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Designing Cisco Enterprise Wireless Networks (300-425 ENWLSD)

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List of Related Exams

  • 300-401 Implementing and Operating Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies (ENCOR)
  • 300-410 Implementing Cisco Enterprise Advanced Routing and Services (ENARSI)
  • 300-415 Implementing Cisco SD-WAN Solutions (ENSDWI)
  • 300-420 Designing Cisco Enterprise Networks (ENSLD)
  • 300-430 Implementing Cisco Enterprise Wireless Networks (ENWLSI)
  • 300-435 Automating and Programming Cisco Enterprise Solutions (ENAUTO)
  • 350-401 Implementing Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies (ENCOR)

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Designing Cisco Enterprise Wireless Networks (ENWLSD) Practice Exams Dumps Question Answers

QUESTION 1

Pass4itsure 300-425 exam questions-q1

Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about Cisco Prime Infrastructure are true? (Choose two.)
A. It presents the recommended number of APs for the selected coverage area based on the selections made.
B. Planning mode requires a special license in Cisco Prime Infrastructure.
C. It shows the map editor feature in Cisco Prime Infrastructure.
D. Controllers must be synchronized with Cisco Prime Infrastructure for planning mode to work.
E. It shows the planning mode feature in Cisco Prime Infrastructure.
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 2
An engineer is reducing the subnet size of the corporate WLAN by segmenting the VLAN into smaller subnets. Clients
will be assigned a subnet by location. Which type of groups can the engineer use to map the smaller subnets to the
corporate WLAN?
A. WLC port groups
B. RF groups
C. AP groups
D. interface groups
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3

Pass4itsure 300-425 exam questions-q3

Refer to the exhibit. What is the main reason why the Wi-Fi design engineer took a different approach than installing the
APs in the offices, even though that installation provides better coverage?
A. aesthetics
B. transmit power considerations
C. antenna gain
D. power supply considerations
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
A company wants to replace its existing PBX system with a new VoIP System that will include wireless IP phones. The
CIO has concerns about whether the company\\’s existing wireless network can support the new system. Which tool in
Cisco Prime can help ensure that the current network will support the new phone system?
A. Location Readiness
B. Site Calibration
C. Map Editor
D. Voice Readiness
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Guest anchoring is configured for a newly created SSID for your company. It has been noticed that the mobility tunnels
are not up, and that MPING fails from your foreign WLC to the anchor WLC. What is the reason that it is failing?
A. A rule is needed at the firewall to allow UDP port 16666 for communication to work.
B. A rule is needed at the firewall to allow UDP port 97 for communication to work.
C. A rule is needed at the firewall to allow TCP port 97 for communication to work.
D. A rule is needed at the firewall to allow TCP port 16666 for communication to work.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
A wireless engineer is designing a wireless network to support real-time applications over wireless. Which IEEE protocol
mus the engineer enable on the WLC so that the number of packets that are exchanged between an access point and
client are reduced and fast roaming occurs?
A. 802.11w
B. 802.11r
C. 802.11i
D. 802.11k
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
A technician connects a Cisco Aironet 3700 Series access point to a switch and realizes that the AP is coming up with
3×3 MIMO. Which reason explains this behavior?
A. A redundant power supply is unavailable on the switch.
B. The switch is 802.3af capable.
C. The AP is getting power from a power injector.
D. The switch is PoE+ capable.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which non-Wi-Fi interferer can be identified by Metageek Chanalyzer?
A. PDAs
B. jammers
C. smartphones
D. printers
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
A network engineer is configuring high availability on an access point. What is the maximum number of controllers that
can be configured?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
A university is in the process of designing a wireless network in an auditorium that seats 500 students and supports
student laptops. Which design methodology should the university implement in the auditorium?
A. roaming design model
B. voice design model
C. location design model
D. high-density design model
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
A customer has determined that aesthetics is a primary concern for their upcoming guest deployment. Which design
consideration can be leveraged to address this concern?
A. Paint the access point to cover the LED from being noticeable.
B. Use enclosures to hide the wireless infrastructure in the surrounding environment.
C. Use AIR-AP-BRACKET-1 to allow for greater mounting locations
D. Deploy environmentally friendly cabling components to blend into the environment.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
As part of a wireless site survey in a hospital, an engineer needs to identify potential Layer 1 interferers. In which two
areas is the engineer most likely to find sources of 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz RF noise? (Choose two.)
A. magnetic resonance imaging
B. kitchen
C. Gamma Knife radiation treatment
D. X-ray radiography
E. patient room
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 13
What causes the most signal attenuation, based on the wireless design tools?
A. cinder block wall
B. metal door
C. glass wall
D. office window
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
When designing interdomain multicast, which two protocols are deployed to achieve communication between multicast
sources and receivers? (Choose two.)
A. IGMPv2
B. BIDIR-PIM
C. MP-BGP
D. MSDP
E. MLD
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 2
A network engineer must connect two sites across a public network using a secure tunneling technology that supports
multicast traffic. Which technology must be chosen?
A. IPsec
B. GRE
C. PPTP
D. GRE over IPsec
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3

Pass4itsure 300-420 exam questions-q3

Refer to the exhibit. Which solution decreases the EIGRP convergence time?
A. Enable subsecond timers
B. Increase the hold time value
C. Increase the dead timer value
D. Enable stub routing on the spokes
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which solution allows overlay VNs to communicate with each other in an SD-WAN Architecture?
A. External fusion routers can be used to map VNs to VRFs and selectively route traffic between VRFs.
B. GRE tunneling can be configured between fabric edges to connect one VN to another.
C. SGTs can be used to permit traffic from one VN to another.
D. Route leaking can be used on the fabric border nodes to inject routes from one VN to another.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
A company is using OSPF between its HQ location and a branch office. HQ is assigned area 0 and the branch office is
assigned area 1. The company purchases a second branch office, but due to circuit delays to HQ, it decides to connect
the new branch office to the creating branch office as a temporary measure. The new branch office is assigned area 2.
Which OSPF configuration enables all three locations to exchange routes?
A. The existing branch office must be configured as a stub area
B. A virtual link must be configured between the new branch office and HQ
C. A sham link must be configured between the new branch office and HQ
D. The new branch office must be configured as a stub area
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
What are two benefits of designing an SD-WAN network fabric with direct Internet access implemented at every site?
(Choose two.)
A. It decreases latency to applications hosted by public cloud service provider.
B. It decreases latency on Internet circuits.
C. It increases the speed of delivery of site deployments through zero-touch provisioning.
D. It increases the total available bandwidth on Internet circuits.
E. It alleviates network traffic on MPLS circuits.
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 7
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the properties from the left onto the protocols they describe on the right.

