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Exam Code: 70-417
Exam Name: Upgrading Your Skills to MCSA Windows Server 2012
Q&As: 427

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QUESTION 20
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains two member servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2012 R2. You log on to Server1. You need to retrieve the IP configurations of Server2.
Which command should you run from Server1?
A. winrm get server2
B. dsquery · -scope base -attrip/server2
C. winrs -r:server2ipconfig
D. ipconfig> server2.ip
70-417 exam 
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Windows Remote Management allows you to manage and execute programs remotely References: Exam Ref 70-410: Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012: Objective 4.3: Deploy and Configure the DNS service, Chapter 4 Deploying and Configuring core network services.
QUESTION 21
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1. Server1 has the DHCP Server server role and the Network Policy Server role service installed. Server1 contains three non-overlapping scopes named Scope1, Scope2, and Scope3. Server1 currently provides the same Network Access Protection (NAP) settings to the three scopes. You modify the settings of Scope1 as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
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You need to configure Server1 to provide unique NAP enforcement settings to the NAP non- compliant DHCP clients from Scope1.
What should you create?
A. A network policy that has the MS-Service Class condition
B. A connection request policy that has the Service Type condition
C. A network policy that has the Identity Type condition
D. A connection request policy that has the Identity Type condition
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A. Restricts the policy to clients that have received an IP address from a DHCP scope that matches the specified DHCP profile name. This condition is used only when you are deploying NAP with the DHCP enforcement method. To use the MS-Service Class attribute, in Specify the profile name that identifies your DHCP scope, type the name of an existing DHCP profile.
QUESTION 22
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the Network Policy Server role service installed. You plan to configure Server1 as a Network Access Protection (NAP) health policy server for VPN enforcement by using the Configure NAPwizard.  You need to ensure that you can configure the VPN enforcement method on Server1 successfully. What should you install on Server1 before you run the Configure NAP wizard?
A. A computer certificate
B. A system health validator (SHV)
C. The Remote Access server role
D. The Host Credential Authorization Protocol (HCAP)
70-417 dumps 
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 23
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains client computers that run Either Windows XP, Windows 7, or Windows 8. Network Policy Server (NPS) is deployed to the domain. You plan to create a system health validator (SHV). You need to identify which policy settings can be applied to all of the computers. Which three policy settings should you identify? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose three.)
A. Automatic updating is enabled.
B. A firewall is enabled for all network connections.
C. An antispyware application is on.
D. Antispyware is up to date.
E. Antivirus is up to date.
Correct Answer: ABE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 24
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 is configured as a Network Policy Server (NPS) server and as a DHCP server. The network contains two subnets named Subnet1 and Subnet2. Server1 has a DHCP scope for each subnet. You need to ensure that noncompliant computers on Subnet1 receive different network policies than noncompliant computers on Subnet2.
Which two settings should you configure? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. The NAS Port Type constraints
B. The Health Policies conditions
C. The Called Station ID constraints

D. The NAP-Capable Computers conditions
E. The MS-Service Class conditions
70-417 pdf 
Correct Answer: DE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
C: The NAP health policy server uses the NPS role service with configured health policies and system health validators (SHVs) to evaluate client health based on administrator-defined requirements. Based on results of this evaluation, NPS instructs the DHCP server to provide full access to compliant NAP client computers and to restrict access to client computers that are noncompliant with health requirements. D: If policies are filtered by DHCP scope, then MS-Service Class is configured in policy conditions.

QUESTION 25
A BlackBerry device user lost her BlackBerry device. What should a system administrator do to prevent her confidential data from being accessed by another person? (Choose one.)
A. Delete her BlackBerry device user account in BlackBerry Manager.
B. In the IT Admin Tasks pane, select Erase Data and Disable Handheld.
C. Contact the service provider and request that service on the BlackBerry device be terminated.
D. In BlackBerry Manager, right-click on the username and choose Wipe Handheld.
E. Advise the BlackBerry device user to change her email account password immediately.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 70-410
Exam Name: Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012
Q&As: 503

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QUESTION 39
You have a domain controller named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2 and has the DNS Server server role installed. Server1 hosts a DNS zone named contoso.com and a GlobalNames zone. You discover that the root hints were removed from Server1. You need to view the default root hints of Server1. What should you do?
A. From Event Viewer, open the DNS Manager log.
B. From Notepad, open the Cache.dns file.
C. From Windows Powershell, run Get-DNSServerDiagnostics.
D. From nslookup, run root server1.contoso.com
70-410 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 40
Your company has a main office and two branch offices. The offices connect to each other by using a WAN link. In the main office, you have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 is configured to use an IPv4 address only. You need to assign an IPv6 address to Server1. The IP address must be private and routable. Which IPv6 address should you assign to Server1?
A. fe80:ab32:145c::32cc:401b
B. ff00:3fff:65df:145c:dca8::82a4
C. 2001:ab32:145c::32cc:401b
D. fd00:ab32:14:ad88:ac:58:abc2:4
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 41
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All client computers run Windows 8.
You deploy a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You install a new client-server application named App1 on Server1 and on the client computers. The client computers must use TCP port 6444 to connect to App1 on Server1. Server1 publishes the information of App1 to an intranet server named Server2 by using TCP port 3080. You need to ensure that all of the client computers can connect to App1. The solution must ensure that the application can connect to Server2.
Which Windows Firewall rule should you create on Server1?
A. an inbound rule to allow a connection to TCP port 3080
B. an outbound rule to allow a connection to TCP port 3080
C. an outbound rule to allow a connection to TCP port 6444
D. an inbound rule to allow a connection to TCP port 6444
70-410 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 42
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All servers run Windows Server 2012 R2.
The domain contains a server named Server1. You install the Windows PowerShell Web Access gateway on Server1. You need to provide administrators with the ability to manage the servers in the domain by using the Windows PowerShell Web Access gateway.
Which two cmdlets should you run on Server1? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Set-WSManQuickConfig
B. Set-WSManInstance
C. Add-PswaAuthorizationRule
D. Set-BCAuthentication
E. Install-PswaWebApplication
Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 43
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All user accounts in the sales department reside in an organizational unit (OU) named OU1. You have a Group Policy object (GPO) named GPO1. GPO1 is used to deploy a logon script to all of the users in the sales department. You discover that the logon script does not run when the sales users log on to their computers. You open Group Policy Management as shown in the exhibit. You need to ensure that the logon script in GPO1 is applied to the sales users. What should you do?
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A. Enforce GPO1.
B. Modify the link order of GPO1.
C. Modify the Delegation settings of GPO1.
D. Enable the link of GPO1.
70-410 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 44
You have a server named Server 1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server 1 has the Hyper-V server role installed.
You have fixed-size VHD named Files.vhd.
You need to make the contents in Files.vhd available to several virtual machines. The solution must meet the following requirements:
– Ensure that if the contents are changed on any virtual machine, the changes are not reflected on the other virtual machines.
– Minimize the amount of disk space used.
What should you do?
A. Create a fixed-size VHDX. Transfer the information from Files.vhd to the new VHDX file.
B. Convert Files.vhd to a dynamically expanding VHD?
C. Create a dynamically expanding VHDX. Transfer the information from Files.vhd to the new VHDX file.
D. Create differencing VHDs that use Files.vhd as the parent disk.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 45
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com. The domain contains several thousand member servers that run Windows Server 2012 R2. All of the computer accounts for the member servers are in an organizational unit (OU) named ServersAccounts. Servers are restarted only occasionally.
You need to identify which servers were restarted during the last two days.
What should you do?
A. Run dsquery computer and specify the -stalepwd parameter
B. Run dsquery server and specify the -o parameter.
C. Run Get-ADComputer and specify the lastlogon property.
D. Run Get-ADComputer and specify the SearchScope parameter
70-410 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 46
Your network contains three servers that run Windows Server 2012 R2. The servers are configured as shown in the following table (click Exhibit). Server3 is
configured to obtain an IP address automatically.
You need to ensure that Server3 only receives an IP address from Server1. The IP address must always be the same.
Which two tasks should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

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A. Create an exclusion on Server1.
B. Create a filter on Server1.

