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Changed from Feb. 24, 2020 | new CCNA 200-301

Under the new rules, the following certifications will all be replaced by the new CCNA 200-301:

  • CCNA Cloud
  • CCNA Collaboration
  • CCNA Data Center
  • CCNA Industrial
  • CCNA Routing and Switching
  • CCNA Security
  • CCNA Service Provider
  • CCNA Wireless
  • CCDA (Cisco Certified Design Associate)

Cisco 200-301 is a single exam and includes 120 questions. It covers a wide range of topics such as routing and switching, security, wireless networking, and even some programming concepts.

About the new exam https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/ccna-200-301.html

Effective Cisco 200-301 exam practice questions(1-13)

QUESTION 1
What is the default behavior of a Layer 2 switch when a frame with an unknown destination MAC address is received?
A. The Layer 2 switch forwards the packet and adds the destination MAC address to its MAC address table.
B. The Layer 2 switch sends a copy of a packet to CPU for destination MAC address learning.
C. The Layer 2 switch floods packets to all ports except the receiving port in the given VLAN.
D. The Layer 2 switch drops the received frame.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which command verifies whether any IPv6 ACLs are configured on a router?
A. show ipv6 interface
B. show access-list
C. show ipv6 access-list
D. show ipv6 route
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Refer to exhibit.

Pass4itsure 200-301 exam questions-q3

Which statement explains the configuration error message that is received?
A. It belongs to a private IP address range.
B. The router does not support /28 mask.
C. It is a network IP address.
D. It is a broadcast IP address.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
What are two characteristics of a controller-based network? (Choose two.)
A. It uses Telnet to report system issues.
B. The administrator can make configuration updates from the CLI.
C. It uses northbound and southbound APIs to communicate between architectural layers.
D. It decentralizes the control plane, which allows each device to make its own forwarding decisions.
E. It moves the control plane to a central point.
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 5
Which command is used to specify the delay time in seconds for LLDP to initialize on any interface?
A. lldp timer
B. lldp tlv-select
C. lldp reinit
D. lldp holdtime
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst2960/software/release/12-2_37_ey/configuration/guide/scg/swlldp.pdf

QUESTION 6
Two switches are connected and using Cisco Dynamic Trunking Protocol. SW1 is set to Dynamic Auto and SW2 is set
to Dynamic Desirable. What is the result of this configuration?
A. The link becomes an access port.
B. The link is in an error disabled state.
C. The link is in a down state.
D. The link becomes a trunk port.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop AAA functions from the left onto the correct AAA services on the right.
Select and Place:

Pass4itsure 200-301 exam questions-q7

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure 200-301 exam questions-q7-2

QUESTION 8
Which command is used to configure an IPv6 static default route?
A. ipv6 route ::/0 interface next-hop5
B. ipv6 route default interface next-hop
C. ipv6 route 0.0.0.0/0 interface next-hop
D. ip route 0.0.0.0/0 interface next-hop
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Order the DHCP message types as they would occur between a DHCP client and a DHCP server.Select and Place:

Pass4itsure 200-301 exam questions-q9

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure 200-301 exam questions-q9-2

QUESTION 10
Which of the following is the JSON encoding of a dictionary or hash?
A. {“key”:“value”}
B. [“key”,“value”]
C. {“key”,“value”}
D. (“key”:“value”)
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
In which way does a spine-and-leaf architecture allow for scalability in a network when additional access ports are
required?
A. A spine switch and a leaf switch can be added with redundant connections between them.
B. A spine switch can be added with at least 40 GB uplinks.
C. A leaf switch can be added with connections to every spine switch.
D. A leaf switch can be added with a single connection to a core spine switch.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
How can the Cisco Discovery Protocol be used?
A. to allow a switch to discover the devices that are connected to its ports
B. to determine the hardware platform of the device
C. to determine the IP addresses of connected Cisco devices
D. all of the above
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
DRAG DROP

Pass4itsure 200-301 exam questions-q13

Refer to the exhibit. Drag and drop the networking parameters from the left onto the correct values on the right.
Select and Place:

Pass4itsure 200-301 exam questions-q13-2

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure 200-301 exam questions-q13-3

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  • 300-420 ENSLD – Designing Cisco Enterprise Networks (ENSLD)
  • 300-425 ENWLSD – Designing Cisco Enterprise Wireless Networks (ENWLSD)
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  • 300-435 ENAUTO – Implementing Automation for Cisco Enterprise Solutions (ENAUI)

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List of Related Exams

  • 300-401 Implementing and Operating Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies (ENCOR)
  • 300-410 Implementing Cisco Enterprise Advanced Routing and Services (ENARSI)
  • 300-415 Implementing Cisco SD-WAN Solutions (ENSDWI)
  • 300-420 Designing Cisco Enterprise Networks (ENSLD)
  • 300-430 Implementing Cisco Enterprise Wireless Networks (ENWLSI)
  • 300-435 Automating and Programming Cisco Enterprise Solutions (ENAUTO)
  • 350-401 Implementing Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies (ENCOR)

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QUESTION 1

Pass4itsure 300-425 exam questions-q1

Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about Cisco Prime Infrastructure are true? (Choose two.)
A. It presents the recommended number of APs for the selected coverage area based on the selections made.
B. Planning mode requires a special license in Cisco Prime Infrastructure.
C. It shows the map editor feature in Cisco Prime Infrastructure.
D. Controllers must be synchronized with Cisco Prime Infrastructure for planning mode to work.
E. It shows the planning mode feature in Cisco Prime Infrastructure.
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 2
An engineer is reducing the subnet size of the corporate WLAN by segmenting the VLAN into smaller subnets. Clients
will be assigned a subnet by location. Which type of groups can the engineer use to map the smaller subnets to the
corporate WLAN?
A. WLC port groups
B. RF groups
C. AP groups
D. interface groups
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3