Pass4itsure 300-420 exam questions-q7

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure 300-420 exam questions-q7-2

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/iosxml/ios/prog/configuration/166/b_166_programmability_cg/b_166_programmability_cg_chapter_01011.html 

QUESTION 8
An engineer is working with NETCONF and Cisco NX-OS based devices. The engineer needs a YANG model that
supports a specific feature relevant only to Cisco NX-OS. Which model must the engineer choose?
A. Native
B. IEEE
C. OpenConfig
D. IETF
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
An engineer is looking for a standards-driven YANG model to manage a multivendor network environment. Which model
must the engineer choose?
A. Native
B. OpenConfig
C. IETF
D. IEEE NETCONF
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
An engineer must design a multicast network for a financial application. Most of the multicast sources also receive
multicast traffic (many-to-many deployment model). To better scale routing tables, the design must not use source trees.
Which multicast protocol satisfies these requirements?
A. PIM-SSM
B. PIM-SM
C. MSDP
D. BIDIR-PIM
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Which two best practices must be followed when designing an out-of-band management network? (Choose two.)
A. Enforce access control
B. Facilitate network integration
C. Back up data using the management network
D. Ensure that the management network is a backup to the data network
E. Ensure network isolation
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 12
Which routes does the overlay management protocol advertise in an SD-WAN overlay?
A. underlay, MPLS, and overlay
B. primary, backup, and load-balanced
C. prefix, TLOC, and service
D. Internet, MPLS, and backup
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
A branch office has a primary L3VPN MPLS connection back to the main office and an IPSEC VPN tunnel that serves
as backup. Which design ensures that data is sent over the backup connection only if the primary MPLS circuit is
down?
A. Use EIGRP to establish a neighbor relationship with the main office via L3VPN MPLS and the IPSEC VPN tunnel.
B. Use BGP with the multipath feature enabled to force traffic via the primary path when available.
C. Use static routes tied to an IP SLA to prefer the primary path while a floating static route points to the backup
connection.
D. Use OSPF with a passive-interface command on the backup connection.
Correct Answer: C

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Effective Cisco 200-301 exam practice questions(1-13)

QUESTION 1
What is the default behavior of a Layer 2 switch when a frame with an unknown destination MAC address is received?
A. The Layer 2 switch forwards the packet and adds the destination MAC address to its MAC address table.
B. The Layer 2 switch sends a copy of a packet to CPU for destination MAC address learning.
C. The Layer 2 switch floods packets to all ports except the receiving port in the given VLAN.
D. The Layer 2 switch drops the received frame.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which command verifies whether any IPv6 ACLs are configured on a router?
A. show ipv6 interface
B. show access-list
C. show ipv6 access-list
D. show ipv6 route
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Refer to exhibit.

Pass4itsure 200-301 exam questions-q3

Which statement explains the configuration error message that is received?
A. It belongs to a private IP address range.
B. The router does not support /28 mask.
C. It is a network IP address.
D. It is a broadcast IP address.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
What are two characteristics of a controller-based network? (Choose two.)
A. It uses Telnet to report system issues.
B. The administrator can make configuration updates from the CLI.
C. It uses northbound and southbound APIs to communicate between architectural layers.
D. It decentralizes the control plane, which allows each device to make its own forwarding decisions.
E. It moves the control plane to a central point.
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 5
Which command is used to specify the delay time in seconds for LLDP to initialize on any interface?
A. lldp timer
B. lldp tlv-select
C. lldp reinit
D. lldp holdtime
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst2960/software/release/12-2_37_ey/configuration/guide/scg/swlldp.pdf

QUESTION 6
Two switches are connected and using Cisco Dynamic Trunking Protocol. SW1 is set to Dynamic Auto and SW2 is set
to Dynamic Desirable. What is the result of this configuration?
A. The link becomes an access port.
B. The link is in an error disabled state.
C. The link is in a down state.
D. The link becomes a trunk port.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop AAA functions from the left onto the correct AAA services on the right.
Select and Place:

Pass4itsure 200-301 exam questions-q7

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure 200-301 exam questions-q7-2

QUESTION 8
Which command is used to configure an IPv6 static default route?
A. ipv6 route ::/0 interface next-hop5
B. ipv6 route default interface next-hop
C. ipv6 route 0.0.0.0/0 interface next-hop
D. ip route 0.0.0.0/0 interface next-hop
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Order the DHCP message types as they would occur between a DHCP client and a DHCP server.Select and Place:

Pass4itsure 200-301 exam questions-q9

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure 200-301 exam questions-q9-2

QUESTION 10
Which of the following is the JSON encoding of a dictionary or hash?
A. {“key”:“value”}
B. [“key”,“value”]
C. {“key”,“value”}
D. (“key”:“value”)
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
In which way does a spine-and-leaf architecture allow for scalability in a network when additional access ports are
required?
A. A spine switch and a leaf switch can be added with redundant connections between them.
B. A spine switch can be added with at least 40 GB uplinks.
C. A leaf switch can be added with connections to every spine switch.
D. A leaf switch can be added with a single connection to a core spine switch.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
How can the Cisco Discovery Protocol be used?
A. to allow a switch to discover the devices that are connected to its ports
B. to determine the hardware platform of the device
C. to determine the IP addresses of connected Cisco devices
D. all of the above
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
DRAG DROP

Pass4itsure 200-301 exam questions-q13

Refer to the exhibit. Drag and drop the networking parameters from the left onto the correct values on the right.
Select and Place:

Pass4itsure 200-301 exam questions-q13-2

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure 200-301 exam questions-q13-3

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  • 300-415 ENSDWI – Implementing Cisco SD-WAN Solutions (SDWAN300)
  • 300-420 ENSLD – Designing Cisco Enterprise Networks (ENSLD)
  • 300-425 ENWLSD – Designing Cisco Enterprise Wireless Networks (ENWLSD)
  • 300-430 ENWLSI – Implementing Cisco Enterprise Wireless Networks (ENWLSI)
  • 300-435 ENAUTO – Implementing Automation for Cisco Enterprise Solutions (ENAUI)

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Correct Answer: B
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/sales-enterprise/add-product-quoteorder-invoice

QUESTION 4
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the
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You are a Dynamics 365 for Sales system customizer.
You need to set up LinkedIn Sales Navigator Lead (member profile) on the Lead form.
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Does the solution meet the goal?
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B. No
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You need to create a process that meets the following requirements:
Create an order from a quote.
Close the associated opportunity as won.
Update the actual values to reflect values from the quote.
Which two opportunities can you close as won? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. NOTE: Each correct
selection is worth one point.
A. The opportunity has other quotes in the won status.
B. The opportunity has other quotes in the draft status.
C. The opportunity has other quotes in the active status.
D. The opportunity has other quotes in the revised status reason.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 6
A customer places an order that includes all of the products from a previous order.
You need to add products from the previous order to the new order.
From which sources can you retrieve the list of products? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Pass4itsure Microsoft mb-210 exam questions q6

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Pass4itsure Microsoft mb-210 exam questions q6-2