C. Create a reservation on Server2
D. Create a reservation on Server1
E. Create a filter on Server2.
70-410 exam Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 47
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a domain controller named DC1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2
and a client computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 8. DC1 is configured as a DHCP server as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.) Computer1
is configured to obtain an IP address automatically. You need to ensure that Computer1 can receive an IP address from DC1.
What should you do?

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A. Disable the Allow filters.
B. Disable the Deny filters
C. Activate Scope [10.1.1.0] Contoso.com.
D. Authorize dc1.contoso.com.
Correct Answer: D

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Exam Name: Upgrading Your Skills to MCSA Windows 8.1
Q&As: 126

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QUESTION 1
A company has an Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain. All client computers run Windows 8 and are members of the domain. Client computers maintain a list of sites in the Internet Explorer Restricted Sites security zone. Users of one client computer are able to download and install an application from a site within the Restricted Sites zone. You need to ensure that users of the computer can install applications only from sites that are not in the Restricted Sites zone. What should you do?
A. Run the Set-ExecutionPolicy Windows PowerShell cmdlet.
B. Configure the Software Restriction Policy settings in the local Group Policy of the computer.
C. Add the blocked application as a software restriction policy to the GPO that configures AppLocker.
D. Run the Get-AppLockerPolicy Windows PowerShell cmdlet.
E. Add the blocked application as an additional AppLocker rule to the GPO that configures AppLocker.
70-689 exam Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Only Software Restriction policy allows for the control of applications from a network zone; AppLockerdoes not.
QUESTION 2
A company has 100 client computers that run Windows Vista. The company uses several custom applications.
The company plans to replace the Windows Vista computers with new computers that run Windows 8. You need to establish which of the currently installed applications will work on Windows 8. What should you do?
A. Install and run the Microsoft Deployment Toolkit.
B. Install and run the Windows App Certification Kit.
C. Install and run the Windows Application Compatibility Toolkit.
D. Install and run the Microsoft Assessment and Planning Toolkit.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The Microsoft® Application Compatibility Toolkit (ACT) helps you determine whether the applications, devices, and computers in your organization are compatible with versions of the Windows® operating system. By using ACT, you can obtain compatibility information from Microsoft and software vendors, identify compatibility issues within your own organization, and share compatibility ratings with other ACT users. The tools in ACT help you analyze and mitigate compatibility issues before you deploy a version of Windows to your organization.
QUESTION 3
A company has an Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain with one physical domain controller. All client computers run Windows 8. A client computer hosts a Windows 8 virtual machine (VM) test environment. The VMs are connected to a private virtual switch that is configured as shown in the Virtual Switch Manager exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.) 70-689 dumps

The VMs are unable to connect to the domain controller. You have the following requirements:
Configure the test environment to allow VMs to communicate with the domain controller.
Ensure that the VMs can communicate with other VMs in the test environment when the domain controller is unavailable.
You need to meet the requirements. What should you do first?
A. Change the connection type of the private virtual switch to Internal only.
B. Create a new virtual switch with a Private Network connection type.
C. Create a new virtual switch with an ExternalNetwork connection type.
D. Create a new virtual switch with an Internal Network connection type.
70-689 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
A company has client computers that run Windows 8. You attempt to roll back a driver for a specific device on a client computer. The Roll Back Driver button is unavailable in Device Manager. You need to roll back the driver to the previous version. What should you do first?
A. Disable driver signature enforcement.
B. Run Device Manager as an administrator.
C. In the local Group Policy, modify the device installation restrictions.
D. In the system properties for hardware, modify the device installation settings.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
If there’s no previous version of the driver installed for the selected device, the Roll Back Driver button will be unavailable even if you are logged on as an
administrator.
QUESTION 5
You manage computers that run Windows 8.
You plan to install a desktop app named App1 on one of the client computers.
You need to install the app without any user interaction and without displaying a progress bar.
Which command should you run?
A. msiexec /i app1.msi /qb
B. msiexec /i app1.msi /qn
C. msiexec /x app1.msi /qb
D. msiexec /x app1.msi /qn
70-689 pdf Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
/i Installs or configures a product.
/x Uninstall a product,
/qn Displays no user interface.
/qb Displays a basic user interface.
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc759262(v=ws.10).aspx
QUESTION 6
You update the video card driver on a portable computer that runs Windows 8. When a user connects the portable computer to an external monitor, the external monitor duplicates the display on the portable computer screen. You need to ensure that the user can display additional desktop space on the external monitor. What should you do?
A. Run the DisplaySwitch /extend command.
B. Start the computer from the Windows 8 installation media and perform a system image recovery.
C. Run the sfc /scannow command.
D. Roll back the video card driver to the previous version.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
DisplaySwitch.exe /internal
DisplaySwitch.exe /external Use this command to switch to the external display only.
DisplaySwitch.exe /clone Duplicates the primary display
DisplaySwitch.exe /extend Expands your Desktop to the secondary display
QUESTION 7
A company has an Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain. All client computers run Windows 7. You plan to upgrade the client computers to Windows 8 Pro. You need to choose the methods that do not require the manual entry of a product key during the upgrade. Which two methods should you choose? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)
A. Use the Windows 8 online upgrade tool.
B. Use Group Policy to assign the Windows 8 installation file to the client computers.
C. Use the Microsoft Deployment Toolkit.
D. Extract the contents of the Windows 8 .iso image file to a new shared folder and run the setup program from that folder.
70-689 vce Correct Answer: CD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
An organization has client computers that run Windows 7. You upgrade the client computers to Windows 8 without migrating the local user profiles. You install the Windows Assessment and Deployment Kit (ADK) in the environment. You need to migrate the user profiles from the Windows 7 installation to the Windows 8 installation. What should you do first on each client computer?
A. Copy the Default Profile to a folder on drive C.
B. Run Windows Easy Transfer and select the user profile to migrate.
C. Run the scanstate command.
D. Run the loadstate command.
E. Run the ImageX command.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

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Exam Code: 210-260
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Network Security
Q&As: 310

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QUESTION 50
What are purposes of the Internet Key Exchange in an IPsec VPN? (Choose two.)
A. The Internet Key Exchange protocol establishes security associations
B. The Internet Key Exchange protocol provides data confidentiality
C. The Internet Key Exchange protocol provides replay detection
D. The Internet Key Exchange protocol is responsible for mutual authentication
210-260 exam 
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 51
A data breach has occurred and your company database has been copied. Which security principle has
been violated?
A. confidentiality
B. availability
C. access
D. control
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 52
A proxy firewall protects against which type of attack?
A. cross-site scripting attack
B. worm traffic
C. port scanning
D. DDoS attacks
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Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 53
What hash type does Cisco use to validate the integrity of downloaded images?
A. Sha1
B. Sha2
C. Md5
D. Md1

