 configuration on all client computers by using the least administrative effort. Which three actions should you perform? (To answer, move the appropriate action from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)
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QUESTION 36
An administrator wants to issue the command echo 1 >/var/ log/boater.log once all of the scripts in / etc/ rc2.d have been executed. What is the best way to accomplish this?
A. Add the command to /etc/rc.local
B. Create a script in ~/.kde/Autostart/ and place the command in it
C. Create a script in /etc/init.d/ and place a link to it in /etc/rc2.d/

D. Create a script in /etc/rc2.d/ and place the command in it
117-202 exam 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 37
An administrator has placed an executable in the directory /etc/init.d, however it is not being executed when the system boots into runlevel 2. What is the most likely cause of this?
A. The script has not been declared in /etc/services
B. runleve1 2 is not declared in /etc/inittab
C. The script has the permissions 700 and is owned by root
D. A corresponding link was not created in /etc/rc2.d
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 38
For an LDAP client configuration, the LDAP base needs to be set. Which TWO of the following actions would achieve that?
A. export LDAPBASE=dc=linuxfoo,dc=com
B. export BASE=dc=linuxfoo,dc=com
C. Edit ldapbase.conf and add “BASE dc=linuxfoo,dc=com”.
D. Edit cldap.conf and add “BASE dc=linuxfoo,dc=com”.
E. Edit ldap.conf and add “BASE dc=linuxfoo,dc=com”.
117-202 dumps 
Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 39
Which of the following options can be passed to a DHCP client machine using configuration options on the DHCP server?
A. The NIS domain name
B. The resolving order in /etc/resolv.conf
C. The priority order in nsswitch.conf
D. The filter rules for iptables
E. The contents of hosts.allow and hosts.deny
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 40
Which answer best describes the meaning of the following LDAP search commanD. ldapseareh -x” (& (cn=marie)(telephoneNumber=9*))”
A. It is searching for all entries that don’t have the cn attribute equal to marie OR the telephoneNumber attribute starting with number 9
B. It is searching for all entries that have the cn attribute equal to marie AND the telephoneNumber attribute starting with number 9
C. It is searching for all entries that have the cn attribute equal to marie AND the telephoneNumber attribute ending with number 9
D. It is searching for all entries that don’t have the cn attribute equal to marie AND the telephoneNumber attribute starting with number 9
E. It is searching for all entries that have the cn attribute different than marie OR the telephoneNumber attribute starting with number 9
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Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 41
In a PAM configuration file, a sufficient control allows access:
A. Immediately on success, if no previous required or requisite control failed
B. Immediately on success, regardless of other controls
C. After waiting if all other controls return success
D. Immediately, but only if the user is root
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 42
After setting up Apache to run inside a chroot jail as a non-root user, httpd no longer starts. What is the primary cause of the problem?
A. Apache needs to start as root to bind to port 80
B. Apache cannot read the main index.html file because it was not moved into the chroot environment
C. A LoadModule line for mod_chroot needs to be added to httpd.conf
D. Apache requires a VirtualHost directive when running from a chroot environment
E. The mod_chroot configuration needs the absolute path to the chroot environment
117-202 vce 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 43
Which is a valid Squid option to define a listening port?
A. port = 3128
B. http-listen-port=3128
C. http_port 3128
D. squid_port 3128
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 44
What is the name of the network security scanner project which, at the core, is a server with a set of network vulnerability tests (NVTs)?
A. nmap
B. OpenVAS
C. Snort
D. wireshark
117-202 exam 
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 45
How must Samba be configured, so that it can check passwords against the ones in /etc/passwd and / etc/ shadow?
A. Set the parameters “encrypt passwords = yes” and “password file = /etc/passwd”.
B. Set the parameters “encrypt passwords = yes”, “password file = /etc/passwd” and “password algorithm =crypt”
C. Delete the smbpasswd file and create a symbolic link to the passwd and shadow file
D. It is not possible for Samba to use/etc/passwd and /etc/shadow
E. Run smbpasswd to convert /etc/passwd and /etc/shadow to a Samba pass word file
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 46
What is the standard port number for the unencrypted IMAP service?
A. 25
B. 143
C. 443
D. 993
E. 1066
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Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 47
Considering the following kernel IP routing table below, which of the following commands must be used to remove the route to the network 10.10.1.0/24?
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A. route del 10.10.1.0
B. route del 10.10.1.0/24
C. route del – net 10.10.1.0/24
D. route del 10.10.1.0/24 gw 192.168.246.11
E. route del -net 10.10.1.0
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 48
After changing /etc/exports on a server, remote hosts are still unable to mount the exported directories. What should be the next action? Please select TWO correct answers.
A. Restart the NFS daemon
B. Run exportfs -a on the server
C. Run exportfs -f on the server
D. Run showmount -a on the server
E. Restart the remote hosts
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Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 49
Considering the following kernel IP routing table now, which of the following commands must be remove the route to the network 10.10.1.0/24?
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Kernel IP routing table

A. routedel 10.10.1.0
B. routedel 10.10.1.0/24
C. routedel -net 10.10.1.0/24
D. routedel 10.10.1.0/24 gw 192.168.246.11
E. routedel -net 10.10.1.0
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 50
Some users are unable to connect to specific local hosts by name, while accessing hosts in other zones works as expected. Given that the hosts are reachable by their IP addresses, which is the default log file that could provide hints about the problem?