QUESTION 7
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the
review screen.
A customer recently visited one of your retail outlets. You created an opportunity for the customer for a large purchase.
The customer is now ready to complete the purchase.
You need to create a quote from the opportunity.
Solution: Qualify the opportunity.
Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/developer/convert-opportunity-quotesales-order-invoice

QUESTION 8
You are an administrator for Dynamics 365 for Sales.
You need to ensure that a user can install and configure the Social Selling Assistant.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Grant the user the sales manager role
B. Assign the user a license for Microsoft Dynamics 365 (online) or Microsoft Social Engagement
C. Assign the user a license for both Microsoft Dynamics 365 (online) and Microsoft Social Engagement
D. Grant the user the system administrator or system customizer role
Correct Answer: CD
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/previous-versions/dynamicscrm-2016/administeringdynamics-365/mt793319(v=crm.8)

QUESTION 9
An organization uses Dynamics 365 for Sales.
You need to create a quote template in Microsoft Word for use in the organization.
What should you do?
A. Create a flow
B. Enable dynamic content in Microsoft Word
C. Enable the Developer tab in Microsoft Word
D. Enable VBA in Microsoft Word
Correct Answer: C
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/admin/using-word-templates-dynamics-365

QUESTION 10
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the
review screen.
You use business process flows for all Dynamics 365 opportunities.
Some opportunities are closed before business process flow durations are calculated.
You need to ensure that business process flow duration values are calculated.
Solution: On the last stage of the business process flow, select Finish.
Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
You are a Dynamics 365 administrator.
A sales manager changes the target goal for a salesperson from $26,000.00 to $20,000.00. However, the currency
symbol changes from $ to ? Other managers are not experiencing this issue.
You need to fix the currency symbol for the sales manager.
What should you change?
A. the default currency in personal options
B. the currencies in settings
C. the currency display option in system settings
D. the current format in personal options
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
You manage the Dynamics 365 environment for Contoso, Ltd. A rule automatically creates a lead associated with an email when an email is sent to [email protected]
You need to ensure that the marketing manager receives an email each time an email request is sent to
[email protected]
How should you configure the rule? To answer, drag the appropriate actions to the correct requirements. Each action
may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view
content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

Pass4itsure Microsoft mb-210 exam questions q12

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure Microsoft mb-210 exam questions q12-2

QUESTION 13
You work in a sales role for an organization that uses Dynamics 365. You are managing an opportunity for a potential
customer.
You need to create a quote that automatically includes all the products from the opportunity.
What should you do?
A. Convert the opportunity to a quote
B. Create a new quote from the customer
C. Create a new quote from the opportunity
D. Create a new quote with the opportunity price list
Correct Answer: A
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/developer/convert-opportunity-quotesales-order-invoice

New Microsoft Dynamics 365 certifications are:

  1. MB-200 Microsoft Dynamics 365 Customer Engagement Core
  2. MB-210 Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Sales
  3. MB-220 Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Marketing
  4. MB-230 Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Customer Service
  5. MB-240 Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Field Service
  6. MB-300 Microsoft Dynamics 365 Unified Operations Core
  7. MB-310 Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations, Financials
  8. MB-320 Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations, Manufacturing
  9. MB-330 Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations, Supply Chain Management
  10. MB-900 Microsoft Dynamics 365 Fundamentals

Exam Video:Microsoft Dynamics 365 Sales(MB-210 )

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What should you know? Microsoft MTA 98-365 Exam

  • Understanding server installation (10–15%)
  • Understanding server roles (25–30%)
  • Understanding Active Directory (20–25%)
  • Understanding storage (10–15%)
  • Understanding server performance management (10–15%)
  • Understanding server maintenance (15–20%)

Candidates should have some hands-on experience with Windows Server, Windows-based networking, Active Directory, account management, and system recovery tools and concepts.

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Questions & Answers for Microsoft 98-365 Online

Online: Showing 1-13 Questions

QUESTION 1
You need to manage a Windows Server 2016 server from a Windows client computer by using a Management Console.
What should you install on the client computer?
A. Remote Assistance
B. Remote Server Administration Tools
C. Windows Server Resource Kit
D. Microsoft Office SharePoint Server
Correct Answer: B
Example: Remote Server Administration Tools for Windows 8.1 enables IT administrators to manage roles and features
that are installed on computers that are running Windows Server 2012 or Windows Server 2012 R2 from a remote
computer that is running Windows 8.1 Pro or Windows 8.1 Enterprise.

QUESTION 2
You work as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. The company has a Windows Server 2016 Active Directorybased network. The company has three departments named Sales, Purchase, and Marketing.
You are required to create organizational units (OU) structure for each department in the network.
Which of the following are the reasons for defining an OU? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.
Choose all that apply.
A. To delegate administration.
B. To administer domain controllers.
C. To hide objects.
D. To administer group policy.
Correct Answer: ACD
Organizational units (OUs) are defined to delegate administration, to administer group policy, or to hide objects.
Delegating administration is the prime reason for defining OUs.

QUESTION 3
Which of the following master roles is used for synchronizing cross-domain group membership changes?
A. Domain Naming Master role
B. Infrastructure Master role
C. Schema Master role
D. RID Master role
Correct Answer: B
The Infrastructure Master role is used for synchronizing cross-domain group membership changes. Incorrect Answers:
A: The Domain Naming Master role is used for controlling the addition and removal of domains from the forest if they
are present in the root domain.
C: The Schema Master role is used for controlling and handling updates and modifications to the Active Directory
schema.
D: The RID Master role is used for allocating pools of unique identifiers to domain controllers for use when creating
objects.

QUESTION 4
You work as a Server Administrator for company Inc. The company has a Windows Server 2016 network environment.
All client computers on the network run the Windows 10 Pro operating system. All servers of the company run Windows
Server 2016.
You want to create a VHD file on Windows Server 2016 in order to specify a virtual machine hard disk.
Which of the following tools will you use to accomplish the task? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.
(Choose two.)
A. DiskPart
B. Disk Management MMC snap-in
C. FDISK
D. BCDEdit
Correct Answer: AB
In order to accomplish the task, you should use the DiskPart and Disk Management MMC snap-in tools. These tools
help create a VHD file on Windows Server 2016 for specifying a virtual machine hard disk.