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 54
What VPN feature allows traffic to exit the security appliance through the same interface it entered?
A. hairpinning
B. NAT
C. NAT traversal
D. split tunneling
210-260 pdf 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 55
What is the suggested order of an exercise session?
A. Stretch, warm-up, endurance phase, cool-down
B. Warm-up, endurance phase, cool-down, stretch
C. Stretch, endurance phase, warm-up, cool-down
D. Warm-up, endurance phase, stretch, cool-down
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 56
What does it mean if a specific activity is contraindicated?
A. Perform less-intensively than normal
B. Do not perform it as often
C. Perform it slower than normal
D. Do not perform at all
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Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 57
Which of the following statements is true regarding exercise for the prepubescent child?
A. Children are less tolerant of heat because of a higher threshold for sweating.
B. Since children are anatomically immature, they should not participate in any form of resistance training
exercise.
C. Because of the lack of development of the epiphyseal growth plates, children should not participate in
any form of endurance training.
D. Both B and C are true
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 58
Using the Heart Rate Reserve method, what is the target heart rate for a 40 year-old man with a resting
heart rate of 70 beats/min, exercising at an intensity of 65%?
A. 110 beats/min
B. 129 beats/min
C. 142 beats/min
D. 180 beats/min
210-260 exam 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 59
On Friday, your trader lends GBP 10,000,000.00 overnight at 0.60%. The instructions are for repayment of
principal + interest. How much would you expect to be repaid?
A. GBP 10,000,500.00

B. GBP 10,000,164.38
C. GBP 10,000,493.15
D. GBP 10,000,166.67
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 60
A Certificate of Deposit (CD) was issued at 2.50% which you now purchase at 1.75%. What would you
expect to pay?
A. The original face value of the CD
B. More than the originally paid value
C. Less than the originally paid value
D. There is too little information to decide
210-260 dumps 
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 61
Internationally, USD FRAs are settled with reference to which market rate?
A. LIBOR
B. FEDFUNDS
C. LIBID
D. EURIBOR
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 62
EURIBOR is a:
A. Daily fixing of EUR interest rates within the EMU zone
B. Daily fixing of EUR interest rates in London
C. A rate used for the settlement of USD FRAs between European counterparties
D. The official successor to LIBOR rates
210-260 pdf 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 63
An interest rate CAP can be defined as:
A. A series of American call options on FRAs
B. A series of European call options on FRAs
C. A series of American put options on FRAs
D. A series of European put options on FRAs
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 64
As to futures contracts:
A. The maintenance margin is a predetermined fraction of initial margin
B. The initial margin is a predetermined fraction of maintenance margin
C. The maintenance margin represents the brokerage costs
D. The maintenance margin represents management fees
210-260 vce 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 65
Which of these statements is correct?
A. The strike price of a Bermudan option is an average.
B. A Bermudan option can be exercised only on a few specific dates prior to expiration.
C. A Bermudan option can be exercised at any time before its maturity date.
D. A Bermudan option can be exercised only at maturity.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 66
You bought a 6×9 EUR 8,000,000.00 FRA at 0.75%. Settlement is now due and 3 months (90 days)
EURIBOR is 0.25%. What amount do you pay or receive?
A. Pay EUR 10,000.00
B. Receive EUR 10,000.00
C. Pay EUR 9,993.75
D. Receive EUR 9,993.75
210-260 exam 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 67
What deals are usually associated with a collar?
A. A purchase of a cap and a sale of a cap at higher reference rate
B. A purchase of a floor and a sale of a cap or vice versa
C. A purchase of a cap and a purchase of a floor
D. A purchase of a step-up cap and a sale of a step-down floor
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 68
Which of the following is true about interest rate swaps (IRS)?
A. The fixed rate and the floating rate payers know the cash value of their payments at the outset
B. There is exchange of principal at the start and at the end of the swap
C. Payment netting is only allowed through a third party
D. The notional amount of the swap is generally not exchanged between counterparties
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Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 69
When is the settlement amount of a FRA normally payable?
A. At the beginning of the forward period
B. On the trade date
C. On the maturity (final) date
D. At any time before the contract’s maturity date
Correct Answer: A

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Exam Code: 1Z0-808
Exam Name: Java SE 8 Programmer I
Q&As: 236

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QUESTION 11
Given the code fragment:
1Z0-808 dumps

What is the result?
A. 10 8 6 4 2 0
B. 10 8 6 4 2
C. AnArithmeticException is thrown at runtime
D. The program goes into an infinite loop outputting: 10 8 6 4 2 0. . .
E. Compilation fails
1Z0-808 exam Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 12
Given:

1Z0-808 dumps

Which code fragment, when inserted at line 14, enables the code to print Mike Found?
A. int f = ps.indexOf {new patient (“Mike”)};
B. int f = ps.indexOf (patient(“Mike”));
C. patient p = new Patient (“Mike”);
int f = pas.indexOf(P)
D. int f = ps.indexOf(p2);
1Z0-808 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 13
Given:
1Z0-808 dumps

Which code fragment should you use at line n1 to instantiate the dvd object successfully?
1Z0-808 dumps

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
1Z0-808 pdf Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 14
Given the for loop construct:
for ( expr1 ; expr2 ; expr3 ) {
statement;
}
Which two statements are true?
A. This is not the only valid for loop construct; there exits another form of for loop constructor.
B. The expression expr1 is optional. it initializes the loop and is evaluated once, as the loop begin.
C. When expr2 evaluates to false, the loop terminates. It is evaluated only after each iteration through the loop.
D. The expression expr3 must be present. It is evaluated after each iteration through the loop.
1Z0-808 vce Correct Answer: BC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The for statement have this forms:
for (init-stmt; condition; next-stmt) {
body
}
There are three clauses in the for statement.
The init-stmt statement is done before the loop is started, usually to initialize an iteration variable.
The condition expression is tested before each time the loop is done. The loop isn’t executed if the boolean expression is false (the same as the while loop). The
next-stmt statement is done after the body is executed. It typically increments an iteration variable.
QUESTION 15
Which three statements are true about the structure of a Java class?
A. A class can have only one private constructor.
B. A method can have the same name as a field.
C. A class can have overloaded static methods.
D. A public class must have a main method.
E. The methods are mandatory components of a class.
F. The fields need not be initialized before use.
1Z0-808 exam Correct Answer: ABC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: A: Private constructors prevent a class from being explicitly instantiated by its callers.
If the programmer does not provide a constructor for a class, then the system will always provide a default, public no-argument constructor. To disable this default
constructor, simply add a private no-argument constructor to the class. This private constructor may be empty.
B: The following works fine:
int cake() {
int cake=0;
return (1);
}
C: We can overload static method in Java. In terms of method overloading static method are just like normal methods and in order to overload static method you
need to provide another static method with same name but different method signature.
Incorrect:
Not D: Only a public class in an application need to have a main method.
Not E:
Example:
class A
{
public string something;
public int a;

}
Q: What do you call classes without methods?
Most of the time: An anti pattern.
Why? Because it faciliates procedural programming with “Operator” classes and data structures. You separate data and behaviour which isn’t exactly good OOP.
Often times: A DTO (Data Transfer Object)
Read only datastructures meant to exchange data, derived from a business/domain object.
Sometimes: Just data structure.
Well sometimes, you just gotta have those structures to hold data that is just plain and simple and has no operations on it.
Not F: Fields need to be initialtized. If not the code will not compile.
Example:
Uncompilable source code – variable x might not have been initialized
QUESTION 16
View the exhibit.
1Z0-808 dumps

