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Exam Code: 70-464
Exam Name: Developing Microsoft SQL Server 2012 Databases
Q&As: 182

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QUESTION 6
You need to modify the stored procedure usp_LookupConcurrentUsers. What should you do?
A. Use the summary table as an in-memory optimized table with a non-hash clustered index.
B. Use the summary table as an in-memory optimized table with a non-hash nonclustered index.
C. Use a type variable instead of the summary table.
D. Add a clustered index to the summary table.
070-464 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
You need to design the user activity table. Which three steps should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate three actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:
070-464 dumps

Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Note:
Creating a partitioned table or index typically happens in four parts:
1. Create a filegroup or filegroups and corresponding files that will hold the partitions specified by the partition scheme.
2. Create a partition function that maps the rows of a table or index into partitions based on the values of a specified column.
3. Create a partition scheme that maps the partitions of a partitioned table or index to the new filegroups.
4. Create or modify a table or index and specify the partition scheme as the storage location.
* Reorganizing an index uses minimal system resources.
* From scenario:
/ The index maintenance strategy for the user activity table must provide the optimal structure for both maintainability and query performance.
/ The CoffeeAnalytics database will combine imports of the POSTransaction and MobileLocation tables to create a user activity table for reports on the trends inactivity
. Queries against the UserActivity table will include aggregated calculations on all columns that are not used in filters or groupings.
/ When the daily maintenance finishes, micropayments that are one week old must be available for queries in the UserActivity table but will be queried most frequently within their first week and will require support for in-memory queries for data within the first week. The maintenance of the UserActivity table must allow frequent maintenance on the day’s most recent activities with minimal impact on the use of disk space and the resources available to queries. The processes that add data to the UserActivity table must be able to update data from any time period, even while maintenance is running.
* Columnstore indexes work well for mostly read-only queries that perform analysis on large data sets. Often, these are queries for data warehousing workloads. Columnstore indexes give high-performance gains for queries that use full table scans and are not well-suited for queries that seek into the data, searching for a particular value.
QUESTION 8
You need to create the user.AssignUser stored procedure. Develop the solution by selecting and arranging the required code blocks in the correct order.
You may not need all of the code blocks.

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70-464 dumps Correct Answer:
070-464 dumps

Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Note:
* From scenario: The mobile application will need to meet the following requirements:
/Communicate with web services that assign a new user to a micropayment by using a stored procedure named usp_AssignUser.
* Example: create procedure dbo.OrderInsert(@OrdNo integer, @CustCode nvarchar(5)) with native_compilation, schemabinding, execute as owner as
begin atomic with (transaction isolation level = snapshot, language = N’English’) declare @OrdDate datetime = getdate(); insert into dbo.Ord (OrdNo, CustCode, OrdDate) values (@OrdNo, @CustCode, @OrdDate);
* Natively compiled stored procedures are Transact-SQL stored procedures compiled to native code that access memory-optimized tables. Natively compiled
stored procedures allow for efficient execution of the queries and business logic in the stored procedure.
* READ COMITTED versus REPEATABLE READ
Read committed is an isolation level that guarantees that any data read was committed at the moment is read. It simply restricts the reader from seeing any
intermediate, uncommitted, ‘dirty’ read. IT makes no promise whatsoever that if the transaction re-issues the read, will find the Same data, data is free to change after it was read. Repeatable read is a higher isolation level, that in addition to the guarantees of the read committed level, it also guarantees that any data read cannot change, if the transaction reads the same data again, it will find the previously read data in place, unchanged, and available to read.
* Both RAISERROR and THROW statements are used to raise an error in Sql Server. The journey of RAISERROR started from Sql Server 7.0, where as the journey of THROW statement has just began with Sql Server 2012. obviously, Microsoft suggesting us to start using THROW statement instead of RAISERROR. THROW statement seems to be simple and easy to use than RAISERROR.
* Explicit transactions. The user starts the transaction through an explicit BEGIN TRAN or BEGIN ATOMIC. The transaction is completed following the
corresponding COMMIT and ROLLBACK or END (in the case of an atomic block).
QUESTION 9
You need to implement a new version of usp_AddMobileLocation. Develop the solution by selecting and arranging the required code blocks in the correct order. You may not need all of the code blocks.
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Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Note:
* From scenario:
The mobile application will need to meet the following requirements:
· Update the location of the user by using a stored procedure named usp_AddMobileLocation.
* DELAYED_DURABILITY
SQL Server transaction commits can be either fully durable, the SQL Server default, or delayed durable (also known as lazy commit).
Fully durable transaction commits are synchronous and report a commit as successful and return control to the client only after the log records for the transaction are written to disk. Delayed durable transaction commits are asynchronous and report a commit as successful before the log records for the transaction are written to disk. Writing the transaction log entries to disk is required for a transaction to be durable. Delayed durable transactions become durable when the transaction log entries are flushed to disk.
QUESTION 10
You need to redesign the system to meet the scalability requirements of the application. Develop the solution by selecting and arranging the required code blocks in the correct order. You may not need all of the code blocks.
Select and Place:
070-464 dumps

070-464 pdf Correct Answer:
070-464 dumps

Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Note:
* MEMORY_OPTIMIZED_DATA
First create a memory-optimized data filegroup and add a container to the filegroup. Then create a memory-optimized table.
* You must specify a value for the BUCKET_COUNT parameter when you create the memory- optimized table. In most cases the bucket count should be between
1 and 2 times the number of distinct values in the index key.
* Example:
— create a durable (data will be persisted) memory-optimized table — two of the columns are indexed
CREATE TABLE dbo.ShoppingCart (
ShoppingCartId INT IDENTITY(1,1) PRIMARY KEY NONCLUSTERED, UserId INT NOT NULL INDEX ix_UserId NONCLUSTERED HASH WITH
(BUCKET_COUNT=1000000),
CreatedDate DATETIME2 NOT NULL,
TotalPrice MONEY
) WITH (MEMORY_OPTIMIZED=ON)
GO
QUESTION 11
You need to optimize the index and table structures for POSTransaction. Which task should you use with each maintenance step? To answer, drag the appropriate tasks to the correct maintenance steps. Each task may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
Select and Place:
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QUESTION NO: 32
As a user moves through the authentication process, which of the following is not used in a derivation rule?
A. MAC address
B. OS version
C. SSID
D. Radius attribute
070-463 exam 
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 33
Other than a user role, what attribute can be applied to a user with a derivation rule?
A. SSID
B. MAC
C. VLAN
D. IP Address
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 34
Which is an Aruba specific DSA that can be used in a user derivation rule?
A. user login name
B. authentication server
C. location
D. controller Loopback address
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Answer: C
Question No : 35 – (Topic 1)  You are developing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package to load data into a 
data warehouse.
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You need to establish the correct order for loading each table to maximize parallel processing. Which order should you use?
A.
1. DimCurrency, DimScenario, DimAccount in parallel
2. DimOrganization
3. FactFinance
B.
C.
DimCurrency, DimOrganization in parallel
2. DimScenario, DimAccount in parallel
3. FactFinance
D.
1. DimCurrency, FactFinance in parallel
2. DimOrganization, DimScenario, DimAccount in parallel
E.
1. FactFinance
2. DimOrganization, DimScenario, DimAccount in parallel
3. DimCurrency
F.
1. DimCurrency
2. DimOrganization
3. DimScenario, DimAccount in parallel
4. FactFinance
Answer: A
Explanation: References:
Question No : 36 – (Topic 1) You are designing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package that uploads a file to a table named Orders in a SQL Azure database. The company’s auditing policies have the following requirements: An entry must be written to a dedicated SQL Server log table named OrderLog. The entry must be written as soon as the file upload task completes. You need to meet the company’s policy requirements. Which event handler should you use?
A. OnPostExecute
B. OnWarning
C. OnExecStatusChanged
D. OnVariableValueChanged
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Answer: A
Question No : 37 – (Topic 1)  You are editing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package that contains three Execute SQL tasks and no other tasks. The package and all three Execute SQL tasks have their TransactionOption property set to Supported. You need to ensure that if any of the Execute SQL tasks fail, all three tasks will roll back their changes. What should you do?
A. Move the three Execute SQL tasks into a Sequence container.
B. Move the three Execute SQL tasks into a Foreach Loop container.
C. Change the TransactionOption property of all three Execute SQL tasks to Required.
D. Change the TransactionOption property of the package to Required.
Answer: D
Reference:
Question No : 38 DRAG DROP – (Topic 1)
You are developing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package. The package uses custom functionality that accesses a SQL Server database. The custom functionality must be implemented by using Language Integrated Query (LINQ). You need to ensure that the LINQ code can be debugged at design time. What should you select from the SSIS Toolbox? (To answer, drag the appropriate item to the correct location in the answer area.)
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Question No : 39 DRAG DROP – (Topic 1)  You are designing an extract, transform, load (ETL) process with SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS). Two packages, Package A and Package B, will be designed. Package A will execute Package B. Both packages must reference a file path corresponding to an input folder where files will be located for further processing. You need to design a solution so that the file path can be easily configured with the least administrative and development effort. Which four actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)
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Question No : 40 – (Topic 1)  You are creating a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package that implements a Type 3 Slowly Changing Dimension (SCD). You need to add a task or component to the package that allows you to implement the SCD logic. What should you use?
A. a Script component
B. an SCD component
C. an Aggregate component
D. a Merge component
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 41
Which match condition can be used by a server derivation rule?
A. greater than
B. less than
C. inverse of
D. contains
070-463 exam 
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 42
Where are Aruba Vendor Specific Attributes (VSA) programmed?
A. controller
B. client
C. authentication server
D. Internal user database
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 43
View the Server group screen shot above.
A company has provisioned the same VAP, AAA and SSID profiles at both its Miami and NY offices. This Server Group is applied for 802.1x authentication at both locations. The user’s credentials are only found in the Miami Radius server “RadiusMiami”. There is no Radius synchronization. What happens when the user attempts to authenticate?