A. /var/named/log
B. /var/lib/named/dev/log
C. /var/log/bind_errors
D. /var/log/bind/errors
E. /var/log/messages
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Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 51
Which Squid configuration directive defines the authentication method to use?
A. auth_param
B. auth_method
C. auth_program
D. auth_mechanism
E. proxy_auth
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 52
Which entry in the .procmailrc file will send a copy of an email to another mail address?
A. :0 c
B. :0 copy
C. :c
D. :copy
E. :s
117-202 exam 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 53
A security-conscious administrator would change which TWO of the following lines found in an SSH configuration file?
A. Protocol 2, 1
B. PermitEmptyPasswords no
C. Port 22
D. PermitRootLogin yes
E. IgnoreRhosts yes
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 54
Which of the following sentences is true about ISC DHCP?
A. It can’t be configured to assign addresses to BOOTP clients.
B. Its default behavior is to send DHCPNAK to clients that request inappropriate addresses.
C. It can’t be used to assign addresses to X – terminals.
D. It can be configured to only assign addresses to known clients.
E. None of the above.
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Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 55
The host, called ” Certkiller “, with the MAC address “08:00:2b:4c:59:23”, should always be given the IP address of 192.168.1.2 by the DHCP server. Which of the following configurations will achieve this?
A. host Certkiller {
hardware-ethernet 08:00:2b:4c:59:23;
fixed-address 192.168.1.2;
}
B. host Certkiller {
mac=08:00:2b:4c:59:23;
ip= 192.168.1.2;
}
C. host Certkiller = 08:00:2b:4c:59:23 192.168.1.2
D. host Certkiller {
hardware ethernet 08:00:2b:4c:59:23;
fixed-address 192.168.1.2;
}
E. host Certkiller {
hardware-address 08:00:2b.4c:59:23;
fixed-ip 192.168.1.2;
}
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 56
Which dhcpd.conf option defines the DNS server address(es) to be sent to the DHCP clients?
A. domainname
B. domain-name-servers
C. domain-nameserver
D. domain-name-server
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Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 57
What is a significant difference between host and zone keys generated by dnssec-keygen?
A. There is no difference.
B. Both zone key files ( .key/.private ) contain a public and private key.
C. Both host keys files ( .key/. private) contain a public and private key.
D. Host Keys must always be generated if DNSSEC is used; zone keys are optional
E. Zone Keys must always be generated if is used; host keys are optional
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 58
Which of these would be the simplest way to configure BIND to return a different version number to queries?
A. Compile BIND with the option -blur-version=my version.
B. Set version-string “my version” in BIND’s configuration file.
C. Set version “my version” in BIND’s configuration file.
D. Set version=my version in BIND’s configuration file.
E. Ser version-bind “my version” in BIND’s configuration file.
117-202 vce 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 59
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A. Any host, from any network, may use this server as its main DNS server.
B. If the server doesn’t know the answer to a query, it sends a recursive query to 192.168.0.4.
C. If the server doesn’t know the answer to a query, it sends a query to a root DNS server.
D. Hosts in the network 10.0.0.0/24 will be able to ask for zone transfers.
E. If the server doesn’t know the answer to a query, it sends a recursive query to 192.168.0.4 and, if this fails, it returns a failure.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 60
A BIND server should be upgraded to use TSIG. Which configuration parameters should be added, if the server should use the algorithm hmac-md5 and the key skrKc4DoTzi/tAkllPi7JZA== ?
A. TSIG server.example.com.
algorithm hmac-md5;
secret “skrKc4DoTzi/tAkllPi7JZA==”;
};
B. key server.example.com. {
algorithm hmac-md5;
secret skrKc4DoTzi/tAkllPi7JZA==;
};
C. key server.example.com. {
algorithm hmac-md5;
secret “skrKc4DoTzi/tAkllPi7JZA==”;
};
D. key server.example.com. {
algorithm=hmac-md5;
secret=”skrKc4DoTzi/tAkllPi7JZA==”;
};
E. key server.example.com. {
algorithm hmac-md5
secret “skrKc4DoTzi/tAkI1Pi7JZA==”
};

117-202 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 61
DNSSEC is used for?
A. Encrypted DNS queries between nameservers.
B. Cryptographic authentication of DNS zones.
C. Secondary DNS queries for local zones.
D. Defining a secure DNS section.
E. Querying a secure DNS section.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 62
A BIND server should never answer queries from certain networks or hosts. Which configuration directive could be used for this purpose?
A. deny-query { …; };
B. no-answer { …; };
C. deny-answer { …; };
D. deny-access { …; };
E. blackhole { …; };
117-202 dumps 
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 63
What is the purpose of a PTR record?
A. To provide name to IP resolution.
B. To provide IP to name resolution.
C. To direct email to a specific host.
D. To provide additional host information.
E. To direct clients to another nameserver.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 64
Performing a DNS lookup with dig results in this answer: What might be wrong in the zone definition?