Given the code fragment:
1Z0-808 dumps

Which change enables the code to print the following?
James age: 20
Williams age: 32
A. Replacing line 5 with public static void main (String [] args) throws MissingInfoException, AgeOutofRangeException {
B. Replacing line 5 with public static void main (String [] args) throws.Exception {
C. Enclosing line 6 and line 7 within a try block and adding:
catch(Exception e1) { //code goes here}
catch (missingInfoException e2) { //code goes here} catch (AgeOutofRangeException e3) {//code goes here}
D. Enclosing line 6 and line 7 within a try block and adding:
catch (missingInfoException e2) { //code goes here} catch (AgeOutofRangeException e3) {//code goes here}
1Z0-808 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 17
Given the code fragment:
public static void main(String[] args) {
int iArray[] = {65, 68, 69};

iArray[2] = iArray[0];
iArray[0] = iArray[1];
iArray[1] = iArray[2];
for (int element : iArray) {
System.out.print(element + ” “);
}
A. 68, 65, 69
B. 68, 65, 65
C. 65, 68, 65
D. 65, 68, 69
E. Compilation fails
1Z0-808 pdf Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 18
Given:
public class Test {
public static void main(String[] args) {
int day = 1;
switch (day) {
case “7”: System.out.print(“Uranus”);
case “6”: System.out.print(“Saturn”);
case “1”: System.out.print(“Mercury”);
case “2”: System.out.print(“Venus”);
case “3”: System.out.print(“Earth”);
case “4”: System.out.print(“Mars”);
case “5”: System.out.print(“Jupiter”);
} } }
Which two modifications, made independently, enable the code to compile and run?
A. Adding a break statement after each print statement
B. Adding a default section within the switch code-block
C. Changing the string literals in each case label to integer
D. Changing the type of the variable day to String
E. Arranging the case labels in ascending order
1Z0-808 vce Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The following will work fine:
public class Test {
public static void main(String[] args) {
int day = 1;
switch (day) {
case 7: System.out.print(“Uranus”); break;
case 6: System.out.print(“Saturn”); break;
case 1: System.out.print(“Mercury”); break;
case 2: System.out.print(“Venus”); break;
case 3: System.out.print(“Earth”); break;
case 4: System.out.print(“Mars”); break;
case 5: System.out.print(“Jupiter”); break;
}}}

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Exam Code: 70-357
Exam Name: Developing Mobile Apps
Q&As: 66

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QUESTION 28
Alan, a widower, is a retired executive with substantial assets. He wishes to provide for the financial
security of his two grandchildren since their father, Alan’s son, has always managed money poorly. This
year Alan would like each grandchild to receive a substantial gift. Which of the following statements
concerning the generation-skipping transfer tax (GSTT) on these gifts is (are) correct?
– Federal estate or gift tax will not be imposed if the gift is otherwise subject to the GSTT.
– Assuming no prior gifts, Alan can gift a cumulative total of (not including the annual exclusion) $1.5
million to his grandchildren without the imposition of the GSTT.
A. 2 only
B. Neither 1 nor 2
C. Both 1 and 2
D. 1 only
70-357 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 29
Which of the following statements concerning marital transfers to a non-U.S. citizen spouse is (are)
correct?
– A marital deduction is automatically available as long as property is transferred outright to the non-citizen
spouse.
– A marital deduction is automatically available if the transferor-decedent spouse is a U. S. citizen.
A. 2 only
B. Both 1 and 2
C. Neither 1 nor2
D. 1 only
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 30
Examples of terminable interests that are nondeductible for the federal estate tax marital deduction include
which of the following?
– A property interest that would pass to someone else if the surviving spouse remarries
– A life estate in property that would pass to another person at the death of the surviving spouse
A. Both 1 and 2
B. 1 only
C. Neither 1 nor 2
D. 2 only
70-357 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 31
Which of the following statements concerning a power of appointment is (are) correct?
– A power of appointment can be designed to restrict the donee’s right to appoint the property in favor of a
specific class of recipients.
– A power of appointment can be designed to restrict the time period during which the donee may exercise
the power.

A. Neither 1 nor 2
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. 1 only
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 32
In addition to substantial probate assets, a married man with two minor children has a $1,000,000 ordinary
life insurance policy payable to his estate. He wants to make certain that if he predeceases his wife the
death proceeds will be available to provide income for his wife during her lifetime and to provide for their
two children after her death. He would like the policy and/or its death proceeds to be as free of federal gift
and estate taxes as possible with respect to both him and his wife. Which of the following courses of action
would best accomplish these objectives?
A. Designate his wife as beneficiary and she will establish a testamentary trust in her will to receive the
proceeds at her subsequent death
B. Assign the policy to an irrevocable inter vivos trust with five and five powers and designate the trustee
to receive the death proceeds
C. Establish a revocable inter vivos trust and designate the trustee to receive death proceeds
D. Assign the policy to his wife who will establish a revocable inter vivos trust to receive the death
proceeds
70-357 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 33
All the following statements concerning an estate for a term of years are correct EXCEPT:
A. An interest may extend beyond the lifetime of the grantor.
B. The tenant may transfer the property at the end of the term of his interest.
C. It is an interest in property established for a specific duration.
D. The tenant has the right to possess the property during the term of his interest.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 34
Which of the following statements concerning pooled-income funds is (are) correct?
– A pooled income fund is similar to a mutual fund maintained by a qualified charity.
– It is an irrevocable arrangement in which the remainder interest passes to charity.
A. Neither 1 nor 2
B. Both 1 and 2
C. 1 only
D. 2 only
70-357 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 35
A father deeded a house as a gift to his daughter in 1990 but retained the right to live in it until his death.
He died this year while still living in the house. The following are relevant facts:
The father bought the property in 1980 for $130,000. The fair market value of the property when the gift
was made in 1990 was $150,000. The father filed a timely gift tax return but paid no gift tax because of the
applicable credit amount. The fair market value of the property at the father’s death was $220,000. The
daughter sold the property 3 months after her father’s death for $220,000. She had a gain of?
A. $140,000
B. $220,000

C. $120,000
D. 0
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 36
All the following statements concerning a power of appointment are correct EXCEPT:
A. The donee of a power of appointment might be restricted with respect to the time the power can be
exercised.
B. The appointee of a power of appointment is the party who exercises the power.
C. Failure to exercise a power of appointment is known as a lapse of the power.
D. The possible recipients of property after the exercise of a power of appointment depend on the terms of
the power.
70-357 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 37
The failure of an individual to have a will can result in all the following EXCEPT:
A. A surviving spouse receives only his or her elective share.
B. Unnecessary death taxes may be imposed.
C. Testamentary gifts to charity cannot be made.
D. The decedent’s state of domicile might receive the property left by the decedent.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 38
A father is considering giving his daughter a gift. For tax planning purposes, the father should give his
daughter which of the following?
A. Raw land that cost him $10,000, its present fair market value, but which has a substantial potential for
appreciation
B. Real estate that cost him $40,000 and is now worth $120,000, subject to a $110,000 mortgage
C. Stock that cost him $10,000 and which now has a fair market value of $20,000
D. A bond that cost him $15,000 and is now worth $10,000
70-357 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 39
All the following are proper actions on the part of a trustee EXCEPT
A. placing cash from the sale of securities in a non-interest bearing checking account for an extended
period of time
B. investing trust assets in speculative securities in accordance with the provisions of the trust instrument
C. purchasing securities in good faith from a third party just prior to a sharp decrease in their value
D. purchasing assets for personal use from the trust at their fair market value with the approval of all
beneficiaries
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 40
The outputs from a PRINCE2 project are considered to be what?
A. The business benefits
B. Any of its tangible or intangible specialist products
C. Its Resources
D. The results of change
70-357 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 41
According to PRINCE2, a benefit is which of the following?
A. An improved business operation
B. The measurable improvement resulting from an outcome which is perceived as an advantage by one
or more stakeholders
C. The tangible or intangible product resulting from a planned activity
D. The result of change, normally affecting real-world behaviour and/or circumstances
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 42
In PRINCE2, the information regarding the business justification for the project is normally documented in
which management product?
A. Business Case
B. Benefits Review Plan
C. Project Product Description
D. Communication Management Strategy
70-357 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 43
The Business Case describes the reasons for the project based on estimated costs, the risks and which
one of the following?
A. Project approach
B. Acceptance criteria
C. Products to be produced
D. Expected benefits
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 44
Which of the following would contain the business option of doing nothing, regarding the project’s
investment?
A. Project approach
B. Business Case
C. Risk Management Strategy
D. Benefits Review Plan
70-357 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 45
What’s the purpose of the ‘Plan’ step within the risk management procedure?
A. Create a Risk Management Strategy for inclusion in the Project Initiation Documentation
B. Establish the Project Board’s specific risk management responsibilities and assign them as owners of
specific risks
C. To plan the Communications Management Strategy in order to identify and capture any external
stakeholder risk information requirements
D. To identify suitable management responses to be implemented to manage a risk, should the risk occur
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 46
Which of the following are uses of the Risk Register during the Controlling a Stage process?
1. Obtain details on risks to include in a Highlight Report
2. Obtain details of risks that may affect the Stage Plan for the next stage
3. Capture uncertainties identified when authorizing a Work Package
4. Obtain details of any potential impacts that may affect the Business Case while reviewing the stage
status
A. 1, 2, 3
B. 1, 2, 4
C. 1, 3, 4
D. 2, 3, 4