Pass4itsure 300-425 exam questions-q3

Refer to the exhibit. What is the main reason why the Wi-Fi design engineer took a different approach than installing the
APs in the offices, even though that installation provides better coverage?
A. aesthetics
B. transmit power considerations
C. antenna gain
D. power supply considerations
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
A company wants to replace its existing PBX system with a new VoIP System that will include wireless IP phones. The
CIO has concerns about whether the company\\’s existing wireless network can support the new system. Which tool in
Cisco Prime can help ensure that the current network will support the new phone system?
A. Location Readiness
B. Site Calibration
C. Map Editor
D. Voice Readiness
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Guest anchoring is configured for a newly created SSID for your company. It has been noticed that the mobility tunnels
are not up, and that MPING fails from your foreign WLC to the anchor WLC. What is the reason that it is failing?
A. A rule is needed at the firewall to allow UDP port 16666 for communication to work.
B. A rule is needed at the firewall to allow UDP port 97 for communication to work.
C. A rule is needed at the firewall to allow TCP port 97 for communication to work.
D. A rule is needed at the firewall to allow TCP port 16666 for communication to work.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
A wireless engineer is designing a wireless network to support real-time applications over wireless. Which IEEE protocol
mus the engineer enable on the WLC so that the number of packets that are exchanged between an access point and
client are reduced and fast roaming occurs?
A. 802.11w
B. 802.11r
C. 802.11i
D. 802.11k
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
A technician connects a Cisco Aironet 3700 Series access point to a switch and realizes that the AP is coming up with
3×3 MIMO. Which reason explains this behavior?
A. A redundant power supply is unavailable on the switch.
B. The switch is 802.3af capable.
C. The AP is getting power from a power injector.
D. The switch is PoE+ capable.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which non-Wi-Fi interferer can be identified by Metageek Chanalyzer?
A. PDAs
B. jammers
C. smartphones
D. printers
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
A network engineer is configuring high availability on an access point. What is the maximum number of controllers that
can be configured?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
A university is in the process of designing a wireless network in an auditorium that seats 500 students and supports
student laptops. Which design methodology should the university implement in the auditorium?
A. roaming design model
B. voice design model
C. location design model
D. high-density design model
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
A customer has determined that aesthetics is a primary concern for their upcoming guest deployment. Which design
consideration can be leveraged to address this concern?
A. Paint the access point to cover the LED from being noticeable.
B. Use enclosures to hide the wireless infrastructure in the surrounding environment.
C. Use AIR-AP-BRACKET-1 to allow for greater mounting locations
D. Deploy environmentally friendly cabling components to blend into the environment.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
As part of a wireless site survey in a hospital, an engineer needs to identify potential Layer 1 interferers. In which two
areas is the engineer most likely to find sources of 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz RF noise? (Choose two.)
A. magnetic resonance imaging
B. kitchen
C. Gamma Knife radiation treatment
D. X-ray radiography
E. patient room
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 13
What causes the most signal attenuation, based on the wireless design tools?
A. cinder block wall
B. metal door
C. glass wall
D. office window
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
When designing interdomain multicast, which two protocols are deployed to achieve communication between multicast
sources and receivers? (Choose two.)
A. IGMPv2
B. BIDIR-PIM
C. MP-BGP
D. MSDP
E. MLD
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 2
A network engineer must connect two sites across a public network using a secure tunneling technology that supports
multicast traffic. Which technology must be chosen?
A. IPsec
B. GRE
C. PPTP
D. GRE over IPsec
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3

Pass4itsure 300-420 exam questions-q3

Refer to the exhibit. Which solution decreases the EIGRP convergence time?
A. Enable subsecond timers
B. Increase the hold time value
C. Increase the dead timer value
D. Enable stub routing on the spokes
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which solution allows overlay VNs to communicate with each other in an SD-WAN Architecture?
A. External fusion routers can be used to map VNs to VRFs and selectively route traffic between VRFs.
B. GRE tunneling can be configured between fabric edges to connect one VN to another.
C. SGTs can be used to permit traffic from one VN to another.
D. Route leaking can be used on the fabric border nodes to inject routes from one VN to another.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
A company is using OSPF between its HQ location and a branch office. HQ is assigned area 0 and the branch office is
assigned area 1. The company purchases a second branch office, but due to circuit delays to HQ, it decides to connect
the new branch office to the creating branch office as a temporary measure. The new branch office is assigned area 2.
Which OSPF configuration enables all three locations to exchange routes?
A. The existing branch office must be configured as a stub area
B. A virtual link must be configured between the new branch office and HQ
C. A sham link must be configured between the new branch office and HQ
D. The new branch office must be configured as a stub area
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
What are two benefits of designing an SD-WAN network fabric with direct Internet access implemented at every site?
(Choose two.)
A. It decreases latency to applications hosted by public cloud service provider.
B. It decreases latency on Internet circuits.
C. It increases the speed of delivery of site deployments through zero-touch provisioning.
D. It increases the total available bandwidth on Internet circuits.
E. It alleviates network traffic on MPLS circuits.
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 7
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the properties from the left onto the protocols they describe on the right.

Pass4itsure 300-420 exam questions-q7

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure 300-420 exam questions-q7-2

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/iosxml/ios/prog/configuration/166/b_166_programmability_cg/b_166_programmability_cg_chapter_01011.html 