117-202 dumps
A. Nothing. All seems to be good.
B. There’s no “.” after linuserv.example.net in the PTR record in the forward lookup zone file.
C. There’s no “.” after linuserv in the PTR record in the forward lookup zone file.
D. There’s no “.” after linuserv.example.net in the PTR record in the reverse lookup zone file.
E. The “.” in the NS definition in reverse lookup zone has to be removed.

117-202 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 65
What directive can be used in named.conf to restrict zone transfers to the 192.168.1.0/24 network?
A. allow-transfer { 192.168.1.0/24; };
B. allow-transfer { 192.168.1.0/24 };
C. allow-axfr { 192.168.1.0/24; };
D. allow-axfr { 192.168.1.0/24 };
E. allow-xfer { 192.168.1.0/24; };
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 66
To securely use dynamic DNS updates, the use of TSIG is recommended. Which TWO statements about TSIG are true?
A. TSIG is used for zone data encryption
B. TSIG is a signal to start a zone update
C. TSIG is used in zone files
D. TSIG is used only in server configuration
E. Servers using TSIG must be in sync (time zone!)
117-202 vce 
Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 67
Which option is used to configure pppd to use up to two DNS server addresses provided by the remote server?
A. ms-dns
B. nameserver
C. usepeerdns
D. dns
E. None of the above
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 68
A DNS server has the IP address 192.168.0.1. Which TWO of the following need to be done on a client machine to use this DNS server?
A. Add nameserver 192.168.0.1 to /etc/resolv.conf
B. Run route add nameserver 192.168.0.1
C. Run ifconfig eth0 nameserver 192.168.0.1
D. Run echo “nameserver 192.168.1.1” >> /etc/resolv.conf
E. Run bind nameserver 192.168.1.1
117-202 exam 
Correct Answer: AD

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QUESTION 18
Which cloud computing characteristic enables consumers to grow and shrink the demand for resources dynamically?
A. Rapid elasticity
B. Resource pooling
C. Measured service
D. On-demand self-service
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Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Rapid Elasticity
Capabilities can be elastically provisioned and released, in some cases automatically, to scale rapidly outward and inward commensurate with demand. To the consumer, the capabilities available for provisioning often appear to be unlimited and can be appropriated in any quantity at any time. Consumers can leverage rapid elasticity of the cloud when they have a fluctuation in their IT resource requirements. For example, an organization might require doubling the number of web and application servers for a specific duration to accomplish a specific task. For the remaining period, they might want to release idle server resources to cut down the expenses. The cloud enables consumers to grow and shrink the demand for resources dynamically.
QUESTION 19
Which operation is performed while creating a VM snapshot?
A. Create a delta file to record changes to the virtual disk since the session is activated
B. Capture the configuration data of a VM to create an identical copy of the VM
C. Create a journal volume to update changes to the snapshot
D. Create a “Gold” copy of the snapshot before copying changes to the virtual disk
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
VM Snapshot
VM Snapshot captures the state and data of a running virtual machine at a specific point in time. The VM state includes VM files, such as BIOS, network configuration, and its power state (powered-on, powered off, or suspended). The VM data includes all the files that make up the VM, including virtual disks and memory. A VM Snapshot uses a separate delta file to record all the changes to the virtual disk since the snapshot session is activated. Snapshots are useful when a VM needs to be reverted to the previous state in the event of logical corruptions. EMC E10-001 Student Resource Guide. Module 11: Local Replication
QUESTION 20
Which cloud computing capability enables monitoring and reporting resource usage?
A. Metering

B. Pooling
C. Self-service requesting
D. Publishing
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Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Measured Service
Cloud systems automatically control and optimize resource use by leveraging a metering capability at some level of abstraction appropriate to the type of service (example, storage, processing, bandwidth, and active user accounts). Resource usage can be monitored, controlled, and reported, providing transparency for both the provider and consumer of the utilized service.
QUESTION 21
In the context of protecting the FC SAN infrastructure, what is an example of infrastructure integrity?
A. Preventing node login to the fabric without proper authorization
B. Implementing iSNS discovery domains
C. Implementing an FSPF algorithm to create a virtual SAN
D. Not permitting physical segmentation of nodes
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Security controls for protecting the storage infrastructure address the threats of unauthorized tampering of data in transit that leads to a loss of data integrity, denial of service that compromises availability, and network snooping that may result in loss of confidentiality. The security controls for protecting the network fall into two general categories: network infrastructure integrity and storage network encryption. Controls for ensuring the infrastructure integrity include a fabric switch function that ensures fabric integrity. This is achieved by preventing a host from being added to the SAN fabric without proper authorization. Storage network encryption methods include the use of IPSec for protecting IP-based storage networks, and FC SP for protecting FC networks.
QUESTION 22
What is true about parity-based RAID?
A. Parity is updated each time a write is performed
B. Parity is read each time a read is performed
C. Parity is updated only when writes fill a stripe
D. Parity is updated each time when both reads and writes are performed
700-172 pdf 
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Compared to mirroring, parity implementation considerably reduces the cost associated with data protection. Consider an example of a parity RAID configuration with five disks where four disks hold data, and the fifth holds the parity information. In this example, parity requires only 25 percent extra disk space compared to mirroring, which requires 100 percent extra disk space. However, there are some disadvantages of using parity. 