A. The controller recognizes the users Domain and sends the authentication request directly to RadiusMiami.
B. The request is initially sent to RadiusNY1 then RadiusNY1 redirects, the controller, to send the authentication request to RadiusMiami
C. RadiusNY1 receives the request and returns a deny. No other action is taken.
D. RadiusNY1 receives the request and returns a deny. The authentications request will then be sent to RadiusMiami.
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Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 44
View the Server group and User Roles screen shots above. A user associated to an SSID with 802.1x using this server group. RadiusNY returned a standard radius attribute of filter-Id with a value of “employee”. The user was placed in the guest Role. What statements below are correct?
A. The user was placed in the 802.1x authentication default Role guest
B. The user was placed in the initial Role guest
C. Role derivation failed because roles are case sensitive
D. Role derivation failed because the incorrect operation “value-of” was used
E. 802.1x authentication failed so the user was automatically placed in the guest Role
Answer: A,C
QUESTION NO: 45
View the Server group and User Roles screen shots above. A user associated to an SSID with 802.1x using this server group. RadiusNY returned a standard radius attribute of filter-Id with a value of “employee”. What Role will the user get?
A. The User will get the Emp Role
B. The user will get the 802.1x authentication default Role
C. The User will get the employee Role
D. The User will get the Employee Role
E. The User will get the initial Role
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Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 46
Which profiles are required in an AP Group to enable an SSID with VLAN 1, WPA2 and LMSIP?
A. Virtual-ap
ap mesh-radio-profile
ap system profile
B. Wlan ssid-profile
ap-system-profile
virtual-ap profile
C. Virtual-ap profile
ap-system profile
aaa profile
D. 802.1X authentication profile
wlan ssid-profile
virtual-ap profile
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 47
A user connected to a Captive Portal VAP successfully. When the user opens their browser and tries to access their homepage, they get redirected as expected to another URL on the Aruba Controller. However, they see an error message that web authentication has been disabled. What might be a cause of this?
A. The Captive portal profile has not been assigned to the initial role B.
The Captive portal profile has not been assigned to the AAA profile C.
A server group has not been assigned to the captive portal profile D.
An initial role has not been assigned to the AAA profile
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 48
A customer has configured a 3000 controller with the following commands:
Vlan 55
Vlan 56
Vlan 57
Interface gigabitethernet 1/0
switchport mode trunk
switchport trunk native vlan 55
switchport trunk allowed vlan 55-57
Which of the following sentences best describes this port?
A. All traffic in vlan 55 will be dropped and all traffic in vlan 56 and 57 will be trunked with and 802.1Q tag
B. All traffic in vlan 55, 56 and 57 will be trunked with an 802.1Q tag
C. All traffic in vlan 55 will be sent with an 802.1Q tag while vlan 56 and 57 traffic will be trunked untagged
D. All traffic in vlan 56 and 57 will be sent with an 802.1Q tag while vlan 55 traffic will be trunked untagged
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 49
A customer has a remote AP deployment, where each remote AP has an IPSEC VPN tunnel with L2TP to the controller. 1 of the remote APs is stuck in the user table and hasn’t yet transitioned to the AP active table in the controller. The customer suspects that the AP is not setting up its VPN connection successfully. Which of the following commands might be useful in troubleshooting this? Select all that apply.
A. Logging level debugging security process localdb
B. Logging level debugging security process l2tp
C. Logging level debugging security process dot1x
D. Logging level debugging security process crypto
070-463 exam 
Answer: A,B,D
QUESTION NO: 50
The screen captures above show the 802.1X authentication profile and AAA profile settings for a VAP.  If machine authentication passes and user authentication passes, which role will be assigned?
A. employee
B. guest
C. contractor
D. logon
E. you can’t tell
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 51
The screen captures above show the 802.1X authentication profile and AAA profile settings for a VAP. If machine authentication fails and user authentication fails, which role will be assigned?
A. employee
B. guest
C. contractor
D. Captive Portal
E. Logon
F. no role will be assigned
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Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 52
What cannot be configured from the Initial Configuration wizards?
A. Controller name.
B. Syslog server and levels.
C. User firewall policy.
D. User derivation rules.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 53
When you create a WLAN SSID in the WLAN/LAN wizard what AP group is it automatically added to?
A. The air-monitors group
B. The first configured AP group
C. The Default AP group
D. It is only added to the ‘All Profiles’ section
070-463 pdf 
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 54
The reusable wizards are accessible in which one of the following ways?
A. On startup through the CLI
B. Through the CLI, after the initial CLI wizard has been completed
C. In the Web UI under maintenance.
D. In the Web UI under configuration.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 55
What additional fields must be configured in the configuration wizard if the controller role is selected as a local instead of a standalone controller?
A. The Local’s SNMPv3 user name and password
B. The Master IP address
C. The Local’s loopback address
D. The IPSec PSK for Master/Local communication
Answer: B,D
QUESTION NO: 56
The configuration wizard enables which of the following controller clock configurations?
A. NTP to a time server
B. Manually setting the date time
C. Daylight savings time
D. Only GMT can be configured
Answer: A,B
QUESTION NO: 57
When configuring ports in the configuration wizard, which of the following are not options for configuration?
A. Inter-VLAN routing
B. Source NAT
C. Trusted
D. LACP
070-463 exam 
Answer: A,B,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 58
What Wizards can be used to create a new AP Group?
A. AP Wizard
B. Controller Wizard
C. WLAN/LAN Wizard
D. License Wizard
E. AP configurations Wizard
Answer: A,C
QUESTION NO: 59
By default, which CLI based remote access method is enabled on Aruba controllers?
A. rsh
B. Telnet
C. SSH
D. Telnet and SSH
E. Telnet, SSH and rsh
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Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 60
An Aruba controller can be configured to support which CLI based remote access methods?
A. RSH
B. Telnet
C. SSH
D. Telnet and SSH
E. SSH and RSH
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 61
The Aruba controller’s Command Line Interface can be accessed from WITHIN the browser based Web User Interface using which method?
A. It’s not possible to access the CLI from within the WebUI
B. Embedded Telnet client
C. Java based SSH client
D. Proprietary serial over Ethernet client
070-463 pdf 
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 62
As an admin/root user, what other types of role-based management users can be created on Aruba controllers? (Choose all the correct answers)
A. Auditing-compliance user
B. Read only user
C. Location-api-management user
D. Guest provisioning user
Answer: B,C,D
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QUESTION 18
You are creating a class named Employee. The class exposes a string property named EmployeeType. The following code segment defines the Employee class. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
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The EmployeeType property value must be accessed and modified only by code within the Employee class or within a class derived from the Employee class. You need to ensure that the implementation of the EmployeeType property meets the requirements. Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer represents part of the complete solution. Choose two.)
A. Replace line 05 with the following code segment: protected get;
B. Replace line 06 with the following code segment: private set;
C. Replace line 03 with the following code segment: public string EmployeeType
D. Replace line 05 with the following code segment: private get;
E. Replace line 03 with the following code segment: protected string EmployeeType
F. Replace line 06 with the following code segment: protected set;
070-483 exam 
Correct Answer: BE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 19
You are implementing a method named Calculate that performs conversions between value types and reference types. The following code segment implements the method. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
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You need to ensure that the application does not throw exceptions on invalid conversions. Which code segment should you insert at line 04?
A. int balance = (int) (float)amountRef;
B. int balance = (int)amountRef;
C. int balance = amountRef;
D. int balance = (int) (double) amountRef;
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 20
You are creating a console application by using C#. You need to access the application assembly. Which code segment should you use?
A. Assembly.GetAssembly(this);
B. this.GetType();
C. Assembly.Load();
D. Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly();
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Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 21
HOTSPOT
You are implementing a library method that accepts a character parameter and returns a string. If the lookup succeeds, the method must return the corresponding string value. If the lookup fails, the method must return the value “invalid choice.” You need to implement the lookup algorithm. How should you complete the relevant code? (To answer, select the correct keyword in each drop-down list in the answer area.)
Hot Area:
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Correct Answer:
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Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 22
You use the Task.Run() method to launch a long-running data processing operation. The data processing operation often fails in times of heavy network
congestion. If the data processing operation fails, a second operation must clean up any results of the first operation. You need to ensure that the second operation is invoked only if the data processing operation throws an unhandled exception. What should you do?
A. Create a TaskCompletionSource<T> object and call the TrySetException() method of the object.
B. Create a task by calling the Task.ContinueWith() method.
C. Examine the Task.Status property immediately after the call to the Task.Run() method.
D. Create a task inside the existing Task.Run() method by using the AttachedToParent option.
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Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 23
You are modifying an application that processes leases. The following code defines the Lease class. (Line numbers are included for reference only.) 070-483 dumps
Leases are restricted to a maximum term of 5 years. The application must send a notification message if a lease request exceeds 5 years. You need to implement the notification mechanism. Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
E. Option E
F. Option F
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 24
What is a benefit of cloud computing over traditional computing?
A. Reduces the time to provision and deploy new applications
B. Eliminates consumer’s IT operational expenditure
C. Enables the use of proprietary APIs to access IT resources
D. Lowers migration cost and prevents vendor lock-in
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Benefits of Cloud Computing
Cloud computing offers the following key benefits: Reduced IT cost: Cloud services can be purchased based on pay-per-use or subscription pricing. This reduces or eliminates consumer’s IT capital expenditure (CAPEX).
Business agility:
Cloud computing provides the capability to allocate and scale computing capacity quickly. Cloud can reduce the time required to provision and deploy new applications and services from months to minutes. This enables businesses to respond more quickly to market changes and reduce time-to-market. Flexible scaling: Cloud computing enables consumers to scale up, scale down, scale out, or scale in the demand for computing resources easily. Consumers can unilaterally and automatically scale computing resources without any interaction with cloud service providers. The flexible service provisioning capability
of cloud often provides a sense of unlimited scalability to the cloud service consumers. High availability: Cloud computing has the ability to ensure resource availability at varying levels depending on the consumer’s policy and priority. Redundant infrastructure components (servers, network paths, and storage equipment, along with clustered software) enable fault tolerance for cloud deployments. These techniques can encompass multiple data centers located in different geographic regions, which prevents data unavailability due to regional failures. EMC E10-001 Student Resource Guide. Module 13: Cloud Computing
QUESTION 25
Which statement describes a denial of service attack?
A. Prevents authorized users from accessing the resources and services
B. Prohibits attempts to repair the resources and services after an attack
C. Attempts to provide false information by impersonating someone’s identity
D. Prevents unauthorized users to access the resources and services
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Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Threats are the potential attacks that can be carried out on an IT infrastructure. These attacks can be classified as active or passive. Passive attacks are attempts to gain unauthorized access into the system. They pose threats to confidentiality of information. Active attacks include data modification, denial of service (DoS), and repudiation attacks. They pose threats to data integrity, availability, and accountability. In a data modification attack, the unauthorized user attempts to modify information for malicious purposes. A modification attack can target the data at rest or the data in transit. These attacks pose a threat to data integrity. Denial of service (DoS) attacks prevent legitimate users from accessing resources and services. These attacks generally do not involve access to or modification of information. Instead, they pose a threat to data availability. The intentional flooding of a network or website to prevent
legitimate access to authorized users is one example of a DoS attack. Repudiation is an attack against the accountability of information. It attempts to provide false information by either impersonating someone’s identity or denying that an event or a transaction has taken place. For example, a repudiation attack may involve performing an action and eliminating any evidence that could prove the identity of the user (attacker) who performed that action. Repudiation attacks include circumventing the logging of security events or tampering with the security log to conceal the identity of the attacker.
QUESTION 26
What is a key benefit of virtualization?
A. Improved resource utilization
B. Improved performance
C. Enhanced interoperability
D. Unlimited resource scaling
070-483 exam 
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 27
What is an accurate statement about the Data Center Bridging Exchange protocol?
A. Enables Converged Enhanced Ethernet (CEE) devices to convey and configure their features with other CEE devices
B. Creates virtual FCoE links over an existing Ethernet network to transport FC frames over virtual links independently
C. Enables an FCoE switch to send signals to other FCoE switches that need to stop or slow down their transmissions
D. Enables an FCoE switch to transport both TCP/IP and FC frames over a single virtual FCoE link
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Data Center Brdiging Exchange Protocol (DCBX)
DCBX protocol is a discovery and capability exchange protocol, which helps Converged Enhanced Ethernet devices to convey and configure their features with the other CEE devices in the network. DCBX is used to negotiate capabilities between the switches and the adapters, and it allows the switch to distribute the configuration values to all the attached adapters. This helps to ensure consistent configuration across the entire network.
QUESTION 28
What is a key security consideration when a NAS device enables sharing of the same data among UNIX and Microsoft Windows users?
A. NAS device must map UNIX permissions to Windows and vice versa
B. NAS defines and maintains ownership to the objects
C. NIS server must separately maintain SIDs for UNIX and Windows environments
D. Object permissions are not defined in advance and assigned dynamically
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Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