QUESTION 8
An engineer is working with NETCONF and Cisco NX-OS based devices. The engineer needs a YANG model that
supports a specific feature relevant only to Cisco NX-OS. Which model must the engineer choose?
A. Native
B. IEEE
C. OpenConfig
D. IETF
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
An engineer is looking for a standards-driven YANG model to manage a multivendor network environment. Which model
must the engineer choose?
A. Native
B. OpenConfig
C. IETF
D. IEEE NETCONF
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
An engineer must design a multicast network for a financial application. Most of the multicast sources also receive
multicast traffic (many-to-many deployment model). To better scale routing tables, the design must not use source trees.
Which multicast protocol satisfies these requirements?
A. PIM-SSM
B. PIM-SM
C. MSDP
D. BIDIR-PIM
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Which two best practices must be followed when designing an out-of-band management network? (Choose two.)
A. Enforce access control
B. Facilitate network integration
C. Back up data using the management network
D. Ensure that the management network is a backup to the data network
E. Ensure network isolation
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 12
Which routes does the overlay management protocol advertise in an SD-WAN overlay?
A. underlay, MPLS, and overlay
B. primary, backup, and load-balanced
C. prefix, TLOC, and service
D. Internet, MPLS, and backup
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
A branch office has a primary L3VPN MPLS connection back to the main office and an IPSEC VPN tunnel that serves
as backup. Which design ensures that data is sent over the backup connection only if the primary MPLS circuit is
down?
A. Use EIGRP to establish a neighbor relationship with the main office via L3VPN MPLS and the IPSEC VPN tunnel.
B. Use BGP with the multipath feature enabled to force traffic via the primary path when available.
C. Use static routes tied to an IP SLA to prefer the primary path while a floating static route points to the backup
connection.
D. Use OSPF with a passive-interface command on the backup connection.
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
An administrator is updating theserver infrastructure atacompany\\’s disaster recovery site. Currently, an enormous
amount of effortisrequired by theadministratorto replicate operations. Which of the followingtypes of siteis the
administrator currently using?
A. Cold site
B. Hot site
C. Warm site
D. Replication site
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
A new server has two drives and a RAID controller. Which of the following is an option for configuring the storage on this
server?
A. RAID 0
B. RAID 5
C. RAID 6
D. RAID 10
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
A technician receives an error messagewhentrying to boot the server stating the operating system was not found.
Change management logs indicateanew hard drive backplane was installed in the server last night. Which of the
following should the technician do FIRST when troubleshooting the issue?
A. Check system board cables
B. Rebuild RAID array
C. Reinstall server OS
D. Remove newly installed hardware
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
A system administrator is tasked to setup a database server with failover clustering feature enabled. One of the
requirements is to have one database running at all times with data being synchronizedand replicated to the idle
database in case the primary database server fails. Both servers will be monitored by a witness on a LUN. Which of the
followingcluster techniques should be implemented to meet these requirements?
A. Active/Active
B. Active/Passive
C. Single Local Quorum
D. Passive/Passive
E. Shared Multiple Quorum
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
A technician notices a rack mounted server is beeping without booting up. The NEXT step to diagnose this issue would
be to:
A. continue to power cycle the server until it boots normally.
B. count the beeps and reference the service manual.
C. disable the alarm within the server.
D. install the server into a different rack.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
A company is planning to replace old hardware and needs to budget accordingly. Which of the following is likely to
contain a list of end of life servers?
A. The server\\’s warranty information.
B. The server\\’s life cycle schedule.
C. The asset management database.
D. The software licensing agreement.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
A server administrator wants to upgrade the memory of the server using two memory modules. The server has two
banks of memorywith the followingslotsavailable: A2, A3, A4, B2, B3, and B4. In whichof the following two slotsshould
theadministrator install the additional RAM?
A. Slots A2 and A3
B. Slots A2 and B2
C. Slots A2 and B4
D. Slots B2 and B3
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Server A hosts a mission-critical business application. The server has one disk and one NIC. The administrator has
been asked to implement a solution to meet the business requirement that the application must maintain high
availability, even in case of a hardware failure. Which of the following BEST meets this requirement?
A. Configure failover clustering using Server A and a new server.
B. Add multiple disks on the server and configure RAID 5.
C. Add an additional NIC and configure the NIC as standby.
D. Move the application to another server that has more resources.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
A technician is upgrading the memory in a server. The server requires DDR3 Registered DIMMs. The server
hasfourbanks ofthreeslots for memory and currently there is one 2GBmodule in each bank. When the technician
attempts to add eight more 4GB modules of DDR3unbuffered ECC memory,the memory does notfit in the slots. Which
of the following is thecause ofthis issue?
A. In a bank, 2GB and 4GB memory cannot be mixed.
B. The server cannot use ECC memory.
C. The server requires fully buffered memory.
D. The total memory on the server cannot exceed 24GB of RAM.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
A server technician is connecting a server to a switch in the server room. Both the server and the switch are equipped
with 10 Gigabit Ethernet adapters. Which of the following cable choices would produce the BEST throughput?
A. CAT6 rollover cable
B. CAT5e straight-through cable
C. CAT6 straight-through cable
D. CAT5e crossover cable
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
In an effort to reduce recovery time during hardware failures, a server administrator needs to implement a backup
method that will allow for complete OS and service/application recovery as long as compatible hardware is available.
Which of the following backup types meets this requirement?
A. Incremental
B. Bare metal
C. Snapshot
D. Full
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
When attempting to diagnose service access issues between multiple hosts that coordinateinformation, whichof the
followingcan be used to track dependencies?
A. Dataflow diagrams
B. Architecture diagrams
C. Baseline documentation
D. Service manuals
Correct Answer: A

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A technician wants to implement a grandfather-father-son tape rotation policy. Which of the following implements this
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A. Assign a different set of tapes for daily, weekly, and monthly backups.
B. Use a different set of tapes for every two, four, and eight days.
C. Designate a different set of tapes for odd-day and even-day backups.
D. Use a queue to rotate tapes based on the age and usage of the tape.
Correct Answer: A

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Exam MS-300: Deploying Microsoft 365 Teamwork (beta): https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-ms-300.aspx

Candidates for this exam are Teamwork Administrators who are responsible for configuring, deploying and managing Office 365 and Azure workloads that focus on efficient and effective collaboration and adoption.
Teamwork Administrators manage apps, services, and supporting infrastructure to meet business requirements. The Teamwork administrator must be able to deploy, manage, migrate, and secure SharePoint (online, on-premises, and hybrid), OneDrive, and Teams.

The Teamwork administrator is involved with decisions regarding governance and works with other administrators to implement many
of the decisions made by governance bodies. The Teamwork administrator collaborates with the Messaging Administrator to configure
options and security related to email tasks, the Voice Administrator to integrate voice capabilities in organizations, and the Security Administrator to ensure an end to end security.

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Configure and manage SharePoint Online (35-40%)

  • Plan and configure site collections and hub sites
  • Plan and configure customizations and apps
  • Plan and configure managed metadata
  • Plan and configure guest access
  • Manage SharePoint Online
  • Manage search
  • Monitor and maintain the SharePoint Online service

Configure and manage OneDrive for Business (25-30%)

  • Configure and manage OneDrive for Business
  • Manage users and groups
  • Manage sharing and security
  • Manage sync security
  • Monitor and maintain the OneDrive service

Configure and manage Teams (20-25%)

  • Plan and configure Teams settings
  • Plan identity and authentication for Teams
  • Manage the Teams environment
  • Monitor and maintain the Teams service

Configure and manage workload integrations (15-20%)

  • Integrate M365 workloads
  • Manage Yammer capabilities
  • Manage Stream capabilities
  • Integrate M365 workloads with external data and systems

Latest effective Microsoft other Certification MS-300 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
Your company has a Microsoft SharePoint Online subscription.
The company purchases a new add-in for Microsoft Excel.
You need to deploy the add-in to all users.
Solution: From the Microsoft 365 admin center, you deploy the add-in.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription.
You need to prevent all users except for a user named User1 from uploading video to Microsoft Stream channels and
creating Stream channels. User1 must be able to create a channel and upload video to the created channel.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Turn on Restrict companywide channel creation and add User1 as an unrestricted user.
B. Turn on Restrict video uploads and add User1 as an unrestricted user.
C. Turn on Restrict companywide channel creation and add the Office 365 group associated to the channel as an
unrestricted user.
D. Add user1 to the Office 365 group associated to the channel.
E. Turn on Restrict video uploads and add the Office 365 group associated to the channel as an unrestricted user.
Correct Answer: AB
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/stream/restrict-companywide-channels https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/stream/restrict-uploaders

QUESTION 3
You are a Microsoft Teams administrator for your company.
The company creates a new Teams app named App1. A developer packages App1 as a ZIP file.
You need to ensure that App1 can be uploaded as a ZIP package to Teams.
Which Apps setting should you turn on?
A. Allow sideloading of external apps
B. Allow external in Microsoft Teams
C. Enable default apps
D. Enable new external apps by default
Correct Answer: A
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoftteams/admin-settings