Parity information is generated from data on the data disk. Therefore, parity is recalculated every time there is a change in data. This recalculation is time-consuming and affects the performance of the RAID array. When choosing a RAID type, it is imperative to consider its impact on disk performance and application IOPS. In both mirrored and parity RAID configurations, every write operation translates into more I/O overhead for the disks, which is referred to as a write penalty. In a RAID 1 implementation, every write operation must be performed on two disks configured as a mirrored pair, whereas in a RAID 5 implementation, a write operation may manifest as four I/O operations. When performing I/Os to a disk configured with RAID 5, the controller has to read, recalculate, and write a parity segment for every data write operation.
QUESTION 23
What is an accurate statement about a gateway NAS solution?
A. NAS head and storage are managed independently
B. Consolidates file-level and block-level access on a single storage platform
C. Provides integrated management for both NAS head and storage
D. Creates a single file system that runs on all NAS heads
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A gateway NAS device consists of one or more NAS heads and uses external and independently managed storage. Similar to unified NAS, the storage is shared with other applications that uses block-level I/O. Management functions in this type of solution are more complex than those in a unified NAS environment because there are separate administrative tasks for the NAS head and the storage. A gateway solution can use the FC infrastructure, such as switches and directors for accessing SAN-attached storage arrays or direct-attached storage arrays. The gateway NAS is more scalable compared to unified NAS because NAS heads and storage arrays can be independently scaled up when required. For example, NAS heads can be added to scale up the NAS device performance. When the storage limit is reached, it can scale up, adding capacity on the SAN, independent of NAS heads. Similar to a unified NAS, a gateway NAS also enables high utilization of storage capacity by sharing it with the SAN environment.
QUESTION 24
What is prevented using RAID technology?
A. Data loss
B. Host Bus Adapter failures
C. Security breach
D. Switch failure
700-172 vce 
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Today’s data centers house hundreds of disk drives in their storage infrastructure. Disk drives are inherently susceptible to failures due to mechanical wear and tear and other environmental factors, which could result in data loss. The greater the number of disk drives in a storage array, the greater the probability of a disk failure in the array. For example, consider a storage array of 100 disk drives, each with an average life expectancy of 750,000 hours. The average life expectancy of this collection in the array, therefore, is 750,000/100 or 7,500 hours. This means that a disk drive in this array is likely to fail at least once in 7,500 hours. 
RAID is an enabling technology that leverages multiple drives as part of a set that provides data protection against drive failures. In general, RAID implementations also improve the storage system performance by serving I/Os from multiple disks simultaneously. Modern arrays with flash drives also benefit in terms of protection and performance by using RAID.
QUESTION 25
Which process minimizes the exposure to a loss of uncommitted cached data when there is a power failure?
A. Cache vaulting
B. Cache mirroring
C. Low watermarking
D. Prefetching
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Cache Data Protection
Cache is volatile memory, so a power failure or any kind of cache failure will cause loss of the data that is not yet committed to the disk. This risk of losing uncommitted data held in cache can be mitigated using cache mirroring and cache vaulting: Cache mirroring: Each write to cache is held in two different memory locations on two independent memory cards. If a cache failure occurs, the write data will still be safe in the mirrored location and can be committed to the disk. Reads are staged from the disk to the cache; therefore, if a cache failure occurs, the data can still be accessed from the disk. Because only writes are mirrored, this method results in better utilization of the available cache. In cache mirroring approaches, the problem of maintaining cache
coherency is introduced. Cache coherency means that data in two different cache locations must be identical at all times. It is the responsibility of the array operating environment to ensure coherency. Cache vaulting: The risk of data loss due to power failure can be addressed in various ways: powering the memory with a battery until the AC power is restored or using battery power to write the cache content to the disk. If an extended power failure occurs, using batteries is not a viable option. This is because in intelligent storage systems, large amounts of data might need to be committed to numerous disks, and batteries might not provide power for sufficient time to write each piece of data to its intended disk. Therefore, storage vendors use a set of physical disks to dump the contents of cache during power failure. This is called cache vaulting and the disks are called vault drives. When power is restored, data from these disks is written back to write cache and then written to the intended disks.
QUESTION 26
What are the three elements of the risk triad from an information security perspective?
A. Assets, threats, and vulnerabilities
B. Actions, threats, and vulnerabilities
C. Assets, threats, and countermeasures
D. Assets, countermeasures, and vulnerabilities
700-172 exam 
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 27
Which cloud computing characteristic enables consumers to request resources using a service catalog through a web-based user interface?
A. On-demand self-service
B. Broad network access
C. Metered services
D. Catalog management
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
On-Demand Self-Service
A consumer can unilaterally provision computing capabilities, such as server time and network storage, as needed automatically without requiring human interaction with each service provider. A cloud service provider publishes a service catalogue, which contains information about all cloud services available to consumers. The service catalogue includes information about service attributes, prices, and request processes. Consumers view the service catalogue via a web-based user interface and use it to request for a service. Consumers can either leverage the “ready-to- use” services or change a few service parameters to customize the services.