Explanation:
Authorization defines user privileges in a network. The authorization techniques for UNIX users and Windows users are quite different. UNIX files use mode bits to define access rights granted to owners, groups, and other users, whereas Windows uses an ACL to allow or deny specific rights to a particular
user for a particular file. Although NAS devices support both of these methodologies for UNIX and Windows users, complexities arise when UNIX and Windows users access and share the same data. If the NAS device supports multiple protocols, the integrity of both permission methodologies must be
maintained. NAS device vendors provide a method of mapping UNIX permissions to Windows and vice versa, so a multiprotocol environment can be supported.

QUESTION 29 An attacker finds a web page for a target organization that supplies contact information for the company. Using available details to make the message seem authentic, the attacker drafts e-mail to an employee on the contact page that appears to come from an individual who might reasonably request confidential information, such as a network administrator. The email asks the employee to log into a bogus page that requests the employee’s user name and password or click on a link that will download spyware or other malicious programming. Google’s Gmail was hacked using this technique and attackers stole source code and sensitive data from Google servers. This is highly sophisticated attack using zero-day exploit vectors, social engineering and malware websites that focused on targeted individuals working for the company. What is this deadly attack called?
A. Spear phishing attack
B. Trojan server attack
C. Javelin attack
D. Social networking attack
Answer: A
QUESTION 30 Vulnerability scanners are automated tools that are used to identify vulnerabilities and misconfigurations of hosts. They also provide information regarding mitigating discovered vulnerabilities. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

A. Vulnerability scanners attempt to identify vulnerabilities in the hosts scanned.
B. Vulnerability scanners can help identify out-of-date software versions, missing patches, or system upgrades
C. They can validate compliance with or deviations from the organization’s security policy
D. Vulnerability scanners can identify weakness and automatically fix and patch the vulnerabilities without user intervention
070-483 pdf 
Answer: D
QUESTION 31 How does traceroute map the route a packet travels from point A to point B?
A. Uses a TCP timestamp packet that will elicit a time exceeded in transit message
B. Manipulates the value of the time to live (TTL) within packet to elicit a time exceeded in transit message
C. Uses a protocol that will be rejected by gateways on its way to the destination
D. Manipulates the flags within packets to force gateways into generating error messages
Answer: B
QUESTION 32 How do you defend against DHCP Starvation attack?

A. Enable ARP-Block on the switch
B. Enable DHCP snooping on the switch
C. Configure DHCP-BLOCK to 1 on the switch
D. Install DHCP filters on the switch to block this attack
Answer: B
QUESTION 33 What type of session hijacking attack is shown in the exhibit?
A. Cross-site scripting Attack
B. SQL Injection Attack
C. Token sniffing Attack
D. Session Fixation Attack
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Answer: D
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70-761 | Querying Data with Transact-SQL

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QUESTION 1
DRAG DROP You have a database that stored information about servers and application errors. The database contains
the following tables. Servers

Pass4itsure 70-761 exam questions-q1

Errors

Pass4itsure 70-761 exam questions-q1-2

You are building a webpage that shows the three most common errors for each server.
You need to return the data for the webpage.
How should you complete the Transact-SQL statement? To answer, drag the appropriate Transact-SQL segments to
the correct location. Each Transact-SQL segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to
drag
the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

Pass4itsure 70-761 exam questions-q1-3

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure 70-761 exam questions-q1-4

QUESTION 2
DRAG DROP
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same scenario. For your convenience, the scenario is
repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answer choices, but the text of thescenario is
exactly the same in each question in this series.Start of repeated scenario
You are developing a database to track customer orders. The database contains the following tables: Sales.Customers,
Sales.Orders, and Sales.OrderLines. The following table describes the columns in Sales.Customers.

Pass4itsure 70-761 exam questions-q2

The following table describes the columns in Sales.Orders.
The following table describes the columns in Sales.OrderLines.

Pass4itsure 70-761 exam questions-q2-2

End of repeated scenario
You need to create a common table expression (CTE) that returns the total number of orders per year for each
customer.
Which five Transact-SQL segments should you use to develop the solution? To answer, move the appropriate TransactSQL segments from the list of Transact-SQL segments to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:

Pass4itsure 70-761 exam questions-q2-3

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure 70-761 exam questions-q2-4

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/t-sql/queries/with-common-table-expression-transact-sql?view=sqlserver-2017

QUESTION 3
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You are creating indexes in a data warehouse.
You have a dimension table named Table1 that has 10,000 rows. The rows are used to generate several reports.
The reports join a column that is the primary key.
The execution plan contains bookmark lookups for Table1.
You discover that the reports run slower than expected.
You need to reduce the amount of time it takes to run the reports.
Solution: You create a nonclustered index on the primary key column that does NOT include columns.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/relational-databases/indexes/clustered-and-nonclustered-indexesdescribed?view=sql-server-2017

QUESTION 4
DRAG DROP
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same scenario. For your convenience, the scenario is
repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answer choices, but the text of the scenario is
exactly the same in each question in this series.
You query a database that includes two tables: Project and Task. The Project table includes the following columns:

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The Task table includes the following columns:

Pass4itsure 70-761 exam questions-q4-2

You need to find all projects that have at least one task that took more than 50 hours to complete. You must also
determine the average duration of the tasks that took more that took more than 50 hours to complete for each project.
How should you complete the Transact-SQL statement? To answer, drag the appropriate Transact-SQL segments to
the correct locations. Each Transact-SQL segment may be used once, more than once or not at all. You may need to
drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
Select and Place:

Pass4itsure 70-761 exam questions-q4-3

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure 70-761 exam questions-q4-4

QUESTION 5
DRAG DROP
You have a table named HumanResources.Employee. You configure the table to use a default history table that
contains 10 years of data.
You need to write a query that retrieves the values of the BusinessEntityID and JobTitle fields. You must retrieve all
historical data up to January 1, 2017 where the value of the BusinessEntityID column equals 4.
Which four Transact-SQL segments should you use to develop the solution? To answer, move the appropriate TransactSQL segments to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:

Pass4itsure 70-761 exam questions-q5

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure 70-761 exam questions-q5-2

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/relational-databases/tables/querying-data-in-a-system-versionedtemporal-table

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70-762 | Developing SQL Databases

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Exercises 1-5,More https://www.pass4itsure.com/70-762.html

QUESTION 1
You need to build a function that meets the following requirements:
How should you complete the Transact-SQL statement? To answer, drag the appropriate Transact-SQL statements to
the correct locations. Each Transact-SQL segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to
drag
the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
Select and Place:

Pass4itsure 70-762 exam questions-q1

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure 70-762 exam questions-q1-2

References: https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms189294(v=sql.105).aspx

QUESTION 2
You run the following Transact-SQL statement:

Pass4itsure 70-762 exam questions-q2

There are multiple unique OrderID values. Most of the UnitPrice values for the same OrderID are different.
You need to create a single index seek query that does not use the following operators:
Nested loop
Sort Key lookup Which Transact-SQL statement should you run?
A. CREATE INDEX IX_OrderLines_1 ON OrderLines (OrderID, UnitPrice) INCLUDE (Description, Quantity)
B. CREATE INDEX IX_OrderLines_1 ON OrderLines (OrderID, UnitPrice) INCLUDE (Quantity)
C. CREATE INDEX IX_OrderLines_1 ON OrderLines (OrderID, UnitPrice, Quantity)
D. CREATE INDEX IX_OrderLines_1 ON OrderLines (UnitPrice, OrderID) INCLUDE (Description, Quantity)
Correct Answer: A
An index with nonkey columns can significantly improve query performance when all columns in the query are included
in the index either as key or nonkey columns. Performance gains are achieved because the query optimizer can locate
all
the column values within the index; table or clustered index data is not accessed resulting in fewer disk I/O operations.
Note: All data types except text, ntext, and image can be used as nonkey columns.
Incorrect Answers:
C: Redesign nonclustered indexes with a large index key size so that only columns used for searching and lookups are
key columns.
D: The most unique column should be the first in the index.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/t-sql/statements/create-index-transact-sql?view=sql-server-2017

QUESTION 3
You run the following Transact-SQL following statement:

Pass4itsure 70-762 exam questions-q3

Customer records may be inserted individually or in bulk from an application.
You observe that the application attempts to insert duplicate records.
You must ensure that duplicate records are not inserted and bulk insert operations continue without notifications.
Which Transact-SQL statement should you run?
A. CREATE UNIQUE NONCLUSTERED INDEX IX_Customer_Code ON Customer (Code) WITH (ONLINE = OFF)
B. CREATE UNIQUE INDEX IX_CUSTOMER_Code O Customer (Code) WITH (IGNORE_DUP_KEY = ON)
C. CREATE UNIQUE INDEX IX Customer Code ON Customer (Code) WITH (IGNORE DUP KEY =OFF)
D. CREATE UNIQUE NONCLUSTERED INDEX IX_Customer_Code ON Customer (Code)
E. CREATE UNIQUE NONCLUSTERED INDEX IX_Customer_Code ON Customer (Code) WITH (ONLINE = ON)
Correct Answer: B
IGNORE_DUP_KEY = { ON | OFF } specifies the error response when an insert operation attempts to insert duplicate
key values into a unique index. The IGNORE_DUP_KEY option applies only to insert operations after the index is
created
or rebuilt. The option has no effect when executing CREATE INDEX, ALTER INDEX, or UPDATE. The default is OFF.
Incorrect Answers:
ONLINE = { ON | OFF } specifies whether underlying tables and associated indexes are available for queries and data
modification during the index operation. The default is OFF.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/t-sql/statements/create-index-transact-sql?view=sql-server-2017

QUESTION 4
HOTSPOT
You use Query Store to optimize a query in a database.
The query has two execution plans:
Plan 2 is shown in the Plan 2 Execution Plan exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.) Plan 10 is shown in the Plan 10
Execution Plan exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.) You create an index at 22:24 based on the missing index suggestion in
Plan 2. The average duration statistics for the query is shown in the Tracked Queries exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
You need to analyze the operators in the two execution plans. For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. Plan 2 Execution Plan

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Tracked Queries

Pass4itsure 70-762 exam questions-q4-2

Tracked Queries

Pass4itsure 70-762 exam questions-q4-3

Hot Area:

Pass4itsure 70-762 exam questions-q4-4

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure 70-762 exam questions-q4-5

QUESTION 5
You are developing a database reporting solution for a table that contains 900 million rows and is 103 GB.
The table is updated thousands of times a day, but data is not deleted.
The SELECT statements vary in the number of columns used and the amount of rows retrieved.
You need to reduce the amount of time it takes to retrieve data from the table. The must prevent data duplication.
Which indexing strategy should you use?
A. a nonclustered index for each column in the table
B. a clustered columnstore index for the table
C. a hash index for the table
D. a clustered index for the table and nonclustered indexes for nonkey columns
Correct Answer: B
Columnstore indexes are the standard for storing and querying large data warehousing fact tables. It uses columnbased data storage and query processing to achieve up to 10x query performance gains in your data warehouse over
traditional row-oriented storage.
A clustered columnstore index is the physical storage for the entire table.
Generally, you should define the clustered index key with as few columns as possible.
A nonclustered index contains the index key values and row locators that point to the storage location of the table data.
You can create multiple nonclustered indexes on a table or indexed view. Generally, nonclustered indexes should be
designed to improve the performance of frequently used queries that are not covered by the clustered index.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/relational-databases/indexes/columnstore-indexes-overview?view=sqlserver-2017

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70-764 | Administering a SQL Database Infrastructure

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Exercises 1-5,More https://www.pass4itsure.com/70-764.html

QUESTION 1
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may
be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series.
Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question.
A company has a Microsoft SQL Server environment in Microsoft Azure. The databases are stored directly in Azure blob
storage.
You need to ensure that you can restore a database to a specific point in time between backups while minimizing the
number of Azure storage containers required.
Which option should you use?
A. backup compression
B. backup encryption
C. file snapshot backup
D. mirrored backup media sets
E. SQL Server backup to URL
F. SQL Server Managed Backup to Azure
G. tail-log backup
H. back up and truncate the transaction log
Correct Answer: F
SQL Server Managed Backup to Microsoft Azure supports point in time restore for the retention time period specified.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/relational-databases/backup-restore/sql-server-managed-backup-tomicrosoft-azure?view=sql-server-2017

QUESTION 2
Your organization is developing a web application. The application will access data from a Microsoft SQL Server
database.
You must implement a security solution that meets the following requirements:
• All user logins must be associated with an Active Directory
• Service accounts are not permitted.
• Constrained database are not permitted.
• Users must not be able to log on to SQL Server as the web application and access the database.
• The web application must be permitted to display records to the and add the database.
You need 10 implement the required security and permitted structure for the web application while the principle of least
privilege.
Which settings should you use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Pass4itsure 70-764 exam questions-q2

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure 70-764 exam questions-q2-2

QUESTION 3
You administer a SQL Server 2016 database instance.
You need to configure the SQL Server Database Engine service on a failover cluster.
Which user account should you use?
A. A domain user
B. The BUILTIN\SYSTEM account
C. A local user with Run as Service permissions
D. The SQLBrowser account
Correct Answer: A
Account of the person who installs the cluster: The person who installs the cluster must use an account with the
following characteristics:
The account must be a domain account. It does not have to be a domain administrator account. It can be a domain user
account if it meets the other requirements in this list.
Etc.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/previous-versions/windows/it-pro/windowsserver-2008-R2-and-2008/cc731002(v=ws.10)

QUESTION 4
You are designing a high availability (HA) environment for a company that has three office locations. Details of the
services deployed at each office are shown in the table below:

Pass4itsure 70-764 exam questions-q4

You need to maximize availability, minimize data loss, and minimize downtime in the event of a failure.
Which solution should you implement for each location? To answer, drag the appropriate solutions to the correct
locations. Each solution may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between
panes or scroll to view content.
Select and Place:

Pass4itsure 70-764 exam questions-q4-2

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure 70-764 exam questions-q4-3

The Always On availability groups feature is a high-availability and disaster-recovery solution that provides an enterpriselevel alternative to database mirroring.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/database-engine/availabilitygroups/windows/always-on-availabilitygroups-sql-server?view=sql-server-2017

QUESTION 5
You have a table that has grown in the past six months.
A user reports that queries against the table take a long time to complete.
You need to update the statistics for the table in the least amount of time without disabling automatic statistics updates.
Which transact-SQL statement should you run?
A. UPDATE STATISTICS WITH RESAMPLE
B. UPDATE STATISTICS WITH FULLSCAN
C. UPDATE STATISTICS WITH SAMPLE 10 PERCENT
D. UPDATE STATISTICS WITH NORECOMPUTE
Correct Answer: C
SAMPLE number { PERCENT | ROWS } specifies the approximate percentage or number of rows in the table or
indexed view for the query optimizer to use when it updates statistics. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/tsql/statements/update-statistics-transact-sql?view=sql-server-2017

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70-765 | Provisioning SQL Databases

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Exercises 1-5,More https://www.pass4itsure.com/70-765.html

QUESTION 1
You are using dynamic management views to monitor an SQL Server server named SQL1.
A database administrator named Dba1 must monitor the health of SQL1.
You need to ensure that Dba1 can access dynamic management views for SQL1.
The solution must use the principle of least privilege.
Which permissions should you assign to Dba1?
A. VIEW ANY DEFINITION
B. VIEW SERVER STATE
C. VIEW DEFINITION
D. CONTROL SERVER
Correct Answer: B
To query a dynamic management view or function requires SELECT permission on object and VIEW SERVER STATE
or VIEW DATABASE STATE permission.
There are two types of dynamic management views and functions:
Server-scoped dynamic management views and functions. These require VIEW SERVER STATE permission on the
server.
Database-scoped dynamic management views and functions. These require VIEW DATABASE STATE permission on
the database.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/relational-databases/system-dynamic-management-views/systemdynamic-management-views

QUESTION 2
You have a database named DB1 that contains a table named Tabie1. Table1 has a non-clustered index named
index1.
You discover that index1 is corrupt.
You need to repair index1.
Which statement should you execute?
A. ALTER INDEX index1 ON table1 REBUILD WITH (ONLINE=0N)
B. DBCC CHECKOB (\\’db1*, TABLOCK)
C. DBCC CHECKDB (*db1, REPAIR_FAST)
D. DROP INDEX index1 ON tabie1
Correct Answer: A
If REBUILD is performed online (ON) the data in this table is available for queries and data modification during the index
operation.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/t-sql/statements/alter-index-transact-sql?view=sql-server-2017
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/t-sql/database-console-commands/dbcc-checkdb-transact-sql?view=sqlserver

QUESTION 3
You plan to deploy Microsoft SQL Server on a Microsoft Azure Virtual machine. The virtual machine will have a 30-TB
database and will have 10 1-TB VHDs for the database.
You need to configure the storage to meet the following requirements: Evenly distribute read and write operations
across the VHDs. Minimize the read and write time.
Which storage configuration should you use?
A. a parity storage pool
B. a simple storage pool
C. a mirrored storage pool
D. a striped volume
E. a RAID-5 volume
Correct Answer: D
Data that is written to a striped volume is interleaved to all disks at the same time instead of sequentially. Therefore,
disk performance is the fastest on a RAID 0 volume as compared to any other type of disk configuration. Reference:
https://support.microsoft.com/en-us/help/323433/how-to-establish-a-striped-volume-raid-0-inwindows-server-2003

QUESTION 4
You have Microsoft SQL server on a Microsoft Azure virtual machine. The virtual machine has 200 GB of data.
User report a slow response time when querying the database.
You need to identify whether the storage subsystem causes the performance issue.
Which performance monitor counter should you view?
A. Data sec/Write
B. Avg.disk Read Queue Length
C. % Disk Read Time
D. Disk sec/Read
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
You are deploying a Microsoft SQL Server database that will support a mixed OLTP and OLAP workload. The target
virtual machine has four CPUs.
You need to ensure that reports do not use all available system resources.
What should you do?
A. Enable Auto Close.
B. Increase the value for the Minimum System Memory setting.
C. Set MAXDOP to half the number of CPUs available.
D. Increase the value for the Minimum Memory per query setting.
Correct Answer: C

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70-767 | Implementing a Data Warehouse using SQL

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Exercises 1-5,More https://www.pass4itsure.com/70-767.html

QUESTION 1
You are developing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package.
The package is stored as the myPackage.dtsx file in the root directory of the C drive of the SSIS server.
You need to run the package from the command prompt.
Which command should you use?
A. dtexec /sql myPackage
B. dtexec /d “C:\File System\myPackage.dtsx”
C. dtexec /f “C:\myPackage.dtsx”
D. dtexec /com “myPackage.dtsx”
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
You are deploying a new SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) project to the test environment.
A package in the project uses a custom task component.
You need to ensure that the custom object is deployed on the test environment correctly.
What should you do?
A. Run the package by using the dtexec /rep /conn command.
B. Create a reusable custom logging component.
C. Create an OnError event handler.
D. Use the gacutil command.
E. Use the dtutil /copy command.
F. Deploy the package to the Integration Services catalog by using dtutil and use SQL Server to store the configuration.
G. Run the package by using the dtexec /dumperror /conn command.
H. Use the Project Deployment Wizard.
I. Deploy the package by using an msi file.
J. Add a data tap on the output of a component in the package data flow.
K. Run the package by using the dtexecui.exe utility and the SQL Log provider.
Correct Answer: D
Reference: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms403356.aspx

QUESTION 3
Your company manufactures several types of products.
The company has a production tracking application that stores the following data about the products:
1.
The production date
2.
The cost of production
3.
The names of the products
4.
The amount of waste created
5.
The number of products produced
6.
The name of the facility where the products are produced
You are designing a data warehouse for the data. You add a Date dimension.
You need to ensure that you can create a composite primary key for the fact table.
Which two columns should you add to the new dimension tables? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Cost of Production
B. Amount Produced
C. Waste Amount
D. Product Name
E. Facility Name
Correct Answer: DE
Both the Product Name and the Facility Name are unique.