QUESTION 4
You work for a Canadian company named Contoso, Ltd.
Contoso has a Microsoft 365 subscription.
Contoso discovers that some users share Canadian Personally Identifiable Information (PII) data with external users.
You need to notify users and administrators when sensitive information is shared with internal or external users.
What should you create?
A. a sensitivity label policy
B. a data governance policy
C. a Microsoft Azure Information Protection policy
D. a data loss prevention (DLP) policy
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription.
You need to add a user named Admin1 as an administrator of the Microsoft OneDrive for the Business site of a user named
User1.
What should you do?
A. Run the Set-SPOSite (site URL) ?owner Admin1 command.
B. From the SharePoint admin center, select user profiles, and then select Manage User Permissions.
C. Add Admin1 to the Site owners group.
D. From the SharePoint admin center, select user profiles, and then select Manage User Profiles. Select User1, and
then select Manage site collection owners.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Your company has a Microsoft SharePoint Online subscription.
The company purchases a new add-in for Microsoft Excel.
You need to deploy the add-in to all users.
Solution: From the App Catalog, you upload the add-in to the SharePoint Add-ins
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
You need to grant an external user guest access to the SharePoint site of the design department. What should you do?
A. From the SharePoint team site, modify the Visitors group.
B. From the SharePoint team site, modify the Members group
C. From Microsoft Outlook, add a member to a group.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
You have a Microsoft SharePoint Online site named Site1.
You are monitoring the usage patterns of the site collection.
What should you use to identify which files were shared with external users?
A. the Data governance dashboard in the Security and Compliance admin center
B. the usage report in the Microsoft 365 admin center
C. Sharing settings in the SharePoint admin center
D. the Site usage page in Site1
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
You are planning the deployment of a Microsoft SharePoint Online site collection.
You need to recommend a solution that provides consistent global navigation across multiple sites within the site
collection. The solution must use a term set for navigation.
Which navigation approach should you include in the recommendation?
A. hub sites
B. structural navigation
C. Quick Launch
D. metadata navigation
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
You need to configure retention for OneDrive. The solution must meet the technical requirements.
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NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
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QUESTION 11
Your company has a Microsoft SharePoint Online subscription.
You use a DocumentType term set to tag documents. All existing terms are created in English.
The company opens a new office in Mexico.
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QUESTION 12
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription.
SharePoint administrators open several Microsoft support tickets.
You need to view the status of the support tickets.
Solution: From the Microsoft 365 admin center, you select Support, and then you select View service requests.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription.
You need to ensure that users accessing files in Microsoft SharePoint Online from an unmanaged device can only view
the files in a browser.
How should you complete the command? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
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QUESTION 18
You are creating a class named Employee. The class exposes a string property named EmployeeType. The following code segment defines the Employee class. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
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The EmployeeType property value must be accessed and modified only by code within the Employee class or within a class derived from the Employee class. You need to ensure that the implementation of the EmployeeType property meets the requirements. Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer represents part of the complete solution. Choose two.)
A. Replace line 05 with the following code segment: protected get;
B. Replace line 06 with the following code segment: private set;
C. Replace line 03 with the following code segment: public string EmployeeType
D. Replace line 05 with the following code segment: private get;
E. Replace line 03 with the following code segment: protected string EmployeeType
F. Replace line 06 with the following code segment: protected set;
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Correct Answer: BE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 19
You are implementing a method named Calculate that performs conversions between value types and reference types. The following code segment implements the method. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
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You need to ensure that the application does not throw exceptions on invalid conversions. Which code segment should you insert at line 04?
A. int balance = (int) (float)amountRef;
B. int balance = (int)amountRef;
C. int balance = amountRef;
D. int balance = (int) (double) amountRef;
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 20
You are creating a console application by using C#. You need to access the application assembly. Which code segment should you use?
A. Assembly.GetAssembly(this);
B. this.GetType();
C. Assembly.Load();
D. Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly();
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Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 21
HOTSPOT
You are implementing a library method that accepts a character parameter and returns a string. If the lookup succeeds, the method must return the corresponding string value. If the lookup fails, the method must return the value “invalid choice.” You need to implement the lookup algorithm. How should you complete the relevant code? (To answer, select the correct keyword in each drop-down list in the answer area.)
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Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 22
You use the Task.Run() method to launch a long-running data processing operation. The data processing operation often fails in times of heavy network
congestion. If the data processing operation fails, a second operation must clean up any results of the first operation. You need to ensure that the second operation is invoked only if the data processing operation throws an unhandled exception. What should you do?
A. Create a TaskCompletionSource<T> object and call the TrySetException() method of the object.
B. Create a task by calling the Task.ContinueWith() method.
C. Examine the Task.Status property immediately after the call to the Task.Run() method.
D. Create a task inside the existing Task.Run() method by using the AttachedToParent option.
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Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 23
You are modifying an application that processes leases. The following code defines the Lease class. (Line numbers are included for reference only.) 070-483 dumps
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A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
E. Option E
F. Option F
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 24
What is a benefit of cloud computing over traditional computing?
A. Reduces the time to provision and deploy new applications
B. Eliminates consumer’s IT operational expenditure
C. Enables the use of proprietary APIs to access IT resources
D. Lowers migration cost and prevents vendor lock-in
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Benefits of Cloud Computing
Cloud computing offers the following key benefits: Reduced IT cost: Cloud services can be purchased based on pay-per-use or subscription pricing. This reduces or eliminates consumer’s IT capital expenditure (CAPEX).
Business agility:
Cloud computing provides the capability to allocate and scale computing capacity quickly. Cloud can reduce the time required to provision and deploy new applications and services from months to minutes. This enables businesses to respond more quickly to market changes and reduce time-to-market. Flexible scaling: Cloud computing enables consumers to scale up, scale down, scale out, or scale in the demand for computing resources easily. Consumers can unilaterally and automatically scale computing resources without any interaction with cloud service providers. The flexible service provisioning capability
of cloud often provides a sense of unlimited scalability to the cloud service consumers. High availability: Cloud computing has the ability to ensure resource availability at varying levels depending on the consumer’s policy and priority. Redundant infrastructure components (servers, network paths, and storage equipment, along with clustered software) enable fault tolerance for cloud deployments. These techniques can encompass multiple data centers located in different geographic regions, which prevents data unavailability due to regional failures. EMC E10-001 Student Resource Guide. Module 13: Cloud Computing
QUESTION 25
Which statement describes a denial of service attack?
A. Prevents authorized users from accessing the resources and services
B. Prohibits attempts to repair the resources and services after an attack
C. Attempts to provide false information by impersonating someone’s identity
D. Prevents unauthorized users to access the resources and services
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Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Threats are the potential attacks that can be carried out on an IT infrastructure. These attacks can be classified as active or passive. Passive attacks are attempts to gain unauthorized access into the system. They pose threats to confidentiality of information. Active attacks include data modification, denial of service (DoS), and repudiation attacks. They pose threats to data integrity, availability, and accountability. In a data modification attack, the unauthorized user attempts to modify information for malicious purposes. A modification attack can target the data at rest or the data in transit. These attacks pose a threat to data integrity. Denial of service (DoS) attacks prevent legitimate users from accessing resources and services. These attacks generally do not involve access to or modification of information. Instead, they pose a threat to data availability. The intentional flooding of a network or website to prevent
legitimate access to authorized users is one example of a DoS attack. Repudiation is an attack against the accountability of information. It attempts to provide false information by either impersonating someone’s identity or denying that an event or a transaction has taken place. For example, a repudiation attack may involve performing an action and eliminating any evidence that could prove the identity of the user (attacker) who performed that action. Repudiation attacks include circumventing the logging of security events or tampering with the security log to conceal the identity of the attacker.
QUESTION 26
What is a key benefit of virtualization?
A. Improved resource utilization
B. Improved performance
C. Enhanced interoperability
D. Unlimited resource scaling
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Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 27
What is an accurate statement about the Data Center Bridging Exchange protocol?
A. Enables Converged Enhanced Ethernet (CEE) devices to convey and configure their features with other CEE devices
B. Creates virtual FCoE links over an existing Ethernet network to transport FC frames over virtual links independently
C. Enables an FCoE switch to send signals to other FCoE switches that need to stop or slow down their transmissions
D. Enables an FCoE switch to transport both TCP/IP and FC frames over a single virtual FCoE link
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Data Center Brdiging Exchange Protocol (DCBX)
DCBX protocol is a discovery and capability exchange protocol, which helps Converged Enhanced Ethernet devices to convey and configure their features with the other CEE devices in the network. DCBX is used to negotiate capabilities between the switches and the adapters, and it allows the switch to distribute the configuration values to all the attached adapters. This helps to ensure consistent configuration across the entire network.
QUESTION 28
What is a key security consideration when a NAS device enables sharing of the same data among UNIX and Microsoft Windows users?
A. NAS device must map UNIX permissions to Windows and vice versa
B. NAS defines and maintains ownership to the objects
C. NIS server must separately maintain SIDs for UNIX and Windows environments
D. Object permissions are not defined in advance and assigned dynamically
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Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