QUESTION 5
You maintain backup schedules for a Windows Server 2016 server. Some users store vital information on their local
hard drives.
You need to include the users\\’ data when you perform nightly backups of the server.
Which built-in process should you use?
A. Agent backup
B. Folder redirection
C. Local backup schedules
D. System state data backup
Correct Answer: B
Use folder redirection to store the vital information on a network share instead. Then it will be easy to backup this data.
Note: Folder Redirection lets administrators redirect the path of a folder to a new location. The location can be a folder
on the local computer or a directory on a network file share. Users can work with documents on a server as if the
documents were based on a local drive.
References: Folder Redirection Overview https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc732275.aspx

QUESTION 6
You work as a Server Administrator for company Inc. You are responsible for troubleshooting various issues that come
in on a day-to-day basis from the local and remote locations.
Which of the following tools will you use to determine the time and type of the problem occurred in a particular system?
A. Task Manager
B. Performance Monitor
C. Event Viewer
D. Resource Monitor
Correct Answer: C
In order to determine the time and type of the problem occurred in a particular system, you should use the Event
Viewer.
The Event Viewer allows checking of the log of multiple servers.
Diagnostic logging helps in figuring out problems on several servers (with the databases on those servers), and for the
diagnostic logging, the user can view event logs with the Event Viewer in Windows or the Web Event Viewer in
SharePoint
Central Administration.
Incorrect Answers:
A: A task manager is a program used to provide information about the processes and programs running on a computer,
as well as the general status of the computer. It can also be used to terminate processes and programs, as well as
change the processes priority. The task manager is most commonly accessed by pressing the buttons Control-AltDelete. Task manager also displays all the services that are currently running as well as those that were stopped. All
information\\’s about the services such as Process ID and their group if they are applicable.
B: Performance Monitor is a Windows tool that monitors system and network resources. It is used to get statistical data
about hardware and software components of a server.
D: Resource Monitor is a suite of administration tools designed to provide a quick overview of a single user interface. It
acts as a mediator between the Cluster service and the resource dynamic link library. It can be launched from the start menu or from the Task Manager using the Performance tab. Resource Monitor can be accessed by searching in the
Reliability and Performance monitor.

QUESTION 7
Which of the following alerts gets generated when any server or client computer in the network has low disk space,
which is less than 10% available across all volumes?
A. Network Services Alerts
B. Server Event Log Alerts
C. User Performance Alerts
D. Performance Counter Alerts
Correct Answer: D
Performance Counter Alerts is generated by default when any server or client computer in the network has low disk
space, which is less than 10% available across all volumes.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Network Services Alerts is generated by default when Windows monitors network services that are set to start
automatically, and then it generates an alert if the service stops. These services are critical to the functioning of the
network.
B: Server Event Log Alerts gets generated when Windows monitors a specific set of events across the event logs. If any
of the events are detected, an alert is generated and displayed in the Other Alerts section of the reports.
C: There is no such alert as User Performance alerts in Windows.

QUESTION 8
Which of the following represents the primary function of a server?
A. To provide the server role in the organization\\’s network.
B. To provide client access to the organization\\’s network.
C. To provide services to client computers on the organization\\’s network.
D. To prevent unauthorized access to the organization\\’s network.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
You need to assign permissions to access resources. Which type of group should you use?
A. Workgroup
B. Security group
C. Organizational group
D. Distribution group
Correct Answer: B
Security groups control access to the Workgroup server\\’s functionality.

QUESTION 10
Which of the following tools will you use to quickly diagnose potential causes of instability of your system so that you
can apply updates in a targeted manner, rather than attempting a reconfiguration after the occurrence of unexpected
changes in system behavior?
A. Server Manager
B. Task Manager
C. Windows Server Update Services
D. Windows Reliability and Performance Monitor
Correct Answer: D
You should use Windows Reliability and Performance Monitor to quickly diagnose potential causes of instability of your
system so that you can apply updates in a targeted manner, rather than attempting a reconfiguration after the
occurrence of unexpected changes in system behavior. Reliability Monitor tracks the system\\’s reliability over time and
shows events that could potentially compromise that reliability.

QUESTION 11
Which of the following statements are true about a device driver? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.
Choose all that apply.
A. Device drivers are software-dependent and do not depend on operating systems.
B. It allows higher-level computer programs to interact with a hardware device.
C. It is a program or software that controls a particular device.
D. It works as a translator between the device and the operating system and programs that use the device.
Correct Answer: BCD
A device driver is a program or software that controls a particular device. It works as a translator between the device
and the operating system and programs that use the device. It provides an interface between a hardware device and
operating systems and application software.
It allows higher-level computer programs to interact with a hardware device. When an application needs data from a
device, it requests the data from OS, which in turn, send a command request to the device driver. Drivers are hardware-dependent and operating-system-specific. They usually provide the interrupt handling required for any necessary
asynchronous time-dependent hardware interface.

QUESTION 12
Which of the following types of resource record is generally used with virtual servers that point to several servers
offering network load balancing to distribute work?
A. MX
B. SRV
C. SOA
D. CNAME
Correct Answer: D
CNAME (canonical name) is a resource record that creates an alias or an alternate DNS domain name for a specific
hostname. This resource record is generally used with virtual servers that point to several servers that offer network
load balancing in order to distribute work.
Incorrect Answers:
A: MX (mail exchanger) is used to specify which mail exchanger to contact for a specified domain and in what order to
use each mail host.
B: SRV (service) locates servers that are hosting a particular service, including LDAP servers or domain controllers.
C: SOA (Start of Authority) identifies the name server that is the authoritative source of information for a DNS domain or
zone.

QUESTION 13
What are two functions of the Group Policy loopback feature? (Choose two.)
A. Apply Group Policy Objects for only the current site.
B. Apply Group Policy Objects that depend only on the computer the user logs on to.
C. Apply only the local computer Group Policy Object.
D. Give higher precedence to computer policy over user policy.
Correct Answer: BD
Loopback processing of Group Policy has two different modes, Replace and Merge. References:
http://kudratsapaev.blogspot.se/2009/07/loopback-processing-of-group-policy.html

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Cisco 300-135 Online Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
Drag the GRE tunnel state from the left onto its corresponding scenario on the right.
Select and Place:pass4itsure 300-135 exam question q1

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure 300-135 exam question q1-1

 

QUESTION 2
You examine the port statistics on a Cisco Catalyst switch and notice an excessive number of frames are being
dropped. Which of the following are possible reasons for the drops?
A. Unknown destination MAC address
B. Bad cabling
C. MAC forwarding table is full
D. Port configured for half duplex
E. Port configured for full duplex
F. Network congestion
Correct Answer: BF

 

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit. Which command will allow the administrator to log in using the device database authentication?pass4itsure 300-135 exam question q3

A. aaa authentication login default local
B. aaa authorization network default local
C. aaa authentication login default enable
D. aaa authorization exec default local
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 4
What is the result if you configure two devices with the ntp server command?
A. Nothing will happen until one of the devices is configured with the prefer parameter.
B. The NTP protocol will determine which server is most reliable and will synchronize to that server.
C. The device with the highest priority will become the active server and the other device will become the backup
server.
D. The device with the lowest MAC address will become the active server and the other device will become the backup
server.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 5
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a ‘proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client
2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241.
After several changes to the network addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity,
FHRP services, and device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the
209.65.200.241 address.
Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
On which device is the fault condition located?
A. R1
B. R2
C. R3
D. R4
E. DSW1
F. DSW2
G. ASW1
H. ASW2
Correct Answer: D
On R4, in the redistribution of EIGRP routing protocol, we need to change name of routemap to resolve the issue. It
references route-map OSPF_to_EIGRP but the actual route map is called OSPF->EIGRP. Since Client 1 is able to ping
the near-end interface of the router R4 but not the far-end interface, we can be reasonably certain that the fault
condition is with R4.