70-357 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 47
Which is a recommended response type to respond to either a threat or an opportunity?
A. Fallback
B. Reject
C. Share
D. Reduce
Correct Answer: C

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Exam Name: Microsoft Upgrading Your Skills to MCSA: Windows Server 2016
Q&As: 107

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QUESTION 10
At the Desktop > Background node a Desktop background image is configured for the users. If an
administrator creates a Building Block of this setting, what will happen with that image?
A. The background image will be inserted into the Building Block.
B. It is not possible to create a Building Block of items containing images.
C. The background image will be stored in an additional file.
D. All settings will be included, but the background image is ignored.
70-743 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11
RES Workspace Manager is configured to monitor CPU usage to prevent bad applications from disturbing
other sessions. What happens when an application takes too much processing time?
RES Workspace Manager will:
A. Lower the process priority so the operating system will only run it in leftover CPU time.
B. Kill the application after notifying the user about the misbehaving process.
C. Automatically move the running instance to a free server, if available.
D. Pause the application, notify the user, and continue the application when there’s enough free
CPUpower.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12
An administrator wants to be notified by e-mail when a user installs an application. What is the easiest way
to accomplish this?
A. Create an e-mail notification type and set the alerting option `User installed Applications- Applications
installed’ to this notification type.
B. Set the Administrator e-mail address in the alerting option `User installed Applications- Applications
installed’.
C. Create a custom e-mail task and attach this to all applications.
D. Create a notification type and select the option `Applications installed’.
70-743 dumps 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13
With application license control enabled for all applications, where can an administrator find a detailed
report on application license usage?
A. In Usage Tracking
B. In Instant Reports
C. In Modification Log
D. In Workspace Analysis
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 14
Can the option “Windows Shell Shortcut creation: Do Nothing” be used in combination with the RES
Workspace Manager Shell?
A. Yes, and applications will not be managed.
B. Yes, and the session will not be managed.
C. No, RES Workspace Manager will not continue when the session is started
D. No, RES Workspace Manager will automatically revert to `Replace’.

70-743 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 15
A Workspace Container can be used to organize the RES Workspace Manager environment in the
following ways:
1. By computer type (e.g. laptops, desktops, terminal servers)
2. By customer (e.g. hosting multiple environments on shared infrastructure)
3. By hardware requirements (e.g. amount of RAM or processor present)
4. By functionality (e.g. basic and advanced desktop environments)
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 1 and 4 only
C. 1, 2 and 4 only
D. 1, 3 and 4 only
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 16
When using E- Mail Templates with Microsoft App-V, the MAPI profile will be created
A. On the Microsoft App-V Server.
B. On the user’s home drive.
C. In the virtual environment.
D. In the Datastore.
70-743 vce 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 17
Which rules can be used with Zones?
1. USB serial number
2. Active Directory Site
3. Hardware requirement
4. Terminal Server listener name
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 18
Which VMware multi-pathing scheme should be used to avoid non-owning access with HDS modular
storage systems with multiple VMware servers?
A. Most Recently Used (MRU)
B. Fixed
C. Round-Robin
D. Extended Round-Robin
70-743 exam Answer: B
QUESTION 19
A customer is using Hitachi Dynamic Provisioning (HDP) on a Universal Storage Platform (USP) V
and runs an Oracle database on HDP Volumes allocated to a HDP Pool. The customer is experiencing
unexpected growth of the database and a lack of capacity in the HDP Pool. What should be done?
A. Build a new HDP Pool using the same disk and RAID type and migrate the DP-Volumes to the new
pool.
B. Build a new HDP Pool using any disk and any RAID type and migrate the DP-Volumes to the new pool.
C. Extend the existing HDP Pool with Pool Volumes using the same RAID and disk type.
D. Extend the existing HDP Pool with Pool Volumes using any RAID and disk type.
Answer: C
QUESTION 20
Which two statements are true about the Hitachi Tuning Manager Agent for RAID Product Interval (PI)
record type? (Choose two.)
A. Performance data is collected by the Agent Collector at specified intervals and summarized for every
hour/day/week/month/year.
B. Configuration data is collected by the Agent Collector at specified intervals and summarized for every
hour/day/week/month/year.
C. Performance Reporter can directly access Product Interval records through Hitachi Tuning Manager.
D. Product Interval.
70-743 dumps Answer:AC
QUESTION 21
A customer, which runs a large Web server farm as an Internet service and hosting provider, wants to
consolidate the data from all these servers from the internal server disks to an iSCSI SAN solution which
uses a Universal Storage Platform (USP) V as the storage system. The IO is generally random read in
small block size. Which two RAID Group configurations would you recommend for the USP V? (Choose
two.)
A. RAID1 2+2
B. RAID1 4+4 C. RAID5 7+1
D. RAID6 6+2
Answer: CD
QUESTION 22
What happens when the Extended Round-Robin load balancing algorithm is used with an LDEV that
is executing only random type IOs?
A. Performance will be severely impacted.
B. Load balancing will be disabled for this LDEV.
C. Round-Robin will be used.
D. HGLAM will be notified of this inconsistency.
70-743 pdf Answer: C
QUESTION 23
Which three metrics aid in calculating how long a block of data remains available in cache after its last
access? (Choose three.)
A. IOPS rate into the cache partition or storage system

B. number of available cache segments
C. the cache hit rate
D. average response time
E. average LUN queue size
Answer: ABC

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Exam Code: 300-115
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Switched Networks (SWITCH v2.0)
Updated: Sep 05, 2017
Q&As: 437