Explanation:
Authorization defines user privileges in a network. The authorization techniques for UNIX users and Windows users are quite different. UNIX files use mode bits to define access rights granted to owners, groups, and other users, whereas Windows uses an ACL to allow or deny specific rights to a particular
user for a particular file. Although NAS devices support both of these methodologies for UNIX and Windows users, complexities arise when UNIX and Windows users access and share the same data. If the NAS device supports multiple protocols, the integrity of both permission methodologies must be
maintained. NAS device vendors provide a method of mapping UNIX permissions to Windows and vice versa, so a multiprotocol environment can be supported.

QUESTION 29 An attacker finds a web page for a target organization that supplies contact information for the company. Using available details to make the message seem authentic, the attacker drafts e-mail to an employee on the contact page that appears to come from an individual who might reasonably request confidential information, such as a network administrator. The email asks the employee to log into a bogus page that requests the employee’s user name and password or click on a link that will download spyware or other malicious programming. Google’s Gmail was hacked using this technique and attackers stole source code and sensitive data from Google servers. This is highly sophisticated attack using zero-day exploit vectors, social engineering and malware websites that focused on targeted individuals working for the company. What is this deadly attack called?
A. Spear phishing attack
B. Trojan server attack
C. Javelin attack
D. Social networking attack
Answer: A
QUESTION 30 Vulnerability scanners are automated tools that are used to identify vulnerabilities and misconfigurations of hosts. They also provide information regarding mitigating discovered vulnerabilities. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

A. Vulnerability scanners attempt to identify vulnerabilities in the hosts scanned.
B. Vulnerability scanners can help identify out-of-date software versions, missing patches, or system upgrades
C. They can validate compliance with or deviations from the organization’s security policy
D. Vulnerability scanners can identify weakness and automatically fix and patch the vulnerabilities without user intervention
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Answer: D
QUESTION 31 How does traceroute map the route a packet travels from point A to point B?
A. Uses a TCP timestamp packet that will elicit a time exceeded in transit message
B. Manipulates the value of the time to live (TTL) within packet to elicit a time exceeded in transit message
C. Uses a protocol that will be rejected by gateways on its way to the destination
D. Manipulates the flags within packets to force gateways into generating error messages
Answer: B
QUESTION 32 How do you defend against DHCP Starvation attack?

A. Enable ARP-Block on the switch
B. Enable DHCP snooping on the switch
C. Configure DHCP-BLOCK to 1 on the switch
D. Install DHCP filters on the switch to block this attack
Answer: B
QUESTION 33 What type of session hijacking attack is shown in the exhibit?
A. Cross-site scripting Attack
B. SQL Injection Attack
C. Token sniffing Attack
D. Session Fixation Attack
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Answer: D
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QUESTION NO: 32
As a user moves through the authentication process, which of the following is not used in a derivation rule?
A. MAC address
B. OS version
C. SSID
D. Radius attribute
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Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 33
Other than a user role, what attribute can be applied to a user with a derivation rule?
A. SSID
B. MAC
C. VLAN
D. IP Address
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 34
Which is an Aruba specific DSA that can be used in a user derivation rule?
A. user login name
B. authentication server
C. location
D. controller Loopback address
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Answer: C
Question No : 35 – (Topic 1)  You are developing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package to load data into a 
data warehouse.
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You need to establish the correct order for loading each table to maximize parallel processing. Which order should you use?
A.
1. DimCurrency, DimScenario, DimAccount in parallel
2. DimOrganization
3. FactFinance
B.
C.
DimCurrency, DimOrganization in parallel
2. DimScenario, DimAccount in parallel
3. FactFinance
D.
1. DimCurrency, FactFinance in parallel
2. DimOrganization, DimScenario, DimAccount in parallel
E.
1. FactFinance
2. DimOrganization, DimScenario, DimAccount in parallel
3. DimCurrency
F.
1. DimCurrency
2. DimOrganization
3. DimScenario, DimAccount in parallel
4. FactFinance
Answer: A
Explanation: References:
Question No : 36 – (Topic 1) You are designing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package that uploads a file to a table named Orders in a SQL Azure database. The company’s auditing policies have the following requirements: An entry must be written to a dedicated SQL Server log table named OrderLog. The entry must be written as soon as the file upload task completes. You need to meet the company’s policy requirements. Which event handler should you use?
A. OnPostExecute
B. OnWarning
C. OnExecStatusChanged
D. OnVariableValueChanged
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Answer: A
Question No : 37 – (Topic 1)  You are editing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package that contains three Execute SQL tasks and no other tasks. The package and all three Execute SQL tasks have their TransactionOption property set to Supported. You need to ensure that if any of the Execute SQL tasks fail, all three tasks will roll back their changes. What should you do?
A. Move the three Execute SQL tasks into a Sequence container.
B. Move the three Execute SQL tasks into a Foreach Loop container.
C. Change the TransactionOption property of all three Execute SQL tasks to Required.
D. Change the TransactionOption property of the package to Required.
Answer: D
Reference:
Question No : 38 DRAG DROP – (Topic 1)
You are developing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package. The package uses custom functionality that accesses a SQL Server database. The custom functionality must be implemented by using Language Integrated Query (LINQ). You need to ensure that the LINQ code can be debugged at design time. What should you select from the SSIS Toolbox? (To answer, drag the appropriate item to the correct location in the answer area.)
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Question No : 39 DRAG DROP – (Topic 1)  You are designing an extract, transform, load (ETL) process with SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS). Two packages, Package A and Package B, will be designed. Package A will execute Package B. Both packages must reference a file path corresponding to an input folder where files will be located for further processing. You need to design a solution so that the file path can be easily configured with the least administrative and development effort. Which four actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)
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Question No : 40 – (Topic 1)  You are creating a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package that implements a Type 3 Slowly Changing Dimension (SCD). You need to add a task or component to the package that allows you to implement the SCD logic. What should you use?
A. a Script component
B. an SCD component
C. an Aggregate component
D. a Merge component
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 41
Which match condition can be used by a server derivation rule?
A. greater than
B. less than
C. inverse of
D. contains
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Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 42
Where are Aruba Vendor Specific Attributes (VSA) programmed?
A. controller
B. client
C. authentication server
D. Internal user database
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 43
View the Server group screen shot above.
A company has provisioned the same VAP, AAA and SSID profiles at both its Miami and NY offices. This Server Group is applied for 802.1x authentication at both locations. The user’s credentials are only found in the Miami Radius server “RadiusMiami”. There is no Radius synchronization. What happens when the user attempts to authenticate?