 

QUESTION 6
The implementation group has been using the test bed to do an IPv6 \\’proof-ofconcept1.
After several changes to the network addressing and routing schemes, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that
the loopback address on R1 (2026::111:1) is not able to ping the loopback address on DSW2 (2026::102:1).
The fault condition is related to which technology?
A. NTP
B. IP DHCP Server
C. IPv4 OSPF Routing
D. IPv4 EIGRP Routing
E. IPv4 Route Redistribution
F. IPv6 RIP Routing
G. IPv6 OSPF Routing
H. IPV4 and IPV6 Interoperability
I. IPv4 layer 3 security
Correct Answer: G
As explained earlier, the problem is with route redistribution on R4 of not redistributing RIP routes into OSPF for IPV6.

 

QUESTION 7
Configuration on R1 interface Serial0/0/1 description Link to ISP ip address 209.65.200.224 255.255.255.252 ip nat
outside ip access-group edge_security in ! ip access-list extended edge_security deny ip 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 any
deny ip 172.16.0.0 0.15.255.255 any deny ip 192.168.0.0 0.0.255.255 any deny 127.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 any permit ip
host 209.65.200.241 any !
What is the solution of the fault condition?
A. add permit ip 209.65.200.224 0.0.0.3 any command to R1s ACL
B. Under the BGP process, bgp confederation identifier 65001 command
C. Delete the current BGP process and reenter all of the commands using 65002 as the AS number.
D. Under the BGP process, delete the neighbor 209.56.200.226 remote-as 65002 command enter the neighbor
209.65.200.226 remote-as 65002 command.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 8
Output showing line VTY 0 4 config with an access list applied `ip access-class 1 in\\’
ip access list permit tcp any any eq 22 ip access list permit tcp any any telnet Cisco engineer is trying to setup secure
access to the router but why is SSH failing?
A. access-list needs to be applied with access-group command.
B. access-list only allows telnet access.
C. They\\’re needed to be transport input ssh on line vty 0 4
D. https://www.pass4itsure.com/300-125.html
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 9
What is the ping response to a transmitted echo that needed to be fragmented and fragmentation was not allowed?
A. U
B. M
C. …
D. D
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit.pass4itsure 300-135 exam question q10

PC was not configured to obtain default-gateway from the DHCP server. What can we do for PC to access the Internet?
A. Configure static ARP in gateway router
B. Configure dynamic ARP in gateway router
C. Configure proxy-ARP in gateway router
D. https://www.pass4itsure.com/300-135.html
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 11
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a ‘proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client
2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241.
After several changes to the network addressing, routing schemes, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity,
FHRP services, and device security, a trouble ticket has been opened DSW1 will not become the active router for
HSRP
group 10.
Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
What is the solution to the fault condition?
A. Under the interface vlan 10 configuration enter standby 10 preempt command.
B. Under the track 1 object configuration delete the threshold metric up 1 down 2 command and enter the threshold
metric up 61 down 62 command.
C. Under the track 10 object configuration delete the threshold metric up 61 down 62 command and enter the threshold
metric up 1 down 2 command.
D. Under the interface vlan 10 configuration delete the standby 10 track1 decrement 60 command and enter the standby
10 track 10 decrement 60 command.
Correct Answer: D
On DSW1, related to HSRP, under VLAN 10 change the given track 1 command to instead use the track 10 command.
The reason that router DSW1 will not become the active router is because it is configured to track the 10.1.21.128
255.255.0.0 network. It should have been configured to track the 10.2.21.128 255.255.255.0 network. This can be fixed
by
replacing the Change “standby 10 track 1 decrement 60” command with the “standby 10 track 10 decrement 60”
command.

 

QUESTION 12
If you want to use GRE with IPSec which is compatible with NAT traversal?
A. MD5 mode
B. SHA mode
C. IPsec tunnel mode
D. tunnel transport
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 13
—Output from config–service password-encryption ! line console password a123124 ! line vty 0 4 password asdfasf12
login transport input telnet ! What will happen if client A will telnet to this device.
A. Telnet will be successful
B. Telnet will fail because of missing user database
C. Telnet will fail because of missing aaa new model
D. Telnet will fail because only ssh is allowed
Correct Answer: A

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Cisco 300-101 Online Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
A network administrator notices that the BGP state drops and logs are generated for missing BGP hello keepalives.
What is the potential problem?
A. Incorrect neighbor options
B. Hello timer mismatch
C. BGP path MTU enabled
D. MTU mismatch
Correct Answer: D
BGP neighbors form; however, at the time of prefix exchange, the BGP state drops and the logs generate missing BGP
hello keepalives or the other peer terminates the session.
Here are some possible causes:
*The interface MTU on both routers do not match.
*The interface MTU on both routers match, but the Layer 2 domain over which the BGP session is formed does not
match.
*Path MTU discovery determined the incorrect max datasize for the TCP BGP session. *The BGP Path Maximum
Transmission Unit Discovery (PMTUD) could be failing due to PMTUD ICMP packets blocked (firewal or ACL) http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/border-gateway-protocol-bgp/116377-troubleshoot-bgp-mtu.html

 

QUESTION 2
What are two protocols used for user with authentication on network device? (OR)
What are two options for authenticating a user who is attempting to access a network device?(Choose two)
A. CHAP
B. Radius
C. 802.1x
D. PAP
E. TACACS+
Correct Answer: BE

 

QUESTION 3
You have a router has some interface configured with 10Gb interface and giga interface. Which command you use to
optimize higher BW ?
A. (config)#router ospf 1 (config-router)auto-cost reference-bandwidth 10000
B. (config)#router ospf 1 (config-router)auto-cost reference-bandwidth 1000
C. (config)#int f0/0 (config-int)auto-cost reference-bandwidth 1000
D. (config)#int f0/0 (config-int)auto-cost reference-bandwidth 10000
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 4
Which two protocols are used to deploy a single Hub-DMVPN supporting Spoke-to Spoke tunnels? (Choose Two)
A. MPLS
B. RSVP
C. NHRP
D. BFB
E. Multipoint GR
Correct Answer: CE

 

QUESTION 5
Which two actions are common methods for migrating a network from one protocol to another? (Choose two)
A. redistributing routes from the current routing protocol to the new routing protocol
B. removing the current routing protocol and implementing the new routing protocol
C. changing the relative administrative distances of the two routing protocols
D. changing the network IP addresses and bringing up the new IP addresses using the new routing protocol
E. disabling IP routing globally and implementing the new routing protocol
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 6
Which feature is supported with stateful NAT64 ?
A. IP multicast
B. NAT44 and NAT64 on the same interface
C. VRF
D. FTP and ICMP on an application layer gateway
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit. Which command would verify if PBR reacts to packets sourced from 172.16.0.0/16?pass4itsure 300-101 exam question q7