QUESTION 28
What is a purpose for distributing Switch Registered State Change Notifications (SW-RSCNs) in a fabric?
A. Updates the name server on all switches in the fabric
B. Stops or slows down transmissions from other switches in the fabric

C. Distributes configuration values and congestion notifications across the fabric
D. Exchanges requests for change notifications among distributed management servers
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Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Fabric Services
Each switch has a Fabric Controller located at the predefined address FFFFFD. The Fabric Controller provides services to both node ports and other switches. The Fabric Controller is responsible for managing and distributing Registered State Change Notifications (RSCNs) to the node ports registered with the Fabric Controller. If there is a change in the fabric, RSCNs are sent out by a switch to the attached node ports. The Fabric Controller also generates Switch Registered State Change Notifications (SW-RSCNs) to every other domain (switch) in the fabric. These RSCNs keep the name server up-to-date on all switches in the fabric.

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QUESTION 18
You are creating a class named Employee. The class exposes a string property named EmployeeType. The following code segment defines the Employee class. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
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The EmployeeType property value must be accessed and modified only by code within the Employee class or within a class derived from the Employee class. You need to ensure that the implementation of the EmployeeType property meets the requirements. Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer represents part of the complete solution. Choose two.)
A. Replace line 05 with the following code segment: protected get;
B. Replace line 06 with the following code segment: private set;
C. Replace line 03 with the following code segment: public string EmployeeType
D. Replace line 05 with the following code segment: private get;
E. Replace line 03 with the following code segment: protected string EmployeeType
F. Replace line 06 with the following code segment: protected set;
070-483 exam 
Correct Answer: BE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 19
You are implementing a method named Calculate that performs conversions between value types and reference types. The following code segment implements the method. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
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You need to ensure that the application does not throw exceptions on invalid conversions. Which code segment should you insert at line 04?
A. int balance = (int) (float)amountRef;
B. int balance = (int)amountRef;
C. int balance = amountRef;
D. int balance = (int) (double) amountRef;
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 20
You are creating a console application by using C#. You need to access the application assembly. Which code segment should you use?
A. Assembly.GetAssembly(this);
B. this.GetType();
C. Assembly.Load();
D. Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly();
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Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 21
HOTSPOT
You are implementing a library method that accepts a character parameter and returns a string. If the lookup succeeds, the method must return the corresponding string value. If the lookup fails, the method must return the value “invalid choice.” You need to implement the lookup algorithm. How should you complete the relevant code? (To answer, select the correct keyword in each drop-down list in the answer area.)
Hot Area:
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Correct Answer:
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Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 22
You use the Task.Run() method to launch a long-running data processing operation. The data processing operation often fails in times of heavy network
congestion. If the data processing operation fails, a second operation must clean up any results of the first operation. You need to ensure that the second operation is invoked only if the data processing operation throws an unhandled exception. What should you do?
A. Create a TaskCompletionSource<T> object and call the TrySetException() method of the object.
B. Create a task by calling the Task.ContinueWith() method.
C. Examine the Task.Status property immediately after the call to the Task.Run() method.
D. Create a task inside the existing Task.Run() method by using the AttachedToParent option.
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Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 23
You are modifying an application that processes leases. The following code defines the Lease class. (Line numbers are included for reference only.) 070-483 dumps
Leases are restricted to a maximum term of 5 years. The application must send a notification message if a lease request exceeds 5 years. You need to implement the notification mechanism. Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
E. Option E
F. Option F
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 24
What is a benefit of cloud computing over traditional computing?
A. Reduces the time to provision and deploy new applications
B. Eliminates consumer’s IT operational expenditure
C. Enables the use of proprietary APIs to access IT resources
D. Lowers migration cost and prevents vendor lock-in
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Benefits of Cloud Computing
Cloud computing offers the following key benefits: Reduced IT cost: Cloud services can be purchased based on pay-per-use or subscription pricing. This reduces or eliminates consumer’s IT capital expenditure (CAPEX).
Business agility:
Cloud computing provides the capability to allocate and scale computing capacity quickly. Cloud can reduce the time required to provision and deploy new applications and services from months to minutes. This enables businesses to respond more quickly to market changes and reduce time-to-market. Flexible scaling: Cloud computing enables consumers to scale up, scale down, scale out, or scale in the demand for computing resources easily. Consumers can unilaterally and automatically scale computing resources without any interaction with cloud service providers. The flexible service provisioning capability
of cloud often provides a sense of unlimited scalability to the cloud service consumers. High availability: Cloud computing has the ability to ensure resource availability at varying levels depending on the consumer’s policy and priority. Redundant infrastructure components (servers, network paths, and storage equipment, along with clustered software) enable fault tolerance for cloud deployments. These techniques can encompass multiple data centers located in different geographic regions, which prevents data unavailability due to regional failures. EMC E10-001 Student Resource Guide. Module 13: Cloud Computing
QUESTION 25
Which statement describes a denial of service attack?