A. The controller recognizes the users Domain and sends the authentication request directly to RadiusMiami.
B. The request is initially sent to RadiusNY1 then RadiusNY1 redirects, the controller, to send the authentication request to RadiusMiami
C. RadiusNY1 receives the request and returns a deny. No other action is taken.
D. RadiusNY1 receives the request and returns a deny. The authentications request will then be sent to RadiusMiami.
70-463 dumps 
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 44
View the Server group and User Roles screen shots above. A user associated to an SSID with 802.1x using this server group. RadiusNY returned a standard radius attribute of filter-Id with a value of “employee”. The user was placed in the guest Role. What statements below are correct?
A. The user was placed in the 802.1x authentication default Role guest
B. The user was placed in the initial Role guest
C. Role derivation failed because roles are case sensitive
D. Role derivation failed because the incorrect operation “value-of” was used
E. 802.1x authentication failed so the user was automatically placed in the guest Role
Answer: A,C
QUESTION NO: 45
View the Server group and User Roles screen shots above. A user associated to an SSID with 802.1x using this server group. RadiusNY returned a standard radius attribute of filter-Id with a value of “employee”. What Role will the user get?
A. The User will get the Emp Role
B. The user will get the 802.1x authentication default Role
C. The User will get the employee Role
D. The User will get the Employee Role
E. The User will get the initial Role
070-463 pdf 
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 46
Which profiles are required in an AP Group to enable an SSID with VLAN 1, WPA2 and LMSIP?
A. Virtual-ap
ap mesh-radio-profile
ap system profile
B. Wlan ssid-profile
ap-system-profile
virtual-ap profile
C. Virtual-ap profile
ap-system profile
aaa profile
D. 802.1X authentication profile
wlan ssid-profile
virtual-ap profile
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 47
A user connected to a Captive Portal VAP successfully. When the user opens their browser and tries to access their homepage, they get redirected as expected to another URL on the Aruba Controller. However, they see an error message that web authentication has been disabled. What might be a cause of this?
A. The Captive portal profile has not been assigned to the initial role B.
The Captive portal profile has not been assigned to the AAA profile C.
A server group has not been assigned to the captive portal profile D.
An initial role has not been assigned to the AAA profile
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 48
A customer has configured a 3000 controller with the following commands:
Vlan 55
Vlan 56
Vlan 57
Interface gigabitethernet 1/0
switchport mode trunk
switchport trunk native vlan 55
switchport trunk allowed vlan 55-57
Which of the following sentences best describes this port?
A. All traffic in vlan 55 will be dropped and all traffic in vlan 56 and 57 will be trunked with and 802.1Q tag
B. All traffic in vlan 55, 56 and 57 will be trunked with an 802.1Q tag
C. All traffic in vlan 55 will be sent with an 802.1Q tag while vlan 56 and 57 traffic will be trunked untagged
D. All traffic in vlan 56 and 57 will be sent with an 802.1Q tag while vlan 55 traffic will be trunked untagged
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 49
A customer has a remote AP deployment, where each remote AP has an IPSEC VPN tunnel with L2TP to the controller. 1 of the remote APs is stuck in the user table and hasn’t yet transitioned to the AP active table in the controller. The customer suspects that the AP is not setting up its VPN connection successfully. Which of the following commands might be useful in troubleshooting this? Select all that apply.
A. Logging level debugging security process localdb
B. Logging level debugging security process l2tp
C. Logging level debugging security process dot1x
D. Logging level debugging security process crypto
070-463 exam 
Answer: A,B,D
QUESTION NO: 50
The screen captures above show the 802.1X authentication profile and AAA profile settings for a VAP.  If machine authentication passes and user authentication passes, which role will be assigned?
A. employee
B. guest
C. contractor
D. logon
E. you can’t tell
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 51
The screen captures above show the 802.1X authentication profile and AAA profile settings for a VAP. If machine authentication fails and user authentication fails, which role will be assigned?
A. employee
B. guest
C. contractor
D. Captive Portal
E. Logon
F. no role will be assigned
70-463 dumps 
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 52
What cannot be configured from the Initial Configuration wizards?
A. Controller name.
B. Syslog server and levels.
C. User firewall policy.
D. User derivation rules.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 53
When you create a WLAN SSID in the WLAN/LAN wizard what AP group is it automatically added to?
A. The air-monitors group
B. The first configured AP group
C. The Default AP group
D. It is only added to the ‘All Profiles’ section
070-463 pdf 
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 54
The reusable wizards are accessible in which one of the following ways?
A. On startup through the CLI
B. Through the CLI, after the initial CLI wizard has been completed
C. In the Web UI under maintenance.
D. In the Web UI under configuration.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 55
What additional fields must be configured in the configuration wizard if the controller role is selected as a local instead of a standalone controller?
A. The Local’s SNMPv3 user name and password
B. The Master IP address
C. The Local’s loopback address
D. The IPSec PSK for Master/Local communication
Answer: B,D
QUESTION NO: 56
The configuration wizard enables which of the following controller clock configurations?
A. NTP to a time server
B. Manually setting the date time
C. Daylight savings time
D. Only GMT can be configured
Answer: A,B
QUESTION NO: 57
When configuring ports in the configuration wizard, which of the following are not options for configuration?
A. Inter-VLAN routing
B. Source NAT
C. Trusted
D. LACP
070-463 exam 
Answer: A,B,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 58
What Wizards can be used to create a new AP Group?
A. AP Wizard
B. Controller Wizard
C. WLAN/LAN Wizard
D. License Wizard
E. AP configurations Wizard
Answer: A,C
QUESTION NO: 59
By default, which CLI based remote access method is enabled on Aruba controllers?
A. rsh
B. Telnet
C. SSH
D. Telnet and SSH
E. Telnet, SSH and rsh
70-463 dumps 
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 60
An Aruba controller can be configured to support which CLI based remote access methods?
A. RSH
B. Telnet
C. SSH
D. Telnet and SSH
E. SSH and RSH
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 61
The Aruba controller’s Command Line Interface can be accessed from WITHIN the browser based Web User Interface using which method?
A. It’s not possible to access the CLI from within the WebUI
B. Embedded Telnet client
C. Java based SSH client
D. Proprietary serial over Ethernet client
070-463 pdf 
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 62
As an admin/root user, what other types of role-based management users can be created on Aruba controllers? (Choose all the correct answers)
A. Auditing-compliance user
B. Read only user
C. Location-api-management user
D. Guest provisioning user
Answer: B,C,D
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QUESTION 6
You need to modify the stored procedure usp_LookupConcurrentUsers. What should you do?
A. Use the summary table as an in-memory optimized table with a non-hash clustered index.
B. Use the summary table as an in-memory optimized table with a non-hash nonclustered index.
C. Use a type variable instead of the summary table.
D. Add a clustered index to the summary table.
070-464 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
You need to design the user activity table. Which three steps should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate three actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:
070-464 dumps

Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Note:
Creating a partitioned table or index typically happens in four parts:
1. Create a filegroup or filegroups and corresponding files that will hold the partitions specified by the partition scheme.
2. Create a partition function that maps the rows of a table or index into partitions based on the values of a specified column.
3. Create a partition scheme that maps the partitions of a partitioned table or index to the new filegroups.
4. Create or modify a table or index and specify the partition scheme as the storage location.
* Reorganizing an index uses minimal system resources.
* From scenario:
/ The index maintenance strategy for the user activity table must provide the optimal structure for both maintainability and query performance.
/ The CoffeeAnalytics database will combine imports of the POSTransaction and MobileLocation tables to create a user activity table for reports on the trends inactivity
. Queries against the UserActivity table will include aggregated calculations on all columns that are not used in filters or groupings.
/ When the daily maintenance finishes, micropayments that are one week old must be available for queries in the UserActivity table but will be queried most frequently within their first week and will require support for in-memory queries for data within the first week. The maintenance of the UserActivity table must allow frequent maintenance on the day’s most recent activities with minimal impact on the use of disk space and the resources available to queries. The processes that add data to the UserActivity table must be able to update data from any time period, even while maintenance is running.
* Columnstore indexes work well for mostly read-only queries that perform analysis on large data sets. Often, these are queries for data warehousing workloads. Columnstore indexes give high-performance gains for queries that use full table scans and are not well-suited for queries that seek into the data, searching for a particular value.
QUESTION 8
You need to create the user.AssignUser stored procedure. Develop the solution by selecting and arranging the required code blocks in the correct order.
You may not need all of the code blocks.

070-464 dumps

70-464 dumps Correct Answer:
070-464 dumps

Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Note:
* From scenario: The mobile application will need to meet the following requirements:
/Communicate with web services that assign a new user to a micropayment by using a stored procedure named usp_AssignUser.
* Example: create procedure dbo.OrderInsert(@OrdNo integer, @CustCode nvarchar(5)) with native_compilation, schemabinding, execute as owner as
begin atomic with (transaction isolation level = snapshot, language = N’English’) declare @OrdDate datetime = getdate(); insert into dbo.Ord (OrdNo, CustCode, OrdDate) values (@OrdNo, @CustCode, @OrdDate);
* Natively compiled stored procedures are Transact-SQL stored procedures compiled to native code that access memory-optimized tables. Natively compiled
stored procedures allow for efficient execution of the queries and business logic in the stored procedure.
* READ COMITTED versus REPEATABLE READ
Read committed is an isolation level that guarantees that any data read was committed at the moment is read. It simply restricts the reader from seeing any
intermediate, uncommitted, ‘dirty’ read. IT makes no promise whatsoever that if the transaction re-issues the read, will find the Same data, data is free to change after it was read. Repeatable read is a higher isolation level, that in addition to the guarantees of the read committed level, it also guarantees that any data read cannot change, if the transaction reads the same data again, it will find the previously read data in place, unchanged, and available to read.
* Both RAISERROR and THROW statements are used to raise an error in Sql Server. The journey of RAISERROR started from Sql Server 7.0, where as the journey of THROW statement has just began with Sql Server 2012. obviously, Microsoft suggesting us to start using THROW statement instead of RAISERROR. THROW statement seems to be simple and easy to use than RAISERROR.
* Explicit transactions. The user starts the transaction through an explicit BEGIN TRAN or BEGIN ATOMIC. The transaction is completed following the
corresponding COMMIT and ROLLBACK or END (in the case of an atomic block).
QUESTION 9
You need to implement a new version of usp_AddMobileLocation. Develop the solution by selecting and arranging the required code blocks in the correct order. You may not need all of the code blocks.
070-464 dumps

Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Note:
* From scenario:
The mobile application will need to meet the following requirements:
· Update the location of the user by using a stored procedure named usp_AddMobileLocation.
* DELAYED_DURABILITY
SQL Server transaction commits can be either fully durable, the SQL Server default, or delayed durable (also known as lazy commit).
Fully durable transaction commits are synchronous and report a commit as successful and return control to the client only after the log records for the transaction are written to disk. Delayed durable transaction commits are asynchronous and report a commit as successful before the log records for the transaction are written to disk. Writing the transaction log entries to disk is required for a transaction to be durable. Delayed durable transactions become durable when the transaction log entries are flushed to disk.
QUESTION 10
You need to redesign the system to meet the scalability requirements of the application. Develop the solution by selecting and arranging the required code blocks in the correct order. You may not need all of the code blocks.
Select and Place:
070-464 dumps

070-464 pdf Correct Answer:
070-464 dumps

Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Note:
* MEMORY_OPTIMIZED_DATA
First create a memory-optimized data filegroup and add a container to the filegroup. Then create a memory-optimized table.
* You must specify a value for the BUCKET_COUNT parameter when you create the memory- optimized table. In most cases the bucket count should be between
1 and 2 times the number of distinct values in the index key.
* Example:
— create a durable (data will be persisted) memory-optimized table — two of the columns are indexed
CREATE TABLE dbo.ShoppingCart (
ShoppingCartId INT IDENTITY(1,1) PRIMARY KEY NONCLUSTERED, UserId INT NOT NULL INDEX ix_UserId NONCLUSTERED HASH WITH
(BUCKET_COUNT=1000000),
CreatedDate DATETIME2 NOT NULL,
TotalPrice MONEY
) WITH (MEMORY_OPTIMIZED=ON)
GO
QUESTION 11
You need to optimize the index and table structures for POSTransaction. Which task should you use with each maintenance step? To answer, drag the appropriate tasks to the correct maintenance steps. Each task may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
Select and Place:
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Analyzing and Visualizing Data with Microsoft Excel

https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-70-779.aspx

QUESTION 1
From a workbook query, you import a table that has the following data.