A. show ip route
B. show policy-map
C. show access-lists
D. show route-map
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 8
An organization decides to implement NetFlow on its network to monitor the fluctuation of traffic that is disrupting core
services. After reviewing the output of NetFlow, the network engineer is unable to see OUT traffic on the interfaces.
What can you determine based on this information?
A. Cisco Express Forwarding has not been configured globally.
B. NetFlow output has been filtered by default.
C. Flow Export version 9 is in use.
D. The command ip flow-capture fragment-offset has been enabled.
Correct Answer: A
We came across a recent issue where a user setup a router for NetFlow export but was unable to see the OUT traffic for
the interfaces in NetFlow Analyzer. Every NetFlow configuration aspect was checked and nothing incorrect was found.
That is when we noticed the `no ip cef\\’ command on the router. CEF was enabled at the global level and within
seconds, NetFlow Analyzer started showing OUT traffic for the interfaces. This is why this topic is about Cisco Express
Forwarding.
What is switching?
A Router must make decisions about where to forward the packets passing through. This decision-making process is
called “switching”. Switching is what a router does when it makes the following decisions:
1.
Whether to forward or not forward the packets after checking that the destination for the packet is reachable.
2.
If the destination is reachable, what is the next hop of the router and which interface will the router use to
get to that destination.
What is CEF?
CEF is one of the available switching options for Cisco routers. Based on the routing table, CEF creates its own table,
called the Forwarding Information Base (FIB). The FIB is organized differently than the routing table and CEF uses the
FIB
to decide which interface to send traffic from. CEF offers the following benefits:
1.
Better performance than fast-switching (the default) and takes less CPU to perform the same task.
2.
When enabled, allows for advanced features like NBAR
3.
Overall, CEF can switch traffic faster than route-caching using fast-switching How to enable CEF?
CEF is disabled by default on all routers except the 7xxx series routers. Enabling and Disabling CEF is easy. To enable
CEF, go into global configuration mode and enter the CEF command.
Router# config t
Router(config)# ip cef
Router(config)#
To disable CEF, simply use the `no\\’ form of the command, ie. `no ip cef`.
Why CEF Needed when enabling NetFlow ?
CEF is a prerequisite to enable NetFlow on the router interfaces. CEF decides through which interface traffic is exiting
the router. Any NetFlow analyzer product will calculate the OUT traffic for an interface based on the Destination
Interface
value present in the NetFlow packets exported from the router. If the CEF is disabled on the router, the NetFlow packets
exported from the router will have “Destination interface” as “null” and this leads NetFlow Analyzer to show no OUT
traffic for the interfaces. Without enabling the CEF on the router, the NetFlow packets did not mark the destination
interfaces and so NetFlow Analyzer was not able to show the OUT traffic for the interfaces

 

QUESTION 9
The Cisco SA 500 Series Security Appliances are built specifically for businesses with less than 100 employees. What
are three important benefits of this device? (Choose three.)
A. business-grade firewall
B. premium support via SMART net
C. site-to-site VPN for remote offices
D. Cisco IOS software-based
E. email security
F. XML support
Correct Answer: ACE

 

QUESTION 10
Which Cisco IOS VPN technology leverages IPsec, mGRE, dynamic routing protocol, NHRP, and Cisco Express
Forwarding?
A. FlexVPN
B. DMVPN
C. GETVPN
D. Cisco Easy VPN
Correct Answer: B
Dynamic Multipoint Virtual Private Network (DMVPN) is a dynamic tunneling form of a virtual private network (VPN)
supported on Cisco IOS-based routers and Unix-like Operating Systems based on the standard protocols, GRE, NHRP
and
Ipsec. This DMVPN provides the capability for creating a dynamicmesh
VPN network without having to pre-configure (static) all possible tunnel end-point peers, including Ipsec (Internet
Protocol Security) and ISAKMP (Internet Security Association and Key Management Protocol) peers. DMVPN is initially
configured to build out a hub-and-spoke network by statically configuring
the hubs (VPN headends) on the spokes, no change in the configuration on the hub is required to accept new spokes.
Using this initial hub-and-spoke network, tunnels between spokes can be dynamically built on demand (dynamic-mesh)
without additional configuration on the hubs or spokes. This dynamic-mesh capability alleviates the need for any load on
the hub to route data between the spoke networks.
DMVPN is combination of the following technologies:
Multipoint GRE (mGRE)
Next-Hop Resolution Protocol (NHRP)
Dynamic Routing Protocol (EIGRP, RIP, OSPF, BGP)
Dynamic Ipsec encryption
Cisco Express Forwarding (CEF)
Reference: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dynamic_Multipoint_Virtual_Private_Network

 

QUESTION 11
What are two differences between SNMP traps and SNMP informs? (Choose two)
A. Only informs provide a confirmation of receipt
B. Informs are more reliable than traps because they require a TCP three-way handshake
C. Only traps are discarded after delivery
D. Traps are more reliable than informs because they generate PDUs from the network manager
E. Only informs are discarded after delivery
Correct Answer: AE

 

QUESTION 12
Click and drag the correct techniques for transitioning networks or devices from IPv4 to IPv6 from the left to the target
zone on the right.
Select and Place:pass4itsure 300-101 exam question q12

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure 300-101 exam question q12-1

 

QUESTION 13
Which address is used by the Unicast Reverse Path Forwarding protocol to validate a packet against the routing table?
A. source address
B. destination address
C. router interface
D. default gateway
Correct Answer: A
The Unicast RPF feature helps to mitigate problems that are caused by the introduction of malformed or forged
(spoofed) IP source addresses into a network by discarding IP packets that lack a verifiable IP source address. For
example, a number of common types of denial-of-service (DoS) attacks, including Smurf and Tribal Flood Network
(TFN), can take advantage of forged or rapidly changing source IP addresses to allow attackers to thwart efforts to
locate or filter the attacks. For Internet service providers (ISPs) that provide public access, Unicast RPF deflects such
attacks by forwarding only packets that have source addresses that are valid and consistent with the IP routing table.
This action protects the network of the ISP, its customer, and the rest of the Internet. Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/ios/12_2/security/configuration/guide/scfrpf.html

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How do I pass the Cisco 300-101 exam? You need to be prepared for it!
You need the latest and most effective learning materials and proper practices to pass the 300-101 exam. “This exam certifies the routing knowledge and skills of successful candidates. They are certified in using advanced IP addressing and routing in implementing scalable and highly secure Cisco routers that are connected to LANs, WANs, and IPv6”. Pass4itsure offers you the latest exam materials! You can use the materials to prepare to help you achieve excellent results!