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Question Set 1
QUESTION 1
What is the maximum number of switches that can be stacked using Cisco StackWise?
A. 4
B. 5
C. 8
D. 9
E. 10
F. 13
300-115 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Up to 9 Cisco Catalyst switches can be stacked together to build single logical StackWise switch since Cisco IOS XE Release 3.3.0SE. Prior to Cisco IOS XE
Release3.3.0SE, up to 4 Cisco Catalyst switches could be stacked together.
QUESTION 2
A network engineer wants to add a new switch to an existing switch stack. Which configuration must be added to the new switch before it can be added to the 300-115 dumps switch stack?
A. No configuration must be added.
B. stack ID
C. IP address
D. VLAN information
E. VTP information
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Switch Stack Offline Configuration
You can use the offline configuration feature to provision (to supply a configuration to) a new switch before it joins the switch stack. You can configure in advance
the stack member number, the switch type, and the inter- faces associated with a switch that is not currently part of the stack. The configuration that you create on
the switch stack is called the provisioned configuration . The switch that is added to the switch stack and that re- ceives this configuration is called the provisioned
switch .
You manually create the provisioned configuration through the switch stack-member-number provision type global configuration command. The provisioned
configuration is automatically created when a switch is added to a switch stack and when no provisioned configuration exists.
When you configure the interfaces associated with a provisioned switch (for example, as part of a VLAN), the switch stack accepts the configuration, and the
information appears in the running configuration. The interface associated with the provisioned switch is not active, operates as if it is administratively shut down,
and the no shutdown interface configuration command does not return it to active service. The interface associated with the provisioned switch does not appear in
the display of the specific feature; for example, it does not appear in the show vlan user EXEC command output.
The switch stack retains the provisioned configuration in the running configuration whether or not the provi- sioned switch is part of the stack. You can save the
provisioned configuration to the startup configuration file by entering the copy running-config startup-config privileged EXEC command. The startup configuration
file ensures that the switch stack can reload and can use the saved information whether or not the provisioned switch is part of the switch stack.Effects of Adding a Provisioned Switch to a Switch Stack
When you add a provisioned switch to the switch stack, the stack applies either the provisioned configuration or the default configuration. Table 5-1 lists the events that occur when the switch stack compares the provisioned configuration with the provisioned switch.Table 5-1 Results of Comparing the Provisioned Configuration with the Provisioned Switch
Scenario Result The stack member num- 1. If the stack member number The switch stack applies bers and the switch types of the provisioned switch the provisioned configura match. matches the stack member num- tion to the provisioned ber in the provisioned configura- switch and adds it to the tion on the stack, and stack.
2. If the switch type of the provisioned switch matches the switch type in the provisioned configuration on the stack.
The stack member num- 1. If the stack member number The switch stack applies bers match but the switch of the provisioned switch the default configuration to types do not match. matches the stack member num- the provisioned switch and ber in the provisioned configuration on the stack, but adds it to the stack.
2. The switch type of the provi- The provisioned configura- sioned switch does not match the tion is changed to reflect switch type in the provisioned the new information.configuration on the stack.The stack member num- The switch stack appliesber is not found in the pro- the default configuration tovisioned configuration. the provisioned switch and adds it to the stack.The provisioned configuration is changed to reflect the new information. The stack member num- The stack master assigns a new The switch stack applies ber of the provisioned stack member number to the pro- the provisioned configura- switch is in conflict with an visioned switch. tion to the provisioned existing stack member. switch and adds it to the The stack member numbers and stack.
 the switch types match: The provisioned configura-
1. If the new stack member
tion is changed to reflect
number of the provisioned switch
the new information.
matches the stack member num
ber in the provisioned configura
tion on the stack, and
2. If the switch type of the provi
sioned switch matches the switch
type in the provisioned configura
tion on the stack.
The stack member numbers The switch stack applies
match, but the switch types do the default configuration to not match: the provisioned switch and
adds it to the stack.
1. If the stack member number
of the provisioned switch The provisioned configura
matches the stack member num- tion is changed to reflect
ber in the provisioned configura- the new information.
tion on the stack, but
2. The switch type of the provi
sioned switch does not match the
switch type in the provisioned
configuration on the stack.
The stack member num- The switch stack applies
ber of the provisioned the default configuration to
switch is not found in the the provisioned switch and
provisioned configuration. adds it to the stack.
Reference:
QUESTION 3
What percentage of bandwidth is reduced when a stack cable is broken?
A. 0
B. 25
C. 50
D. 75
E. 100
300-115 pdf Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Physical Sequential Linkage
The switches are physically connected sequentially, as shown in Figure 3. A break in any one of the cables will result in the stack bandwidth being reduced to half
of its full capacity. Subsecond timing mechanisms detect traffic problems and immediately institute failover. This mechanism restores dual path flow when the
timing mechanisms detect renewed activity on the cable.
Figure 3. Cisco StackWise Technology Resilient Cabling

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps

Which set of configurations will result in all ports on both switches successfully bundling into an EtherChannel?
A. switch1
channel-group 1 mode active
switch2
channel-group 1 mode auto
B. switch1
channel-group 1 mode desirable
switch2
channel-group 1 mode passive
C. switch1
channel-group 1 mode on
switch2
channel-group 1 mode auto
D. switch1
channel-group 1 mode desirable
switch2
channel-group 1 mode auto
300-115 vce Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The different etherchannel modes are described in the table below:
Mode Description
active Places an interface into an active negotiating state, in which the interface starts negotiations with other interfaces by sending LACP packets.
auto Places an interface into a passive negotiating state, in which the interface re- sponds to PAgP packets it receives but does not start PAgP packet negotia
tion. This setting minimizes the transmission of PAgP packets.
desirable Places an interface into an active negotiating state, in which the interface starts negotiations with other interfaces by sending PAgP packets.
on Forces the interface into an EtherChannel without PAgP or LACP. With the on mode, a usable EtherChannel exists only when an interface group in the on
mode is connected to another interface group in the on mode.
passive Places an interface into a passive negotiating state, in which the interface re- sponds to LACP packets that it receives, but does not start LACP packet ne
gotiation. This setting minimizes the transmission of LACP packets.
Both the auto and desirable PAgP modes allow interfaces to negotiate with partner interfaces to determine if they can form an EtherChannel based on criteria such
as interface speed and, for Layer 2 EtherChannels, trunking state and VLAN numbers.
Interfaces can form an EtherChannel when they are in different PAgP modes as long as the modes are compatible. For example:
An interface in the desirable mode can form an EtherChannel with another interface that is in the desirable or auto mode.
An interface in the auto mode can form an EtherChannel with another interface in the desirable mode.
An interface in the auto mode cannot form an EtherChannel with another interface that is also in the auto mode because neither interface starts PAgP negotiation.
An interface in the on mode that is added to a port channel is forced to have the same characteristics as the already existing on mode interfaces in the channel.

5.Consider an information system of a Pay-Tv company based on a SOA architecture.
The integrated system currently consists of three core systems:
– a CRM (Customer Relationship Management) system
– a BRM (Billing and Revenue Management) system
– a CAS (Conditional Access System) system all of them communicating with SOA Middleware.
You have been asked to manage the testing activities for the integration of two additional off-the-shelf
systems from two different vendors: a SMS (Short Message Service) server and an IVR (Interactive Voice
Response) system.
Assume that there is a high likelihood that the two off-the-shelf systems will be low-quality and that you
have a clear proof that the testing performed by the two vendors on their systems has been unsystematic
and unprofessional. This obviously leads to higher quality risk for the overall integrated system.
You are the Test Manager of this project. Your main goal is to plan for testing activities to mitigate this risk.

Which of the following answers best describes the test activities (assuming it is possible to perform all of
them) you should plan for?
K4 3 credits
A. You should plan for an informal and minimal acceptance test of the two off-the-shelf systems and then
a single end-to-end test of the overall integrated system
B. You should directly plan for a single end-to-end test focused on end-to-end tests of the overall
integrated system without an acceptance test of the two off-the-shelf systems
C. You should plan for two levels: a system integration test and an end-to-end test of the overall
integrated system
D. You should plan for adequate re-testing of both the systems followed by a system integration test and
an end-to-end test of the overall integrated system
300-115 exam Answer: D
6.The following are the exit criteria described in the test plan of a software product:
EX1. The test suite for the product must ensure that at least each quality risk item is covered by at least
one test case (a quality risk item can be covered by more test cases).
EX2. All test cases in the test suite must be run during the execution phase.
EX3. Defects are classified into two categories: C (critical defect) and NC (non-critical defect). No
known C defects shall exist in the product at the end of the test execution phase.
Which of the following information is useless when the specified exit criteria is evaluated?
A. A traceability matrix showing the relationships between the product risk items and the test cases
B. A list of all the open defects with the associated classification information extracted from the defect
tracking system
C. A chart, showing the trend in the lag time from defect reporting to resolution, extracted from the defect
tracking system
D. The execution status of all the test cases extracted from the test management tool
300-115 dumps Answer: C
7.Which of the following is an example of the test closure activity indicated as “lessons learned”?
A. Archive all the test results of the acceptance testing phase
B. Deliver a list of the open defects of a software product released into production to the service desk
team
C. Participate in a meeting at the end of a project aimed at better managing the events and problems of
future projects
D. Deliver an automated regression test suite, used during the system test phase of a software product
released into production, to the team responsible for maintenance testing
Answer: C
8.Assume that you are the Test Manager for a small banking application development project.
You have decided to adopt a risk-based testing strategy and 5 product risks (R1, R2, R3, R4, and R5)
have been identified during the quality risk analysis.
The following table shows the risk level associated to these product risks (higher numbers mean higher
risk):

55 test cases have been designed and implemented to cover all these 5 product risks. The coverage is
described in a traceability matrix.
This is the test execution status table, after the after the first week of test execution:
About 56% of the planned test cases have been successfully executed.
Assume that no additional product risks have been identified during the first week of test execution.