QUESTION 4
You have a database named DB1 that contains millions of rows.
You plan to perform a weekly audit of the changes to the rows.
You need to ensure that you can view which rows were modified and the hour that the modification occurred.
What should you do?
A. Enable Policy-Based Management
B. Configure Stretch Database.
C. Configure an SSIS database.
D. Enable change data capture.
Correct Answer: D
SQL Server 2017 provides two features that track changes to data in a database: change data capture and change
tracking.
Change data capture provides historical change information for a user table by capturing both the fact that DML
changes were made and the actual data that was changed. Changes are captured by using an asynchronous process
that reads the transaction log and has a low impact on the system.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/relational-databases/track-changes/track-data-changes-sql-server

QUESTION 5
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You are the administrator of a Microsoft SQL Server Master Data Services (MDS) instance. The instance contains a
model named Geography and a model named Customer. The Geography model contains an entity named
CountryRegion.
You need to ensure that the CountryRegionentity members are available in the customer model.
Solution: Create a CountryRegionentity in the Customermodel. In the Geographymodel, create a subscription view and
load data to the entity-based staging table that contains the CountryRegion entity.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
Instead configure an entity sync relationship to replicate the CountryRegion entity.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/master-data-services/entity-sync-relationship-master-data-services

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  • Understanding server installation (10–15%)
  • Understanding server roles (25–30%)
  • Understanding Active Directory (20–25%)
  • Understanding storage (10–15%)
  • Understanding server performance management (10–15%)
  • Understanding server maintenance (15–20%)

Candidates should have some hands-on experience with Windows Server, Windows-based networking, Active Directory, account management, and system recovery tools and concepts.

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Questions & Answers for Microsoft 98-365 Online

Online: Showing 1-13 Questions

QUESTION 1
You need to manage a Windows Server 2016 server from a Windows client computer by using a Management Console.
What should you install on the client computer?
A. Remote Assistance
B. Remote Server Administration Tools
C. Windows Server Resource Kit
D. Microsoft Office SharePoint Server
Correct Answer: B
Example: Remote Server Administration Tools for Windows 8.1 enables IT administrators to manage roles and features
that are installed on computers that are running Windows Server 2012 or Windows Server 2012 R2 from a remote
computer that is running Windows 8.1 Pro or Windows 8.1 Enterprise.

QUESTION 2
You work as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. The company has a Windows Server 2016 Active Directorybased network. The company has three departments named Sales, Purchase, and Marketing.
You are required to create organizational units (OU) structure for each department in the network.
Which of the following are the reasons for defining an OU? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.
Choose all that apply.
A. To delegate administration.
B. To administer domain controllers.
C. To hide objects.
D. To administer group policy.
Correct Answer: ACD
Organizational units (OUs) are defined to delegate administration, to administer group policy, or to hide objects.
Delegating administration is the prime reason for defining OUs.

QUESTION 3
Which of the following master roles is used for synchronizing cross-domain group membership changes?
A. Domain Naming Master role
B. Infrastructure Master role
C. Schema Master role
D. RID Master role
Correct Answer: B
The Infrastructure Master role is used for synchronizing cross-domain group membership changes. Incorrect Answers:
A: The Domain Naming Master role is used for controlling the addition and removal of domains from the forest if they
are present in the root domain.
C: The Schema Master role is used for controlling and handling updates and modifications to the Active Directory
schema.
D: The RID Master role is used for allocating pools of unique identifiers to domain controllers for use when creating
objects.

QUESTION 4
You work as a Server Administrator for company Inc. The company has a Windows Server 2016 network environment.
All client computers on the network run the Windows 10 Pro operating system. All servers of the company run Windows
Server 2016.
You want to create a VHD file on Windows Server 2016 in order to specify a virtual machine hard disk.
Which of the following tools will you use to accomplish the task? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.
(Choose two.)
A. DiskPart
B. Disk Management MMC snap-in
C. FDISK
D. BCDEdit
Correct Answer: AB
In order to accomplish the task, you should use the DiskPart and Disk Management MMC snap-in tools. These tools
help create a VHD file on Windows Server 2016 for specifying a virtual machine hard disk.

QUESTION 5
You maintain backup schedules for a Windows Server 2016 server. Some users store vital information on their local
hard drives.
You need to include the users\\’ data when you perform nightly backups of the server.
Which built-in process should you use?
A. Agent backup
B. Folder redirection
C. Local backup schedules
D. System state data backup
Correct Answer: B
Use folder redirection to store the vital information on a network share instead. Then it will be easy to backup this data.
Note: Folder Redirection lets administrators redirect the path of a folder to a new location. The location can be a folder
on the local computer or a directory on a network file share. Users can work with documents on a server as if the
documents were based on a local drive.
References: Folder Redirection Overview https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc732275.aspx

QUESTION 6
You work as a Server Administrator for company Inc. You are responsible for troubleshooting various issues that come
in on a day-to-day basis from the local and remote locations.
Which of the following tools will you use to determine the time and type of the problem occurred in a particular system?
A. Task Manager
B. Performance Monitor
C. Event Viewer
D. Resource Monitor
Correct Answer: C
In order to determine the time and type of the problem occurred in a particular system, you should use the Event
Viewer.
The Event Viewer allows checking of the log of multiple servers.
Diagnostic logging helps in figuring out problems on several servers (with the databases on those servers), and for the
diagnostic logging, the user can view event logs with the Event Viewer in Windows or the Web Event Viewer in
SharePoint
Central Administration.
Incorrect Answers:
A: A task manager is a program used to provide information about the processes and programs running on a computer,
as well as the general status of the computer. It can also be used to terminate processes and programs, as well as
change the processes priority. The task manager is most commonly accessed by pressing the buttons Control-AltDelete. Task manager also displays all the services that are currently running as well as those that were stopped. All
information\\’s about the services such as Process ID and their group if they are applicable.
B: Performance Monitor is a Windows tool that monitors system and network resources. It is used to get statistical data
about hardware and software components of a server.
D: Resource Monitor is a suite of administration tools designed to provide a quick overview of a single user interface. It
acts as a mediator between the Cluster service and the resource dynamic link library. It can be launched from the start menu or from the Task Manager using the Performance tab. Resource Monitor can be accessed by searching in the
Reliability and Performance monitor.

QUESTION 7
Which of the following alerts gets generated when any server or client computer in the network has low disk space,
which is less than 10% available across all volumes?
A. Network Services Alerts
B. Server Event Log Alerts
C. User Performance Alerts
D. Performance Counter Alerts
Correct Answer: D
Performance Counter Alerts is generated by default when any server or client computer in the network has low disk
space, which is less than 10% available across all volumes.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Network Services Alerts is generated by default when Windows monitors network services that are set to start
automatically, and then it generates an alert if the service stops. These services are critical to the functioning of the
network.
B: Server Event Log Alerts gets generated when Windows monitors a specific set of events across the event logs. If any
of the events are detected, an alert is generated and displayed in the Other Alerts section of the reports.
C: There is no such alert as User Performance alerts in Windows.

QUESTION 8
Which of the following represents the primary function of a server?
A. To provide the server role in the organization\\’s network.
B. To provide client access to the organization\\’s network.
C. To provide services to client computers on the organization\\’s network.
D. To prevent unauthorized access to the organization\\’s network.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
You need to assign permissions to access resources. Which type of group should you use?
A. Workgroup
B. Security group
C. Organizational group
D. Distribution group
Correct Answer: B
Security groups control access to the Workgroup server\\’s functionality.

QUESTION 10
Which of the following tools will you use to quickly diagnose potential causes of instability of your system so that you
can apply updates in a targeted manner, rather than attempting a reconfiguration after the occurrence of unexpected
changes in system behavior?
A. Server Manager
B. Task Manager
C. Windows Server Update Services
D. Windows Reliability and Performance Monitor
Correct Answer: D
You should use Windows Reliability and Performance Monitor to quickly diagnose potential causes of instability of your
system so that you can apply updates in a targeted manner, rather than attempting a reconfiguration after the
occurrence of unexpected changes in system behavior. Reliability Monitor tracks the system\\’s reliability over time and
shows events that could potentially compromise that reliability.

QUESTION 11
Which of the following statements are true about a device driver? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.
Choose all that apply.
A. Device drivers are software-dependent and do not depend on operating systems.
B. It allows higher-level computer programs to interact with a hardware device.
C. It is a program or software that controls a particular device.
D. It works as a translator between the device and the operating system and programs that use the device.
Correct Answer: BCD
A device driver is a program or software that controls a particular device. It works as a translator between the device
and the operating system and programs that use the device. It provides an interface between a hardware device and
operating systems and application software.
It allows higher-level computer programs to interact with a hardware device. When an application needs data from a
device, it requests the data from OS, which in turn, send a command request to the device driver. Drivers are hardware-dependent and operating-system-specific. They usually provide the interrupt handling required for any necessary
asynchronous time-dependent hardware interface.