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How To Pass CompTIA A+ 220-902 Certification Exam

Get the CompTIA A+ 220-902 Certification Exam.”CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Objectives”: https://www.pass4itsure.com/220-902.html (Q&As: 1534). Free CompTIA A+ 220-902 exam practice test. Improve your skills and exam experience!

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Valid information provided by CompTIA officials

220-902 – CompTIA IT Certifications: https://certification.comptia.org/docs/default-source/exam-objectives/comptia-a-220-902-exam-objectives.pdf

About the Exam

Candidates are encouraged to use this document to help prepare for CompTIA A+ 220-902. In order to receive the CompTIA A+ certification, you must pass two exams: 220-901 and 220-902. CompTIA A+ 220-902 measures the necessary skills for an entry-level IT professional. Successful
candidates will have the knowledge required to:

  • Assemble components based on customer requirements
  • Install, configure and maintain devices, PCs, and software for end-users
  • Understand the basics of networking and security/forensics
  • Properly and safely diagnose, resolve and document common hardware and software issues
  • Apply troubleshooting skills
  • Provide appropriate customer support
  • Understand the basics of virtualization, desktop imaging, and deployment

These content examples are meant to clarify the test objectives and should not be construed as a comprehensive listing of all the content of this examination

The latest CompTIA A+ 220-902 exam practice questions test your strength

QUESTION 1
A technician receives a helpdesk ticket about an employee having a problem sending text messages with a company
Android smartphone. It has been determined that it is not a carrier issue. Which of the following should the technician
perform FIRST?
A. Verify data connectivity
B. Reformat the MicroSD card
C. Replace the SIM card
D. Perform a soft restore
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
A team needs to deploy a temporary server room at a site to provide support during construction. Which of the following
should they use at this site while setting up the server room?
A. Air filters
B. Privacy screens
C. Vacuums
D. ESD mats
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
A user reports that the PC is not working. After questioning the user, the technician believes the problem is a bad
memory module. Which of the following is the NEXT step the technician should take?
A. Document findings, actions, and outcomes
B. Test the theory by replacing the motherboard
C. Test the theory by running memory diagnostic software
D. Verify the system is working correctly
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Ann, a home user, brings a Windows XP PC in for repair and reports that several disk read errors are occurring. She
has run check disk and errors have been reported several times. Which of the following should a technician
recommend? (Select TWO).
A. Increase the amount of RAM to improve disk checks
B. Backup all data on the drive
C. Upgrade to a home server
D. Purchase a new hard drive
E. Change the drive configuration to RAID 0
F. Upgrade to Windows 7 Professional
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 5
A technician is troubleshooting a PC with multiple volumes. To verify which are active and assigned drive letters, the
technician should use the LIST function of which of the following commands?
A. extract
B. diskpart
C. bootrec
D. chkdsk
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Which of the following operating systems can be upgraded using an in-place procedure to Windows 7 Professional
x64?
A. Windows Vista Professional x86
B. Windows 7 Enterprise x64
C. Windows 7 Starter x86
D. Windows 7 Home Premium x64
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which of the following can cause a popup box to display on a laptop, alerting a user that they have performed the same
action 5 times, and asking them to click OK to enable this feature?
A. Lock indicator lights
B. Flickering display
C. Ghost cursor
D. Sticky keys
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
When installing Hyper-V, which of the following is a hardware requirement?
A. 64-bit processor
B. 32GB of RAM
C. 1TB of storage space
D. Multi-display video card
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
A technician arrives on site to find that two users who have the same model of smartphone are having the same issue
with a specific application. Whenever they attempt to launch the application, it fails and gives an error message. Which
of the following should the technician do NEXT?
A. Reinstall the application
B. Roll back the application to the earlier version
C. Clear the application cache
D. Update the OS of the smartphones
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
An electrical fire starts in a PC on a crowded sales floor of an office building. Which of the following is the BEST way to
extinguish the fire and keep all personnel safe?
A. Use a large container filled with water
B. Use a “C” labeled fire extinguisher
C. Use an “A” labeled fire extinguisher
D. Use a “B” labeled fire extinguisher
E. Use a halon fire suppression system
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
For the last year, a company has gathered statistics on the most common security incidents. The highest percentage
deals with opening email attachments that contain malware. Which of the following would mitigate this issue without
reducing productivity?
A. Annual cyber security education
B. Update antivirus signatures more often
C. Block all email attachments
D. Install an IPS on each workstation
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
A Windows PC suffered a bad update, so a systems administrator removed the update. Which of the following tools
should the systems administrator run to ensure the Windows files are not corrupted?
A. MSConfig
B. Sfc
C. Defrag
D. Chkdsk
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://support.microsoft.com/en-us/help/929833/use-the-system-file-checker-tool-to-repair-missing-or-corrupted-system

QUESTION 13
A user has become a victim of data harvesting. The user wants to know more about the potential for mobile device
application security issues. Which of the following settings should a technician advise the user to change on the user\\’s
mobile device? (Select three.)
A. Location tracking
B. Camera activation
C. Data transmission limit
D. System lockouts
E. Developer options
F. Accessibility
G. Synchronization
H. Storage
Correct Answer: AFH

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The latest CompTIA A+ 220-902 dumps, online 220-902 practice test questions, pass the 220-902 exam: https://www.pass4itsure.com/220-902.html (Q&As: 1534). Boost exam skills Share 220-902 pdf and 220-902 Youtube videos for free

How To Pass Oracle SQL and PL-SQL 1z0-148 Certification Exam

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Oracle Database: Advanced PL/SQL | 1Z0-148: https://education.oracle.com/oracle-database-advanced-pl-sql/pexam_1Z0-148

The latest Oracle SQL and PL-SQL 1z0-148 exam practice questions test your strength

QUESTION 1
Which two statements are correct in Oracle Database 12c?
A. For native compilation, PLSQL_OPTIMIZE_LEWVEL should be set to 2.
B. Native compilation is the default compilation method
C. Native compilation should be used during development.
D. Natively compiles code is stored in the SYSTEM tablespace.
E. To change a PL/SQL object from interpreted to native code, set the PLSQL_CODE_TYPE to NATIVE and recompile
it.
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 2
Examine this external function declaration:
CREATE FUNCTION compare_and_sum(p1 PLS_INTEGER, p2 IN PLS_INTEGER, p3 IN OUT NUMBER)
RETURN PLS_INTEGER
AS LANGUAGE C LIBRARY mylib
NAME “compareAndSum” WITH CONTEXT;
Which C function does it publish?
A. OCINumber * compareAndSum (OCIExtProcContext *ctx, OCINumber *p1, OCINumber *p2, OCINumber *p3);
B. OCINumber compareAndSum (OCIExtProcContext *ctx, OCINumber p1, OCINumber p2, OCINumber *p3);
C. int compareAndSum (OCIExtProcContext *ctx, int p1, int p2, OCINumber *p3);
D. int compareAndSum (OCIExtProcContext *ctx, int p1, int p2, OCINumber p3);
E. int compareAndSum (OCIExtProcContext *ctx, int p1, int p2, int p3);
F. int compareAndSum (OCIExtProcContext *ctx, int p1, int p2, int* p3);
G. OCINumber compareAndSum (OCIExtProcContext *ctx, OCINumber p1, OCINumber p2, OCINumber p3);
Correct Answer: F