Which of the following answers would you expect to best describe the residual risks associated with the
identified product risks, at the end of the first week of test execution?
A. Since R3 is the only risk for which all test cases have passed, the risk has been reduced by 20%
B. The test execution status table indicates that the risk has been reduced by 56%
C. The residual risk level can t be determined, because it requires that all the test cases have been
executed
D. The test execution table doesn t give an indication of the risk level of the open defects and the test
cases that failed or are not run yet
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 70-773
Exam Name: Analyzing Big Data with Microsoft R (beta)
Updated: Aug 26, 2017
Q&As: 102

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QUESTION 16
The recommended way to create new methods in a core service is to use a service wrapper hook.
A. True
B. False
70-773 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 17
The recommended way to implement a new SSO solution that captures the SSO header is to:
A. Create an Ext plugin that adds a sen/let filter to capture the SSO header

B. Create a hook plugin that implements a servlet filter to capture the SSO header
C. Modify the portal source code and create an SSO servlet filter in the portal to capture the SSO header
D. Create a hook plugin to override the Struts action for the Loginportletto capture the SSO header
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 18
Service Builder is able to: (Please select all correct answers.)
A. Generate Hibernate configuration files
B. Generate base implementations of models, services, persistence and basic finders
C. Generate struts-config.xml and tiles-defs.xml
D. Generate web services
70-773 dumps Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 19
A hook plugin can extend and override: (Please select all correct answers.)
A. Core portal Struts actions
B. CoreportletStruts actions
C. Portletplugin Struts actions
D. Layout template Struts actions
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 20
Given the service.xml:
<entity name=”AcmeItem” local-service = “true” remote-service=”false”> <column name= “acmeltemld”
type= “long’ primary= “true” /> <column name= groupld” type=”long” />
</entity>
The generated classes include: (Please select all correct answers.)
A. AcmeltemServiceUtil
B. AcmeltemModel
C. AcmeltemLocalServiceUtil
D. AcmeltemJSONSerializer
E. AcmeltemPersistencelmpI
70-773 pdf Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 21
The hooks that can import classes from the plugin class loader are: (Please select all correct answers.)
A. Auto login hooks
B. JSP hooks
C. Service wrapper hooks
D. Servlet filter hooks
E. Struts action hooks
F. Indexer post processor hooks
Correct Answer: ACDEF
QUESTION 22
When adding new users to Liferay, the form will display the Details, Organizations and Personal Site
sections based on the following property in portal.properties:

users.form.add.main =detaiIs,organizations,personal-site
The “users.form.add.main” property is listed in the liferay-hook_6_l_0.dtd as a portal property that can be
overridden with a hook.
Deploying a hook with the following property in the portal.properties file will remove the Personal Site
section:
users.form.add.main =details,organizations
A. True
B. False
70-773 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 23
Hook plugins can only override core JSPs, services, language keys and Struts actions.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 24
An Expando is:
A. A tool for writing newportlets in Liferay
B. A code generator which generates services based on service.xml
C. A service in Liferay which allows you to dynamically define a collection of data
D. A new administrative interface in 6.1
70-773 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 25
The recommended way to implement code that only runs once to modify columns in the database is with a
(n):
A. GlobalStartupAction
B. ServicePreAction
C. UpgradeProcess
D. ServicePostAction
E. VerifyProcess
F. GlobalShutdownAction
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 26
The bundled property file that contains settings for a development environment is:
A. portal-ext. properties
B. portal-developer, properties
C. developer, properties
D. None of the above
70-773 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 27
Only an Ext plugin can:
A. Override language keys
B. Modify the initialization parameters of a coreportlet
C. Create a model listener
D. Override a JSP
E. Override Liferay services
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 28
To customize the User service in a hook plugin, create a class that extends:
A. UserServicelmpI
B. UserServiceBaseImpI
C. UserService
D. UserServiceWrapper
70-773 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 29
The recommended way to override multiple JSPs in the Documents and Media portlet is to:
A. Create a separate hook plug in for each JSP
B. Create an Ext plugin
C. Create a hook plugin that contains all the JSPs
D. Copy them directly into Liferay
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 30
Default rankings in the Message Boards portlet are set as portlet preferences. To make all new instances
of the portlet display custom rankings, it is recommended to:
A. Navigate to System Defaults in the Control Panel and update theportletpreferences
B. Create a hook plugin that modifies the defaultmessage.board.ranks portal property
C. Create an Ext plugin that contains the desired configuration inportlet-ext.xml
D. Create a JSP hook that overrides the rankings for all instances of the Message Boardsportlet
70-773 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 31
The method to send a redirect response and prevent resubmitting a form when a user refreshes the page
is:
A. clearRequ estPara mete rs ()
B. removeDuplicates()
C. removeParameters()
D. send Red irect()
Correct Answer: D
Question: 32
Your manager has approached you regarding her desire to outsource certain functions to an external
firm. She would like for you to create a document to send to three vendors asking them for solutions
for these functions that your organization is to outsource. What type of a procurement document
would you create and send to the vendors in this instance?
A. Request for Proposal
B. Request for Quote
C. Invitation for Bid
D. Request for Information
70-773 exam Answer: A
Explanation:
A request for proposal (RFP) is a procurement document that asks the vendor to provide solutions,
ideas, and detailed information about the outsourced function. The vendor will provide a proposal in
response to the RFP. An RFP is often sent with a statement of work that details the outsourcing need
that the vendor is to provide a solution and a price.
Answer option B is incorrect. A Request for Quote (RFQ) is a procurement document that asks the
vendor to provide just a price for the solution to be purchased – no ideas or suggestions are needed
from the vendor. RFQ are often used with materials, such as cost per metric ton or cost per unit.
Answer option C is incorrect. An invitation for bid (IFB) is identical to the request for quote. It is a
procurement document asking the vendor for a fixed price for a specific thing to be purchased.
Answer option D is incorrect. A request for information (RFI) asks the vendor for more information
about their solution, services, or company.
An RFI could ask for samples, references of work, white papers, and more information.
Question: 33
Kelly’s organization has posted a new job opening for their organization. This job opening is for a
woman to be the restroom attended, for all women’s restrooms and locker rooms, in their
organization. Kelly believes, however, that the requirement for the applicant to be a female is a
violation of the Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964. Which one of the following is the best answer
for this scenario?