Pass4itsure 70-779 exam questions-q1

You need to configure the table to appear as shown in the following table.

Pass4itsure 70-779 exam questions-q1-2

A. From the Format menu, click Trim.
B. From the Format menu, click Clean.
C. From the Split Column menu, click By Delimiter.
D. From the Extract menu, click Last Characters.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
You have a table that contains the following data.

Pass4itsure 70-779 exam questions-q2

You need to create a PivotTable as shown in the exhibit.

Pass4itsure 70-779 exam questions-q2-2

How should you configure the PivotTable? To answer drag the appropriate fields to the correct areas. Each field may be
used once, more than once, or not at all You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

Pass4itsure 70-779 exam questions-q2-3

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure 70-779 exam questions-q2-4

QUESTION 3
You create an Excel workbook named SalesResults.xlsx. You create a workbook query that connects to a Microsoft
SQL Server database and loads data to the data model. You create a PivotTable and a PivotChart.
You plan to share SalesResults.xlsx to several users outside of your organization.
You need to ensure that the users can see the PivotTable and the PivotChart when they open the file. The data in the
model must be removed.
What should you do?
A. Run the Document Inspector.
B. Save the workbook as an Excel Binary Workbook (.xlsb).
C. From Query Editor, open the Data Source Settings and delete the credentials.
D. Modify the source of the query.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen. You have a Power Pivot model that contains the following tables.

Pass4itsure 70-779 exam questions-q4

There is a relationship between Products and ProductCategory.
You need to create a hierarchy in Products that contains ProductCategoryName and ProductName.
Solution: You create a measure that uses the USERELATIONSHIP DAX function.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
You need to create a combo chart to display the count of orders by month and profit by month as shown in the exhibit.

Pass4itsure 70-779 exam questions-q5

How should you configure the combo chart? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each
correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Pass4itsure 70-779 exam questions-q5-2

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure 70-779 exam questions-q5-3

Order Count:Stacked column No Profit:Line Yes http://www.excel-easy.com/examples/combination-chart.html

QUESTION 6
You have an Excel spreadsheet that contains a PivotChart.
You install Microsoft Power BI Publisher for Excel.
You need to add a tile for the PivotChart to a Power BI dashboard.
What should you do?
A. From the Power BI tab in Excel, click Pin.
B. From the File menu in Excel, click Publish.
C. From powerbi.com, upload the excel workbook.
D. From powerbi.com, click Get apps.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
Your company has sales offices in several cities.
You create a table that represents the amount of sales in each city by month as shown in the exhibit.

Pass4itsure 70-779 exam questions-q7

You need to ensure that all values lower than 250 display a red icon. The solution must ensure that all values greater
than 500 display a green icon.
Solution: You modify the conditional formatting rule, and then set a new value for the yellow icon.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
You have a PivotChart template named Template1.
You add a PivotChart to a worksheet.
You need to apply the template to the PivotChart.
What should you do?
A. Right-click the chart and then click Format Chart Area.
B. Right-click the chart and then click PivotChart Options.
C. On the Format tab, click Format Selection.
D. On the Design tab, click Change Chart Type.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
You have an Excel workbook that contains two tables named User and Activity.
You plan to publish the workbook to the Power BI service.
Users will use QandA in the Power BI service to perform natural language queries.
You need to ensure that the users can query the term employee and receive results from the User table.
What should you do before you publish to Power BI?
A. From the Power Pivot model, edit the synonyms.
B. From PowerPivot Settings, modify the language options.
C. From PowerPivot Settings modify the categorization options.
D. From Workbook Connections, add a connection.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
You have the following table.

Pass4itsure 70-779 exam questions-q10

You need to create a PivotTable as shown in the following exhibit.

Pass4itsure 70-779 exam questions-q10-2

What should you do?
A. Add Product to the Rows area. Add LineTotal to the Values area twice.
B. Add LineTotal to the Rows area. Add Product to the Values area twice.
C. Add Product to the Rows area. Add LineTotal to the Columns area twice.
D. Add LineTotal to the Rows area. Add Product to the Values area twice.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same scenario, For your convenience the scenario is
repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answer choices, but the text of the scenario is
the same in each question in this series.
Start of repeated scenario
You are creating reports for a car repair company. You have four datasets in Excel spreadsheets. Four workbook
queries load the datasets to a data model. A sample of the data is shown in the Data Sample exhibit.

Pass4itsure 70-779 exam questions-q11

The data model is shown in the Data Model exhibit.

Pass4itsure 70-779 exam questions-q11-2

The tables in the model contain the following data:
DailyRepairs has a log of hours and revenue for each day, workshop, and repair type. Every day, a log entry is created
for each workshop, even if no hours or revenue are recorded for that day. Total Hours and Total Revenue are two
measures defined in DailyRepairs. Total Hours sums the Hours column, and Total Revenue sums the Revenue column.
Workshops has a list of all the workshops and the current and previous workshop managers. The format of the
Workshop Manager column is always Firstname Lastname. A value of 1 in the IsLatest column indicates that the
workshop
manager listed in the record is the current workshop manager.
RepairTypes has a list of alt the repair types.
Dates has a list of dates from 2015 to 2018.
End of repeated scenario.
You plan to analyze The average revenue per hour by combinations of day, repair type, and workshop name.
You need to create a measure to support the planned analysis.
Which DAX formula should you use? To answer, drag the appropriate values to the correct targets. Each value may be
used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

Pass4itsure 70-779 exam questions-q11-3

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure 70-779 exam questions-q11-4

QUESTION 12
You have a date column named [Date] in the format of mm-dd-yyyy.
You need to create a column named Quarter that displays the yearly quarter A sample of the desired data is shown
following table.

Pass4itsure 70-779 exam questions-q12

How should you complete the DAX formula? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each
correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Pass4itsure 70-779 exam questions-q12-2

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure 70-779 exam questions-q12-3

QUESTION 13
You have a table that contains sales data.
You need to create a PivotTable that will display the sales by country as shown in the following exhibit.

Pass4itsure 70-779 exam questions-q13

What should you use to display the icons?
A. a measure
B. conditional formatting
C. data validation
D. a KPI

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