QUESTION 12
Which of the following types of resource record is generally used with virtual servers that point to several servers
offering network load balancing to distribute work?
A. MX
B. SRV
C. SOA
D. CNAME
Correct Answer: D
CNAME (canonical name) is a resource record that creates an alias or an alternate DNS domain name for a specific
hostname. This resource record is generally used with virtual servers that point to several servers that offer network
load balancing in order to distribute work.
Incorrect Answers:
A: MX (mail exchanger) is used to specify which mail exchanger to contact for a specified domain and in what order to
use each mail host.
B: SRV (service) locates servers that are hosting a particular service, including LDAP servers or domain controllers.
C: SOA (Start of Authority) identifies the name server that is the authoritative source of information for a DNS domain or
zone.

QUESTION 13
What are two functions of the Group Policy loopback feature? (Choose two.)
A. Apply Group Policy Objects for only the current site.
B. Apply Group Policy Objects that depend only on the computer the user logs on to.
C. Apply only the local computer Group Policy Object.
D. Give higher precedence to computer policy over user policy.
Correct Answer: BD
Loopback processing of Group Policy has two different modes, Replace and Merge. References:
http://kudratsapaev.blogspot.se/2009/07/loopback-processing-of-group-policy.html

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QUESTION 1
You have access to the desktop version of Microsoft Excel and Excel Online.
You need to perform a bulk update of data for 225 contacts.
What are two ways to achieve the goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Open the data in Excel Online, make updates, and then save changes to Microsoft Dynamics 365.
B. Export data as a dynamic pivot table, make updates, and then save changes to Microsoft Dynamics 365.
C. Export the data as a static worksheet make updates, and then save changes to Microsoft Dynamics 365.
D. Export the data as a static worksheet, make updates, and then import the data back into Microsoft Dynamics 365.
MB2-718 exam Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 2
You need to enable the Map view for the schedule board. What should you do first?
A. Enable service territories.
B. Enable the connection to Bing Maps.
C. Enable Custom Geolocation.
D. Select a resource details view.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which of the following capabilities is only available when using enhanced SLAs?
A. pause an SLA
B. use security roles to control SLA creation
C. track Key Performance Indicators (KPIs)
D. define failure actions
MB2-718 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
You assign a case to a user named User A.
User A is not available to work on the case. The customer service manager moves the case to the queue for User B .
Which of the following statements is true?
A. User A still owns the case, but the case is located in the queue for UserB .
B. The customer service manager now owns the case.
C. User B now owns the case.
D. The case is not moved to the queue for User B until User A approves the move.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
What is a limitation of the Field Service mobile app?
A. Windows 10 phones do not support the app.
B. You cannot work offline.
C. GPS locations are not available.
D. You cannot create follow-ups.
MB2-718 pdf Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which of the following records can you convert into a case?
A. task
B. queue
C. lead
D. opportunity
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
You are creating a new knowledge base article about a known product defect
After publishing the article, you discover an inaccuracy.
You need to correct the issue while maintaining a traceable history of what was published.
What should you do?
A. Use the update article option.
B. Revert the article to draft status, fix the error, and then republish the article.
C. Delete and recreate the article.
D. Publish a minor revision to the article.
MB2-718 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which two security roles are created when you install the Field Service application? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Field Service Administrator
B. Field Service Dispatcher
C. Field Service Representative
D. Field Service Read Only
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 9
You need to provide quick ad-hoc analysis of data from within the Microsoft Dynamics 365 environment Which Export to Excel option should you use?
A. Excel Online
B. static worksheet
C. dynamic worksheet
D. dynamic pivot table
MB2-718 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
You use the interactive service hub to manage cases.
Users report that they have difficulty finding a specific knowledge base article when they initiate a search from within a case.
You need to ensure that search returns relevant results.
What are two possible ways to achieve the goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Relate the article to one or more categories.
B. Relate the article to a more relevant subject.
C. Update the article description.
D. Add additional keywords.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 11
You ship a replacement part to a customer.
The customer reports that they receive the incorrect part.
You need to initiate a process to return the product to the warehouse.
What should you do?
A. Create a new return merchandise authorization (RMA) record.
B. Create a new return to vendor (RTV) record.
C. Create a new Agreement record.
D. Create a new Inventory Adjustment record.
MB2-718 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Which two statements regarding case routing are true? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. You can add a maximum of five routing rule items to a routing rule set
B. A workflow is automatically created for each routing rule.
C. A maximum of three routing rule sets can be active at the same time.
D. You can route or assign a case to a user, queue, or team.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 13
Which two of the following are valid routing rule actions? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Cancel Case
B. Send Email
C. Assign to User/Team
D. Route to Queue
MB2-718 pdf Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 14
You have a Microsoft Dynamics 365 environment You implement Field Service.
You need to set up a service task type.
Which three fields, components, or relationships are available when you create a new service task type? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Description
B. Notes
C. Field Agent
D. Estimated Duration
E. Work Order Duration
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 15
You need to change the warehouse location for product inventory. What should you do?
A. Create a new Product Relationship record.
B. Create a new Warehouse record.
C. Create a new Inventory Transfer record.
D. Create a new Inventory Adjustment record.
MB2-718 vce Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
You implement the Unified Service Desk (USD). You plan to implement actions and replacement parameters. Which three symbols are valid replacement keys? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. ^
B. –
C. +
D. $
E. ~
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 17
You enable feedback for a Voice of the Customer survey. What is the total number of questions allowed for the survey?
A. 30
B. 40
C. 100
D. 250
MB2-718 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
You use the automatic creation and update rule feature to create case records automatically.
Which three source record types are available for automatically creating a case? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. social activity
B. mailbox alert
C. survey activity
D. auto post
E. booking alert
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 19
You create a queue and assign it to a team. Which type of queue is created?
A. Personal
B. System
C. Escalation
D. Shared
MB2-718 dumps Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 20
You create a service-level agreement (SLA). For which two of the following key performance indicators (KPIs) can you create actions? Each correct answer
presents a complete solution.
A. Escalate By
B. Resolve By
C. First Response By
D. Close By
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 21
Under which two circumstances will a routing rule be applied to a case without user intervention? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. a case is created as the result of a record creation rule
B. a case was created before the routing rule was activated
C. a case is created by using a convert to case action
D. a case is created manually
MB2-718 pdf Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 22
You manage a Microsoft Dynamics 365 deployment for Contoso, Ltd.
You need to provide users the URL to their Microsoft Dynamics 365 Online interactive service hub.
What is the URL format for the Microsoft Dynamics 365 Online interactive service hub?
A. hnps://www.microsoht.com/en-US/crynamics/crm-custo-customer-center/interactive- service-hub-user-s-guide.aspx#bkmk_Access
B. https://contoso.crm.dynamics.com/XRMServices/2011/Discovery.svc
C. https://contoso.crm.dynamics,com/engagementhub.aspx
D. https://contoso.crm.dynamics.com/main.aspx
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 23
You have a Microsoft Dynamics 365 environment. You implement Field Service and create a Field Service Agreement for a specific account
Where should you define the preferred resource?
A. Schedule Board Setting
B. Booking Setup
C. Field Service Settings
D. Scheduler Field Service slot text template
MB2-718 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 24
You implement the Unified Service Desk (USD). Which three of the following objects are events? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Realignwindow
B. BrowserDocumentComplete
C. DesktopReady
D. SessionClosing
E. FireEvent
Correct Answer: CDE

QUESTION 25
What are two examples of entitlement allotment options? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Number of Channels
B. Number of Products
C. Number of Cases
D. Number of Hours
MB2-718 exam Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 26
Which three statements regarding Voice of The Customer are true. Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. The survey definition is stored in Microsoft Azure. The survey response is temporarily stored in Azure Service Bus then later retrieved and stored in Microsoft Dynamics 365. Survey responses are deleted from Azure Service Bus after they are stored in Microsoft Dynamics 365.
B. Collateral, such as themes and images, can be stored as web resources and included in solutions.
C. Surveys can be included in solutions.
D. Each new environment requires the creation of configuration records.
E. Each survey contains three forms.
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 27
You are a customer service agent in a call center. AH customer service agents use Unified Service Desk (USD) to respond to calls.
You need to respond to two calls from two different customers at the same time. What should you do?
A. Create one session for each customer.
B. Create two sessions and use connections to create a relationship between them.
C. Create one session and add each customer to a separate section on the form.
D. Create one session and add each customer to the related customer sub grid.
MB2-718 dumps Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 28
You release an item from a queue.
What is the outcome?
A. The current routing rule is applied.
B. The value from the Worked By field is removed.
C. The record is returned to the originating queue.
D. The record is removed from the current queue and placed in the user’s personal queue.
Correct Answer: D

Exam Code: MB2-718
Exam Name: Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Customer Service
Q&As: 90

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QUESTION 1
You manage two solutions in separate Azure subscriptions.
You need to ensure that the two solutions can communicate on a private network.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer a
Select and Place:
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70-533 exam Correct Answer:
70-533 dumps
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Configure a VNet to VNet connection
There are 5 sections to plan and configure. Configure each section in the order listed below:
Note: In this procedure, we’ll walk you through connecting two virtual networks, VNet1 and VNet2. You’ll need to be comfortable with networking in order to substitute the IP address ranges that are compatible with your network design requirements. From an Azure virtual network, connecting to another Azure virtual network is the same as connecting to an on premises network via Site-to-site (S2S) VPN. This procedure primarily uses the Management Portal, however, you must use Microsoft Azure PowerShell cmdlets to connect the VPN gateways.
References:

QUESTION 2
Your company has a main office and several branch offices.
You create an Azure subscription and you deploy several virtual machines. The virtual machines are located in multiple subnets.
You need to provide remote access to the virtual machines to five users in each office by using a VPN connection. The remote access connections will not require a VPN device nor a public-facing IP address in order to work. Which three actions should you perform in sequence before you download the VPN client on each computer? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:
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Correct Answer:
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Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 3
You manage an Azure virtual network environment for a company that has an office in Boston. The company plans to open a new office location in Paris.
You must replicate the Boston virtual network environment in Paris. How should you complete the relevant Azure PowerShell commands? To answer, drag the appropriate Azure PowerShell segment to the correct location. Each Azure PowerShell segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You
may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
Select and Place:
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QUESTION 4
HOTSPOT
You manage a web application named Contoso that is accessible from the URL
You need to view a live stream of log events for the web application. How should you configure the Azure PowerShell command? To answer, select the appropriate Azure PowerShell segment from each list in the answer area.
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Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
References:

QUESTION 5
You are the Azure administrator for Contoso Ltd. You plan to use SharePoint Online to facilitate collaboration with a partner company named Fabrikam, Inc.
You have the following collaboration requirements:
You need to configure SharePoint Online.
Which configuration setting should you use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
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Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 6
You are the administrator for your company’s Azure environment.
A developer creates an application that needs to access resources in external systems.
The application will be deployed in the domain.
You need to use the Azure Command-Line Interface (CLI) to create a service principal.
How should you configure the command? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
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QUESTION 7
DRAG DROP
You plan to deploy a cloud service named contosoapp. The service includes a web role named contosowebrole. The web role has an endpoint named restrictedEndpoint. You need to allow access to restricted Endpoint only from your office machine using the IP address 145.34.67.82. Which values should you use within the service configuration file? To answer, drag the appropriate value to the correct location in the service configuration file. Each value may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
Select and Place:
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Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
* Rule with lower order are applied first.
* We can selectively permit or deny network traffic (in the management portal or from PowerShell) for a virtual machine input endpoint by creating rules that specify “permit” or “deny”. By default, when an endpoint is created, all traffic is permitted to the endpoint. So for that reason, it’s important to understand how to create permit/deny rules and place them in the proper order of precedence to gain granular control over the network traffic that you choose to allow to reach the virtual machine endpoint. Note that at the instant you add one or more “permit” ranges, you are denying all other ranges by default. Moving forward from the first permit range, only packets from the permitted IP range will be able to communicate with the virtual machine endpoint.