A. This is an example of an exception by bona fide occupational qualification to the Title VII of the
Civil Rights Act of 1964
B. This is an example of a violation of the Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964
C. The sex of applicants is excluded from the Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964
D. This is not a violation of the Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 because there is an equal
paying and titled job for the men’s restroom and locker rooms in the company
Answer: A
Explanation:
This is an example of a bona fide occupational qualification for the position because of the nature of
the job and type of employee, female, that is needed in this instance.
Answer option C is incorrect. The sex of applicants is not excluded from the Title VII of the Civil
Rights Act of 1964.
Answer option B is incorrect. This is not a violation of the Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964
because some jobs may have an unintended discriminatory basis.
Answer option D is incorrect. The existence of a similar job for men or women does not
automatically create exclusion to the Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964.
Question: 34
You are an HR Professional for your organization. You and your supervisor are reviewing the EEO
reporting requirements for your company to comply with the reports your firm should file. Which
EEO Report is a survey, collected every other year on even calendar years?
A. EEO-4 Report
B. EEO-5 Report
C. EEO-3 Report
D. EEO-1 Report
70-773 dumps Answer: C
Explanation:
The EEO-3 Report, formally known as the Local Union Report, is collected on even years.
Answer option D is incorrect. The EEO-1 Report is collected yearly for firms with 100 or more
employees. It reports the race, ethnicity, and gender and job distribution of the organization.
Answer option A is incorrect. The EEO-4 Report, formally known as the state and local government
report, is collected on odd years.
Answer option B is incorrect. This report, formally known as the Elementary-Secondary Staff
Information Report, is collected by the EEOC, the Office for Civil Rights, and the national Center for
Education Statistics of the Department of Education. It is collected in even numbers for school
districts with 100 or more employees.

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Exam Code: 300-135
Exam Name: Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks (TSHOOT v2.0)
Updated: Aug 23, 2017
Q&As: 118

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QUESTION 1
A customer wants to discuss manual site failover design. The solution design must guarantee the
replication of file system snapshots. What should the customer use?
A. TrueCopy
B. Intelligent Data Replication
C. Incremental Data Replication
D. Transfer Primary Access
300-135 exam Answer: A
QUESTION 2
A customer has a Hitachi AMS2100 attached to a 2-node Hitachi NAS Platform 3090 cluster. They
initially purchased 15 TB and have just purchased an additional 5 TB. They now need to expand
their existing storage pools. What must be considered when expanding the storage pools?
A. All system drives must be of the same size in terms of capacity.
B. All system drives must be offline.
C. All system drives must be in the same system drive group.
D. All storage pools must be offline.
Answer: A
QUESTION 3
A production Hitachi NAS Platform is connected to a Hitachi VSP with a storage pool consisting of
SATA drives. To improve performance, the customer wants to migrate to SAS drives on an
externalized Hitachi AMS2300 with minimal customer involvement and minimal impact to the
system and users. Which two products should be deployed? (Choose two.)
A. Hitachi Universal Replicator
B. Hitachi Tiered Storage Manager
C. Hitachi Device Manager
D. Hitachi Tuning Manager
300-135 dumps Answer: B,C
QUESTION 4
A customer is planning to use the JetMirror functionality on their Hitachi NAS Platform. Which two
are required from the customer to plan the implementation? (Choose two.)
A. the size of the storage pools in use
B. the number of files used
C. the distance to the destination system
D. if systems are managed by a common SMU
Answer: C,D
QUESTION 5
Which three documents are required deliverables as part a Hitachi NAS Platform data migration
service? (Choose three.)
A. the file system migration workbook
B. the network topology diagram
C. the NAS service workbook
D. the NAS migration hardware configuration sheet
E. the hardware inventory sheet
300-135 pdf Answer: A,C,D
QUESTION 6
A customer must have 24/7 uptime on their Hitachi NAS Platform 4-node 3200 cluster. They need
to complete a major upgrade on each of the 4 nodes and must have a method of failing over their
production services to a non-production cluster. Which two topics must be discussed with the
customer prior to the major upgrade? (Choose two.)
A. automatic failover using HiTrack
B. the purchase of a backup cluster
C. establishing a Server Farm
D. use of MPIO for failover
Answer: B,C
QUESTION 7
A customer environment consists of a Hitachi NAS Platform 3090 cluster connected to a Hitachi
AMS2500 with SATA disk drives in RAID-6 configuration. The customer is using this solution
primarily for data backup and is expecting optimal write performance and optimal reliability. Which
“SATA Write & Compare” mode should be used?
A. SATA Write & Compare Full
B. SATA Write & Compare Enabled
C. SATA Write & Compare Disabled
D. SATA Write & Compare Optimal
300-135 vce Answer: B
QUESTION 8
When configuring iSCSI initiators, which two must be configured to facilitate dynamic target
(server) discovery from the Hitachi NAS platform? (Choose two.)
A. the iSCSI LUN
B. the iSCSI target portal
C. the iSCSI IQN
D. the iSNS
Answer: B,D
QUESTION 9
A customer has a Hitachi NAS Platform 3100 cluster dual fabric attached to a Hitachi AMS 2000
Family storage system in a fault tolerant configuration containing multiple EVSs.. What would
cause all of the EVSs to fail?
A. The preferred SD path fails.
B. An AMS controller fails.
C. The SIM blade fails.
D. A SAN switch fails.
300-135 exam Answer: C
QUESTION 10
The administrator of a production Hitachi NAS Platform 3200 wants to maximize potential
performance and fault tolerance to an attached Hitachi USP V storage system. Which
configuration should be used?
A. Use hports 1, 2, 3 and 4 of the Hitachi NAS Platform to connect to different FED ports on
cluster 1 of the USP V.
B. Use hports 1, 2, 3 and 4 of the Hitachi NAS Platform to connect to FEDs on cluster 1 and
cluster 2 of the USP V.
C. Use hports 4, 5, 6 and 7 of the Hitachi NAS Platform to connect to different FED ports on
cluster 1 of the USP V.
D. Use hports 1, 3, 5 and 7 of the Hitachi NAS Platform to connect to FEDs on cluster 1 and
cluster 2 on the USP V.
Answer: D
QUESTION 11
A customer has a heterogenous server and desktop operating systems environment. Users are
experiencing authentication issues across multiple OS platforms. Which business-related qualifiers
are relevant for designing a Hitachi NAS Platform solution to resolve these issues?
A. backup window and SLAs
B. type of external authentication
C. number of concurrent sessions/users
D. type of users’ tasks and responsibilities
300-135 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION 12
Your customer is planning to purchase a Hitachi NAS Platform model 3200 cluster. Which type of
optical 10 GbE interface will they need for their network switches?
A. Twinax
B. XENPAK
C. SFP+
D. XFP
Answer: D
QUESTION 13
A customer with a Hitachi NAS Platform 3100 wants to implement anti-virus scanning. In which
Hitachi NAS Platform related document do you find information about supported anti-virus scan
engine software?
A. the Access Control List (ACL)
B. the Administration Guide
C. the Independent Software Vendor (ISV) list
D. the Hardware Compatibility List (HCL)
300-135 pdf Answer: C
QUESTION 14
A customer wants to use the data migration function with their Hitachi NAS Platform. Which three
criteria are used by this function? (Choose three.)
A. by last access
B. by source file system block size
C. by file name
D. by path
E. by protocol type
Answer: A,C,D
QUESTION 15
You are asked to design a Hitachi NAS Platform solution for a customer with existing Hitachi
storage systems installed. The existing storage and SAN infrastructure should be used wherever
possible. Which two can be re-used? (Choose two.)
A. spare Qlogic 2310 HBAs
B. Fibre Channel switches
C. Hitachi AMS500 storage systems
D. Hitachi 7700E storage systems
300-135 vce Answer: B,C
QUESTION 16
You are designing a Hitachi NAS Platform solution to migrate files to a Hitachi Content Platform
(HCP). Which configuration method must be used?
A. Use the connector wizard.
B. Use the CLI command xvl-path-add.
C. Use the CLI command external-path-add.
D. Use the CLI command migration-add-external-path.
Answer: D
QUESTION 17
The administrator of a production Hitachi NAS Platform connected to a Hitachi AMS2300 requires
file level replication to another Hitachi NAS Platform. However, there is a concern over the large
numbers of files and about the high change rate as the replication time window is small. What
should be done to reduce the replication time?
A. Use Transfer Primary Access.
B. Use the changed directory list option.
C. Migrate the admin EVS to the node replicating the data.
D. Create an additional IP address on the source EVS.
300-135 exam Answer: B

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