A. Prevents authorized users from accessing the resources and services
B. Prohibits attempts to repair the resources and services after an attack
C. Attempts to provide false information by impersonating someone’s identity
D. Prevents unauthorized users to access the resources and services
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Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Threats are the potential attacks that can be carried out on an IT infrastructure. These attacks can be classified as active or passive. Passive attacks are attempts to gain unauthorized access into the system. They pose threats to confidentiality of information. Active attacks include data modification, denial of service (DoS), and repudiation attacks. They pose threats to data integrity, availability, and accountability. In a data modification attack, the unauthorized user attempts to modify information for malicious purposes. A modification attack can target the data at rest or the data in transit. These attacks pose a threat to data integrity. Denial of service (DoS) attacks prevent legitimate users from accessing resources and services. These attacks generally do not involve access to or modification of information. Instead, they pose a threat to data availability. The intentional flooding of a network or website to prevent
legitimate access to authorized users is one example of a DoS attack. Repudiation is an attack against the accountability of information. It attempts to provide false information by either impersonating someone’s identity or denying that an event or a transaction has taken place. For example, a repudiation attack may involve performing an action and eliminating any evidence that could prove the identity of the user (attacker) who performed that action. Repudiation attacks include circumventing the logging of security events or tampering with the security log to conceal the identity of the attacker.
QUESTION 26
What is a key benefit of virtualization?
A. Improved resource utilization
B. Improved performance
C. Enhanced interoperability
D. Unlimited resource scaling
070-483 exam 
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 27
What is an accurate statement about the Data Center Bridging Exchange protocol?
A. Enables Converged Enhanced Ethernet (CEE) devices to convey and configure their features with other CEE devices
B. Creates virtual FCoE links over an existing Ethernet network to transport FC frames over virtual links independently
C. Enables an FCoE switch to send signals to other FCoE switches that need to stop or slow down their transmissions
D. Enables an FCoE switch to transport both TCP/IP and FC frames over a single virtual FCoE link
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Data Center Brdiging Exchange Protocol (DCBX)
DCBX protocol is a discovery and capability exchange protocol, which helps Converged Enhanced Ethernet devices to convey and configure their features with the other CEE devices in the network. DCBX is used to negotiate capabilities between the switches and the adapters, and it allows the switch to distribute the configuration values to all the attached adapters. This helps to ensure consistent configuration across the entire network.
QUESTION 28
What is a key security consideration when a NAS device enables sharing of the same data among UNIX and Microsoft Windows users?
A. NAS device must map UNIX permissions to Windows and vice versa
B. NAS defines and maintains ownership to the objects
C. NIS server must separately maintain SIDs for UNIX and Windows environments
D. Object permissions are not defined in advance and assigned dynamically
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Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

Explanation:
Authorization defines user privileges in a network. The authorization techniques for UNIX users and Windows users are quite different. UNIX files use mode bits to define access rights granted to owners, groups, and other users, whereas Windows uses an ACL to allow or deny specific rights to a particular
user for a particular file. Although NAS devices support both of these methodologies for UNIX and Windows users, complexities arise when UNIX and Windows users access and share the same data. If the NAS device supports multiple protocols, the integrity of both permission methodologies must be
maintained. NAS device vendors provide a method of mapping UNIX permissions to Windows and vice versa, so a multiprotocol environment can be supported.

QUESTION 29 An attacker finds a web page for a target organization that supplies contact information for the company. Using available details to make the message seem authentic, the attacker drafts e-mail to an employee on the contact page that appears to come from an individual who might reasonably request confidential information, such as a network administrator. The email asks the employee to log into a bogus page that requests the employee’s user name and password or click on a link that will download spyware or other malicious programming. Google’s Gmail was hacked using this technique and attackers stole source code and sensitive data from Google servers. This is highly sophisticated attack using zero-day exploit vectors, social engineering and malware websites that focused on targeted individuals working for the company. What is this deadly attack called?
A. Spear phishing attack
B. Trojan server attack
C. Javelin attack
D. Social networking attack
Answer: A
QUESTION 30 Vulnerability scanners are automated tools that are used to identify vulnerabilities and misconfigurations of hosts. They also provide information regarding mitigating discovered vulnerabilities. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

A. Vulnerability scanners attempt to identify vulnerabilities in the hosts scanned.
B. Vulnerability scanners can help identify out-of-date software versions, missing patches, or system upgrades
C. They can validate compliance with or deviations from the organization’s security policy
D. Vulnerability scanners can identify weakness and automatically fix and patch the vulnerabilities without user intervention
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Answer: D
QUESTION 31 How does traceroute map the route a packet travels from point A to point B?
A. Uses a TCP timestamp packet that will elicit a time exceeded in transit message
B. Manipulates the value of the time to live (TTL) within packet to elicit a time exceeded in transit message
C. Uses a protocol that will be rejected by gateways on its way to the destination
D. Manipulates the flags within packets to force gateways into generating error messages
Answer: B
QUESTION 32 How do you defend against DHCP Starvation attack?

A. Enable ARP-Block on the switch
B. Enable DHCP snooping on the switch
C. Configure DHCP-BLOCK to 1 on the switch
D. Install DHCP filters on the switch to block this attack
Answer: B
QUESTION 33 What type of session hijacking attack is shown in the exhibit?