QUESTION 8
You are managing an Azure SQL Database.
You need to export the database to a BACPAC file and verify that the export completes successfully.
Which four Azure PowerShell cmdlets or scripts should you run in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate cmdlets or scripts from the list of cmdlets to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:
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Correct Answer:
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Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
References:

QUESTION 9
HOTSPOT
You manage a public-facing web application which allows authenticated users to upload and download large files. On the initial public page there is a promotional video. You plan to give users access to the site content and promotional video.In the table below, identify the access method that should be used for the anonymous and authenticated parts of the application. Make only one selection in each column.
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QUESTION 10
You manage an Azure environment that has 12 virtual machines (VMs). A set of VMs run a Web App that uses ASP.NET. The developer of the application must have access to ASP.NET metrics and Internet Information Services (IIS) logs from the VMs. You need to ensure that the metrics and logs are saved and provide the developer access to the data. For each requirement, which option should you use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
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QUESTION 11
You have an Azure Web App that uses the URL contoso.azurewebsites.net. The virtual IP address of the web app is subject to change. Users must be able to navigate to a custom domain name to access the Web App. You set up the DNS records for a custom domain at a third party registrar. You need to configure the web app to use the custom domain name. For each mapping, which DNS record type should you create? To answer, select the appropriate DNS record type from each list in the answer area.
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QUESTION 12
Your company network has two branch offices. Some employees work remotely, including at public locations. You manage an Azure environment that includes several virtual networks. All users require access to the virtual networks. In the table below, identify which secure cross-premise connectivity option is needed for each type of user. Make only one selection in each column.
Hot Area:
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Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
* A site-to-site VPN allows you to create a secure connection between your on-premises site and your virtual network.
* A point-to-site VPN also allows you to create a secure connection to your virtual network.
In a point-to-site configuration, the connection is configured individually on each client computer that you want to connect to the virtual network.
* Use a point-to-site configuration when:
You want connect to your virtual network from a remote location. For example, connecting from a coffee shop.
You have a site-to-site connection, but have some clients that need to connect from a remote location.

QUESTION 13
HOTSPOT
You manage an Azure Web Site for a consumer-product company.
The website runs in Standard mode on a single medium instance.
You expect increased traffic to the website due to an upcoming sale during a holiday weekend.
You need to ensure that the website performs optimally when user activity is at its highest.
Which option should you select? To answer, select the appropriate option in the answer area.
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Note: The ‘small’ instance is selected. This setting would be for the weekdays. Then you would select a larger instance for the ‘weekend’ schedule setting to cover the increased activity.
References:

Exam Code: 70-533
Exam Name: Implementing Microsoft Azure Infrastructure Solutions
Q&As: 236

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Exam 70-533 Implementing Microsoft Azure Infrastructure Solutions
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Question No : 14  You use Group Policy to standardize Internet Explorer settings on Windows 7 client computers. Users occasionally change the Internet Explorer settings on individual client computers. What should you do?
A. Use Group Policy to disable the Advanced tab of the Internet Explorer Properties dialog box.
B. Use the Group Policy Update utility to refresh Group Policy.
C. Enable Internet Explorer Maintenance Policy Processing in Group Policy.
D. Enable User Group Policy loopback processing mode.
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Answer: C
Explanation:
nternet Explorer Maintenance policy processing
This policy affects all policies that use the Internet Explorer Maintenance component of Group Policy, such as those in Windows Settings\Internet Explorer Maintenance. It overrides customized settings that the program implementing the Internet Explorer Maintenance policy set when it was installed. If you enable this policy, you can use the check boxes provided to change the options. Allow processing across a slow network connection updates the policies even when the update is being transmitted across a slow network connection, such as a telephone line. Updates across slow connections can cause significant delays. Do not apply during periodic background processing prevents the system from updating affected policies in the background while the computer is in use. Background updates can disrupt the user, cause a program to stop or operate abnormally, and, in rare cases, damage data.  Process even if the Group Policy objects have not changed updates and reapplies the policies even if the policies have not changed. Many policy implementations specify that they are updated only when changed. However, you might want to update unchanged policies, such as reapplying a desired setting in case a user has changed it.

Question No : 15
Your companys network includes client computers that run Windows 7. You design a wireless network to use Extensible Authentication ProtocolCTransport Level Security (EAP-TLS). The Network Policy Server has a certificate installed. Client computers are unable to connect to the wireless access points. You need to enable client computers to connect to the wireless network. What should you do?
A. Install a certificate in the Trusted Root Certification Authorities certificate store.
B. Configure client computers to use Protected Extensible Authentication ProtocolCTransport Layer Security (PEAP-TLS).
C. Configure client computers to use Protected Extensible Authentication Protocol Microsoft Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol version 2 (PEAP-MS-CHAP v2).
D. Install a certificate in the Third-Party Root Certification Authorities certificate store.
Answer: A
Explanation:

Question No : 16
Your company infrastructure includes a Windows Server 2008 R2 file server and 1,000 Windows 7 Enterprise client computers. The company wants to require a secure connection between client computers and the file server. You need to create and deploy a Group Policy object (GPO) that includes a rule for Windows Firewall with Advanced Security. What should you do?
A. Create an Isolation rule and specify Request authentication for inbound and outbound connections.
B. Create a Tunnel rule and specify Gateway-to-client as the tunnel type.
C. Create a Server-to-server rule and specify the endpoints as Any IP address and the file server IP address.
D. Create an Authentication exemption rule and add the file server IP address to the Exempt Computers list.
70-686 dumps Answer: C
Explanation:
The PDC emulator master also serves as the machine to which all domain controllers in the domain will synchronise their clocks. It, in turn, should be configured to synchronise to an external NTP time source

Question No : 17
You deploy Windows 7 to the computers that are used by your companys Web developers. All Web developer user accounts are in a single organizational unit (OU). Internet Explorer is blocking pop-up windows for multiple internal Web applications that are hosted on different servers. You need to use Group Policy to ensure that Internet Explorer does not block pop-up windows for internal Web applications. What should you do?
A. Enable Compatibility View in Internet Explorer.
B. Add each server to the Intranet zone.
C. Add each server to the Trusted Sites zone.
D. Set the default security setting in Internet Explorer to Medium.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Pop-up Blocker features
Pop-up Blocker is turned on by default. There are restrictions on the size and position of pop-up windows, regardless of the Pop-up Blocker setting. Pop-up windows cannot be opened larger than or outside the viewable desktop area. For more information, see “Windows Restrictions” in this document. When this functionality is enabled, automatic and background pop-up windows are blocked, but windows that are opened by a user click will still open in the usual manner. Note that sites in the Trusted Sites and Local Intranet zones do not have their pop-up windows blocked by default, as they are considered safe. This setting can be configured in the Security tab in Internet Options.
hints: internal web , so i choose intranet zones.
Local Intranet Zone
By default, the Local Intranet zone contains all network connections that were established
by using a Universal
Naming Convention (UNC) path, and Web sites that bypass the proxy server or have names that do not include periods (for example, http://local), as long as they are not assigned to either the Restricted Sites or Trusted Sites zone. The default security level for the Local Intranet zone is set to Medium (Internet Explorer 4) or Medium-low (Internet Explorer 5 and 6). Be aware that when you access a local area network (LAN) or an intranet share, or an intranet Web site by using an Internet Protocol (IP) address or by using a fully qualified domain name (FQDN), the share or Web site is identified as being in the Internet zone instead of in the Local intranet zone.
Trusted Sites Zone
This zone contains Web sites that you trust as safe (such as Web sites that are on your organization’s intranet or that come from established companies in whom you have confidence). When you add a Web site to the Trusted Sites zone, you believe that files you download or that you run from the Web site will not damage your computer or data. By default, there are no Web sites that are assigned to the Trusted Sites zone, and the security level is set to Low.

Question No : 18
Your network has client computers that run Windows 7 Enterprise. You plan to deploy new administrative template policy settings by using custom ADMX files. You create the custom ADMX files, and you save them on a network share. You start Group Policy Object Editor (GPO Editor). The custom ADMX files are not available in the Group Policy editing session. You need to ensure that the ADMX files are available to the GPO Editor. What should you do?
A. Copy the ADMX files to the % systemroot% \ inf folder on each Windows 7 computer, and then restart the GPO Editor.
B. Set the network share permissions to grant all Windows 7 users Read access for the share.
C. Copy the ADMX files to the %systemroot% \ system32 folder on each Windows 7 computer, and then restart the GPO Editor.
D. Copy the ADMX files to the central store, and then restart the GPO Editor.
70-686 pdf Answer: D
Explanation:
To take advantage of the benefits of .admx files, you must create a Central Store in the SYSVOL folder on a domain controller. The Central Store is a file location that is checked by the Group Policy tools. The Group Policy tools use any .admx files that are in the Central Store. The files that are in the Central Store are later replicated to all domain controllers in the domain.

Question No : 19 DRAG DROP
You are planning to deploy Windows 7 Enterprise to all of your company’s client
computers.
You have the following requirements:
• Create two custom partitions on each client computer’s hard disk, one for the operating system and the other for data.
• Automatically create the partitions during Windows Setup.
You need to design an image that meets the requirements. Which two actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order)
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Question No : 20 DRAG DROP
All client computers in an organization run Windows 7 and are joined to an Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain. All user objects are stored in an Organizational Unit (OU) named Contoso Users. All computer objects are stored in an OU named Contoso Computers. You need to add a proxy server to the Microsoft Internet Explorer 9 configuration on all client computers by using the least administrative effort. Which three actions should you perform? (To answer, move the appropriate action from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)
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Question No : 9 – (Topic 1)  You are reviewing the design of an existing fact table named factSales, which is loaded from a SQL Azure database by a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package each day. The fact table has approximately 1 billion rows and is dimensioned by product, sales
date, and sales time of day.
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The database administrator is concerned about the growth of the database. Users report poor reporting performance against this database. Reporting requirements have recently changed and the only remaining report that uses this fact table reports sales by product name, sale month, and sale year. No other reports will be created against this table. You need to reduce the report processing time and minimize the growth of the database.
What should you do?
A. Partition the table by product type.
B. Create a view over the fact table to aggregate sales by month.
C. Change the granularity of the fact table to month.
D. Create an indexed view over the fact table to aggregate sales by month.
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Answer: C
Question No : 10 – (Topic 1)  You are designing a data warehouse with two fact tables. The first table contains sales per month and the second table contains orders per day. Referential integrity must be enforced declaratively. You need to design a solution that can join a single time dimension to both fact tables. What should you do?
A. Create a time mapping table.
B. Change the level of granularity in both fact tables to be the same.
C. Merge the fact tables.
D. Create a view on the sales table.
Answer: C
Question No : 11 – (Topic 1) You are designing a data warehouse for a software distribution business that stores sales by software title. It stores sales targets by software category. Software titles are classified into subcategories and categories. Each software title is included in only a single software subcategory, and each subcategory is included in only a single category. The data warehouse will be a data source for an Analysis Services cube. The data warehouse contains two fact tables:
factSales, used to record daily sales by software title factTarget, used to record the monthly sales targets by software category Reports must be developed against the warehouse that reports sales by software title, category and subcategory, and sales targets. You need to design the software title dimension. The solution should use as few tables as possible while supporting all the requirements. What should you do?
A. Create three software tables, dimSoftware, dimSoftwareCategory, and dimSoftwareSubcategory and a fourth bridge table that joins software titles to their
appropriate category and subcategory table records with foreign key constraints. Direct the cube developer to use key granularity attributes.
B. Create three software tables, dimSoftware, dimSoftwareCategory, and dimSoftwareSubcategory. Connect factSales to all three tables and connect factTarget to dimSoftwareCategory with foreign key constraints. Direct the cube developer to use key granularity attributes.
C. Create one table, dimSoftware, which contains Software Detail, Category, and Subcategory columns. Connect factSales to dimSoftware with a foreign key constraint. Direct the cube developer to use a non-key granularity attribute for factTarget.
D. Create two tables, dimSoftware and dimSoftwareCategory. Connect factSales to dimSoftware and factTarget to dimSoftwareCategory with foreign key constraints. Direct the cube developer to use key granularity attributes.
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Answer: C
Question No : 12 – (Topic 1)  You are designing a data warehouse hosted on SQL Azure. The data warehouse currently includes the dimUser and dimDistrict dimension tables and the factSales fact table. The dimUser table contains records for each user permitted to run reports against the warehouse; and the dimDistrict table contains information about sales districts. The system is accessed by users from certain districts, as well as by area supervisors and
users from the corporate headquarters. You need to design a table structure to ensure that certain users can see sales data for only certain districts. Some users must be permitted to see sales data from multiple districts.
What should you do?
A. Add a district column to the dimUser table.
B. Partition the factSales table on the district column.
C. Create a userDistrict table that contains primary key columns from the dimUser and dimDistrict tables.
D. For each district, create a view of the factSales table that includes a WHERE clause for the district.
Answer: C
Question No : 13 – (Topic 1)  You are reviewing the design of a customer dimension table in an existing data warehouse hosted on SQL Azure. The current dimension design does not allow the retention of historical changes to customer attributes such as Postcode. You need to redesign the dimension to enable the full historical reporting of changes to multiple customer attributes including Postcode. What should you do?
A. Add StartDate and EndDate columns to the customer dimension.
B. Add an IsCurrent column to the customer dimension.
C. Enable Snapshot Isolation on the data warehouse.
D. Add CurrentValue and PreviousValue columns to the customer dimension.
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Answer: A
You are implementing the indexing strategy for a fact table in a data warehouse. The fact table is named Quotes. The table has no indexes and consists of seven columns:
[ID]
[QuoteDate]
[Open]
[Close]
[High]
[Low]
[Volume]
Each of the following queries must be able to use a columnstore index:
SELECT AVG ([Close]) AS [AverageClose] FROM Quotes WHERE [QuoteDate]
BETWEEN ‘20100101’ AND ‘20101231’.
SELECT AVG([High] – [Low]) AS [AverageRange] FROM Quotes WHERE
[QuoteDate] BETWEEN ‘20100101’ AND ‘20101231’.
SELECT SUM([Volume]) AS [SumVolume] FROM Quotes WHERE [QuoteDate]
BETWEEN ‘20100101’ AND ‘20101231’.
Question No : 14 – (Topic 1)  You need to ensure that the indexing strategy meets the requirements. The strategy must also minimize the number and size of the indexes. What should you do?
A. Create one columnstore index that contains [ID], [Close], [High], [Low], [Volume], and [QuoteDate].
B. Create three coiumnstore indexes:
One containing [QuoteDate] and [Close]
One containing [QuoteDate], [High], and [Low]
One containing [QuoteDate] and [Volume]
C. Create one columnstore index that contains [QuoteDate], [Close], [High], [Low], and [Volume].
D. Create two columnstore indexes:
One containing [ID], [QuoteDate], [Volume], and [Close]
One containing [ID], [QuoteDate], [High], and [Low]
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 70-638
Exam Name: TS:MS Office Communications Server 2007, Configuring
Q&As: 123

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70-638 dumps

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QUESTION NO: 65
You’ve been asked to look at out-sourcing and off-shoring the Service Desk Which of these
options is the most critical to your evaluation?
A. Sarbanes Oxley
B. ITIL awareness and compliance
C. The cost of management
D. Removing the need to manage people and problems
70-638 exam Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 66
Which of these options would be an advantage you could confidently highlight when
recommending outsourcing to your organization?
A. It will facilitate improved staffing flexibility
B. It will eliminate staffing problems
C. It will improve the profitability of the organization
D. It will improve service performance
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 67
Which of these options best describes one of the recognised disadvantages of outsourcing?
A. Responsibility for day-to-day operations is lost
B. The quality of service received is reduced
C. The volume of Incidents and Service requests increases
D. Costs may be higher if the service supply chain is not adequately defined
70-638 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 68
What is the best definition of in-sourcing?
A. Using a 3rd party to provide services previously provided by your own staff
B. Bringing a previously out-sourced service back to your organisation
C. Bringing a 3rd party onto your premises to deliver a service
D. Bringing contractors onto your premises to deliver certain services
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 69
As part of an investigation into outsourcing, which of the following would be a major consideration
for the SLA?
A. Legal terms and covenants
B. Management policies
C. SACM details
D. Reviews and their frequency
70-638 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 70
If you are outsourcing your support operation, which of these Service Level issues should be
considered?
A. Clarity on penalties and performance levels
B. Internal end-to-end OLAs and penalties
C. The salaries of staff to be transferred
D. The capabilities of the outsourcers ITSM system
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 71
Which of these options is the best description of right-sourcing?
A. A number of providers in competition for out-sourced services
B. A single provider delivering all of an organizations services
C. A number of providers delivering all of an organizations services
D. A number of providers providing some of an organizations services
70-638 vce Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 72
Which of these options would you consider to be the most important to support right-sourcing?
A. Appropriate premises
B. Contract staff
C. Geographic location
D. Processes and procedures
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 73
Which of these options is a benefit of right-sourcing?
A. It enables the utilisation of effective external options
B. It enables the correct cultural mix within the workplace
C. It eliminates the culture of waste in the organisation
D. It meets team objectives by improving IT services
70-638 exam Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 74
Your manager has asked you to undertake a PR exercise to promote the Service Desk to the
business; which of these options would best describe your main objectives for this exercise?
A. Educating users on the value of the Service Desk and the explaining the content of the SLA
B. Increasing the visibility of the Service Desk and clarifying user responsibilities and benefits
C. Raising user awareness of the Service Desks opening hours and providing job descriptions
D. Dictating user behaviour and improving user satisfaction
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 75
You are in the process of developing a programme of activities to promote the Service Desk. You
believe this is a very important aspect of your role and that all promotional activities should meet
your objectives. Which of these options describes one of those objectives?
A. Managing your managers expectations
B. Managing your teams expectations
C. Managing your users expectations
D. Managing your own expectations
70-638 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 76
You are planning a promotion campaign to raise customer awareness of the Service Desk and the
benefits it brings to the business. Which of these activities would be most effective in doing this?
A. Offer customers the opportunity to experience life on the Service Desk
B. Provide induction training and team-building away-days
C. Give all customers a stress ball with Service Desk contact details printed on it
D. Schedule your staff to floor walk at regular intervals
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 77
Which of these options is a key component of a marketing programme?
A. Defining the message and communicating to the relevant audience
B. Identifying the key customers
C. Targeting messages to all IT
D. Communication to all stakeholders in a similar manner
70-638 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 78
Identify a key component of a good internal communications programme
A. Feedback mechanisms to test SLAs
B. Cleverly crafted and worded documents
C. Clarity on the messages to be communicated
D. Use of promotional materials mugs, mouse mats etc.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 79
Which of the following options would NOT be essential in helping you to manage your
stakeholders expectations?
A. Specifying individual service feedback mechanisms
B. Creating a Service Catalogue with service offerings clearly defined
C. Defining service levels that balance resources and capabilities with business requirements
D. Offering multiple channels to provide information about the Service Desk
70-638 vce Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 80
What steps should you take to manage the service expectations of stakeholders?
A. Use KPIs to calculate service ROI
B. Build SLAs based on IT measures
C. Build a catalogue of systems for all customers
D. Use customer surveys to identify business needs
Answer: D

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