A. Cross-site scripting Attack
B. SQL Injection Attack
C. Token sniffing Attack
D. Session Fixation Attack
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Answer: D
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QUESTION NO: 32
As a user moves through the authentication process, which of the following is not used in a derivation rule?
A. MAC address
B. OS version
C. SSID
D. Radius attribute
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Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 33
Other than a user role, what attribute can be applied to a user with a derivation rule?
A. SSID
B. MAC
C. VLAN
D. IP Address
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 34
Which is an Aruba specific DSA that can be used in a user derivation rule?
A. user login name
B. authentication server
C. location
D. controller Loopback address
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Answer: C
Question No : 35 – (Topic 1)  You are developing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package to load data into a 
data warehouse.
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You need to establish the correct order for loading each table to maximize parallel processing. Which order should you use?
A.
1. DimCurrency, DimScenario, DimAccount in parallel
2. DimOrganization
3. FactFinance
B.
C.
DimCurrency, DimOrganization in parallel
2. DimScenario, DimAccount in parallel
3. FactFinance
D.
1. DimCurrency, FactFinance in parallel
2. DimOrganization, DimScenario, DimAccount in parallel
E.
1. FactFinance
2. DimOrganization, DimScenario, DimAccount in parallel
3. DimCurrency
F.
1. DimCurrency
2. DimOrganization
3. DimScenario, DimAccount in parallel
4. FactFinance
Answer: A
Explanation: References:
Question No : 36 – (Topic 1) You are designing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package that uploads a file to a table named Orders in a SQL Azure database. The company’s auditing policies have the following requirements: An entry must be written to a dedicated SQL Server log table named OrderLog. The entry must be written as soon as the file upload task completes. You need to meet the company’s policy requirements. Which event handler should you use?
A. OnPostExecute
B. OnWarning
C. OnExecStatusChanged
D. OnVariableValueChanged
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Answer: A
Question No : 37 – (Topic 1)  You are editing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package that contains three Execute SQL tasks and no other tasks. The package and all three Execute SQL tasks have their TransactionOption property set to Supported. You need to ensure that if any of the Execute SQL tasks fail, all three tasks will roll back their changes. What should you do?
A. Move the three Execute SQL tasks into a Sequence container.
B. Move the three Execute SQL tasks into a Foreach Loop container.
C. Change the TransactionOption property of all three Execute SQL tasks to Required.
D. Change the TransactionOption property of the package to Required.
Answer: D
Reference:
Question No : 38 DRAG DROP – (Topic 1)
You are developing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package. The package uses custom functionality that accesses a SQL Server database. The custom functionality must be implemented by using Language Integrated Query (LINQ). You need to ensure that the LINQ code can be debugged at design time. What should you select from the SSIS Toolbox? (To answer, drag the appropriate item to the correct location in the answer area.)
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Question No : 39 DRAG DROP – (Topic 1)  You are designing an extract, transform, load (ETL) process with SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS). Two packages, Package A and Package B, will be designed. Package A will execute Package B. Both packages must reference a file path corresponding to an input folder where files will be located for further processing. You need to design a solution so that the file path can be easily configured with the least administrative and development effort. Which four actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)
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Question No : 40 – (Topic 1)  You are creating a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package that implements a Type 3 Slowly Changing Dimension (SCD). You need to add a task or component to the package that allows you to implement the SCD logic. What should you use?
A. a Script component
B. an SCD component
C. an Aggregate component
D. a Merge component
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 41
Which match condition can be used by a server derivation rule?
A. greater than
B. less than
C. inverse of
D. contains
070-463 exam 
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 42
Where are Aruba Vendor Specific Attributes (VSA) programmed?
A. controller
B. client
C. authentication server
D. Internal user database
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 43
View the Server group screen shot above.
A company has provisioned the same VAP, AAA and SSID profiles at both its Miami and NY offices. This Server Group is applied for 802.1x authentication at both locations. The user’s credentials are only found in the Miami Radius server “RadiusMiami”. There is no Radius synchronization. What happens when the user attempts to authenticate?

A. The controller recognizes the users Domain and sends the authentication request directly to RadiusMiami.
B. The request is initially sent to RadiusNY1 then RadiusNY1 redirects, the controller, to send the authentication request to RadiusMiami
C. RadiusNY1 receives the request and returns a deny. No other action is taken.
D. RadiusNY1 receives the request and returns a deny. The authentications request will then be sent to RadiusMiami.
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Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 44
View the Server group and User Roles screen shots above. A user associated to an SSID with 802.1x using this server group. RadiusNY returned a standard radius attribute of filter-Id with a value of “employee”. The user was placed in the guest Role. What statements below are correct?
A. The user was placed in the 802.1x authentication default Role guest
B. The user was placed in the initial Role guest
C. Role derivation failed because roles are case sensitive
D. Role derivation failed because the incorrect operation “value-of” was used
E. 802.1x authentication failed so the user was automatically placed in the guest Role
Answer: A,C
QUESTION NO: 45
View the Server group and User Roles screen shots above. A user associated to an SSID with 802.1x using this server group. RadiusNY returned a standard radius attribute of filter-Id with a value of “employee”. What Role will the user get?
A. The User will get the Emp Role
B. The user will get the 802.1x authentication default Role
C. The User will get the employee Role
D. The User will get the Employee Role
E. The User will get the initial Role
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Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 46
Which profiles are required in an AP Group to enable an SSID with VLAN 1, WPA2 and LMSIP?
A. Virtual-ap
ap mesh-radio-profile
ap system profile
B. Wlan ssid-profile
ap-system-profile
virtual-ap profile
C. Virtual-ap profile
ap-system profile
aaa profile
D. 802.1X authentication profile
wlan ssid-profile
virtual-ap profile
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 47
A user connected to a Captive Portal VAP successfully. When the user opens their browser and tries to access their homepage, they get redirected as expected to another URL on the Aruba Controller. However, they see an error message that web authentication has been disabled. What might be a cause of this?
A. The Captive portal profile has not been assigned to the initial role B.
The Captive portal profile has not been assigned to the AAA profile C.
A server group has not been assigned to the captive portal profile D.
An initial role has not been assigned to the AAA profile
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 48
A customer has configured a 3000 controller with the following commands:
Vlan 55
Vlan 56
Vlan 57
Interface gigabitethernet 1/0
switchport mode trunk
switchport trunk native vlan 55
switchport trunk allowed vlan 55-57
Which of the following sentences best describes this port?
A. All traffic in vlan 55 will be dropped and all traffic in vlan 56 and 57 will be trunked with and 802.1Q tag
B. All traffic in vlan 55, 56 and 57 will be trunked with an 802.1Q tag
C. All traffic in vlan 55 will be sent with an 802.1Q tag while vlan 56 and 57 traffic will be trunked untagged
D. All traffic in vlan 56 and 57 will be sent with an 802.1Q tag while vlan 55 traffic will be trunked untagged
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 49
A customer has a remote AP deployment, where each remote AP has an IPSEC VPN tunnel with L2TP to the controller. 1 of the remote APs is stuck in the user table and hasn’t yet transitioned to the AP active table in the controller. The customer suspects that the AP is not setting up its VPN connection successfully. Which of the following commands might be useful in troubleshooting this? Select all that apply.
A. Logging level debugging security process localdb
B. Logging level debugging security process l2tp
C. Logging level debugging security process dot1x
D. Logging level debugging security process crypto
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Answer: A,B,D
QUESTION NO: 50
The screen captures above show the 802.1X authentication profile and AAA profile settings for a VAP.  If machine authentication passes and user authentication passes, which role will be assigned?
A. employee
B. guest
C. contractor
D. logon
E. you can’t tell
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 51
The screen captures above show the 802.1X authentication profile and AAA profile settings for a VAP. If machine authentication fails and user authentication fails, which role will be assigned?
A. employee
B. guest
C. contractor
D. Captive Portal
E. Logon
F. no role will be assigned
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Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 52
What cannot be configured from the Initial Configuration wizards?
A. Controller name.
B. Syslog server and levels.
C. User firewall policy.
D. User derivation rules.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 53
When you create a WLAN SSID in the WLAN/LAN wizard what AP group is it automatically added to?
A. The air-monitors group
B. The first configured AP group
C. The Default AP group
D. It is only added to the ‘All Profiles’ section
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Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 54
The reusable wizards are accessible in which one of the following ways?
A. On startup through the CLI
B. Through the CLI, after the initial CLI wizard has been completed
C. In the Web UI under maintenance.
D. In the Web UI under configuration.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 55
What additional fields must be configured in the configuration wizard if the controller role is selected as a local instead of a standalone controller?
A. The Local’s SNMPv3 user name and password
B. The Master IP address
C. The Local’s loopback address
D. The IPSec PSK for Master/Local communication
Answer: B,D
QUESTION NO: 56
The configuration wizard enables which of the following controller clock configurations?
A. NTP to a time server
B. Manually setting the date time
C. Daylight savings time
D. Only GMT can be configured
Answer: A,B
QUESTION NO: 57
When configuring ports in the configuration wizard, which of the following are not options for configuration?
A. Inter-VLAN routing
B. Source NAT
C. Trusted
D. LACP
070-463 exam 
Answer: A,B,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 58
What Wizards can be used to create a new AP Group?
A. AP Wizard
B. Controller Wizard
C. WLAN/LAN Wizard
D. License Wizard
E. AP configurations Wizard
Answer: A,C
QUESTION NO: 59
By default, which CLI based remote access method is enabled on Aruba controllers?
A. rsh
B. Telnet
C. SSH
D. Telnet and SSH
E. Telnet, SSH and rsh
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Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 60
An Aruba controller can be configured to support which CLI based remote access methods?
A. RSH
B. Telnet
C. SSH
D. Telnet and SSH
E. SSH and RSH
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 61
The Aruba controller’s Command Line Interface can be accessed from WITHIN the browser based Web User Interface using which method?
A. It’s not possible to access the CLI from within the WebUI
B. Embedded Telnet client
C. Java based SSH client
D. Proprietary serial over Ethernet client
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Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 62
As an admin/root user, what other types of role-based management users can be created on Aruba controllers? (Choose all the correct answers)
A. Auditing-compliance user
B. Read only user
C. Location-api-management user
D. Guest provisioning user
Answer: B,C,D
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