QUESTION 3
Identify three guidelines for the DBMS_ASSERT package. (Choose three.)
A. Prefix all calls to DBMS_ASSERT with the SYS schema name.
B. Embed DBMS_ASSERT verification routines inside the injectable string.
C. Escape single quotes when you use the ENQUOTE_LITERAL procedure.
D. Define and raise exceptions explicitly to handle DBMS_ASSERT exceptions.
E. Prefix all calls to DBMS_ASSERT with a schema name that owns the subprogram that uses the DBMS_ASSERT
package.
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 4
DATA_FILES is a directory object that contains the DETAILS.TXT text file.
You have the required permissions to access the directory object.
You create a table using the following command:
CREATE TABLE clob_tab(col2 CLOB);
View the Exhibit and examine the PL/SQL block that you execute for loading the external text file into the table that
currently has no rows. The PL/SQL block results in an error.
What correction must be done to ensure the PL/SQL block executes successfully?pass4itsure 1z0-148 exam question q4

A. The L_OUT variable must be initialized to an empty locator.
B. The L_OUT variable has to be declared as a temporary LOB.
C. The A_CLOB variable has to be declared as a temporary LOB.
D. The clause RETURNING col2 INTO a_clob should be added to the INSERT statement to correctly initialize the
locator.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
You issue this command to create a table called LOB_STORE:
CREATE TABLE lob_store
(lob_id NUMBER(3),
photo BLOB DEFAULT EMPTY_BLOB(),
cv CLOB DEFAULT NULL,
ext_file BFILE DEFAULT NULL)
/
What is the outcome?
A. The table is created successfully.
B. It generates an error because DEFAULT cannot be set to EMPTY_BLOB() during table creation.
C. It generates an error because DEFAULT cannot be set to null for a CLOB column during table creation.
D. It generates an error because DEFAULT cannot be set to null for a BFILE column during table creation.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which statement is true about internal and external LOBs?
A. An external LOB can be loaded into an internal LOB variable using the DBMS_LOB package.
B. A NOEXIST_DIRECTORY exception can be raised when using internal and external LOBs.
C. Internal and external LOBs can be written using DBMS_LOB.
D. After an exception transfers program control outside a PL/SQL block, all references to open external LOBs are lost.
E. When using DBMS_LOB.INSTR for internal and external LOBs, DBMS_LOB.OPEN should be called for each LOB.
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 7
View the Exhibit and examine the PL/SQL code.
The code takes a long time to execute. What would you recommend to improve performance?pass4itsure 1z0-148 exam question q7

A. using NOT NULL constraint when declaring the variables
B. using the BULK COLLECT option for query instead of cursor
C. using WHILE.. END LOOP instead of FOR .. END LOOP
D. using the SIMPLE_INTEGER data type instead of the NUMBER data type
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the EMPLOYEES table.
Examine the following PL/SQL block for storing the salary of all sales representatives from the EMPLOYEES table in an
associative array:
1 DECLARE
2 emp_cv SYS_REFCURSOR;
3 TYPE list IS TABLE OF emp_cv;
4 sals list;
5 BEGIN
6 OPEN emp_cv FOR SELECT salary FROM employees
7 WHERE job_id = \\’SA_REP\\’;
8 FETCH emp_cv BULK COLLECT INTO sals;
9 CLOSE emp_cv;
10 END;
What should you correct in the above code to ensure that it executes successfully?

pass4itsure 1z0-148 exam question q8

A. Replace EMP_CV in line 3 with employees.salary%TYPE.
B. Replace line 2 with TYPE refcur IS REF CURSOR; emp_cv refcur;.
C. Replace BULK COLLECT in line 8 with the OPEN, FETCH, LOOP, and CLOSE statements.
D. Replace line 2 with TYPE refcur IS REF CURSOR RETURN employees.salary%TYPE; emp_cv refcur;.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which two statements are true about the DBMS_LOB.CREATETEMPORARY procedure that is used to create a
temporary LOB? (Choose two.)
A. It can be used for transforming data in permanent internal LOBs.
B. It is used only for the migration of BasicFile to the SecureFile format.
C. It is used only for the migration of the LONG column to the LOB column.
D. It creates a LOB variable that is not associated with any table and is stored in the user\\’s temporary tablespace.
E. It creates a LOB variable that is associated with a specific table and is temporarily stored in the user\\’s default
tablespace.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 10
You have an external C procedure stored in a dynamic-link library (DLL). The C procedure takes an integer as argument
and returns an integer. You want to invoke the C procedure through a PL/SQL program.
View the Exhibit.
Which statement is true about the C_OUTPUT PL/SQL program?pass4itsure 1z0-148 exam question q10

A. It invokes the external C procedure.
B. It only publishes the external C procedure.
C. It fails because the external C procedure is not published.
D. It fails because the input data type is BINARY_INTEGER and the external C procedure expects an integer.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the EMPLOYEES table.
Examine the following PL/SQL block for storing the salary of all sales representatives from the EMPLOYEES table in an
associative array:
1 DECLARE
2 emp_cv SYS_REFCURSOR;
3 TYPE list IS TABLE OF emp_cv;
4 sals list;
5 BEGIN
6 OPEN emp_cv FOR SELECT salary FROM employees
7 WHERE job_id = \\’SA_REP\\’;
8 FETCH emp_cv BULK COLLECT INTO sals;
9 CLOSE emp_cv;
10 END;
What should you correct in the above code to ensure that it executes successfully?

pass4itsure 1z0-148 exam question q11

A. Replace EMP_CV in line 3 with employees.salary%TYPE.
B. Replace line 2 with TYPE refcur IS REF CURSOR; emp_cv refcur;.
C. Replace BULK COLLECT in line 8 with the OPEN, FETCH, LOOP, and CLOSE statements.
D. Replace line 2 with TYPE refcur IS REF CURSOR RETURN employees.salary%TYPE; emp_cv refcur;.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Which two statements are true about the usage of the DBMS_DESCRIBE.DESCRIBE_PROCEDURE procedure?
(Choose two.)
A. You can describe remote objects.
B. You can describe anonymous PL/SQL blocks.
C. You can describe a stored procedure, stored function, packaged procedure, or packaged function.
D. You can obtain information about the position, name, and data type of the arguments of a procedure.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 13
View the Exhibit and examine the procedure to create a trigger name based on the table name supplied to the
procedure. Which three statements are appropriate for protecting the code in the procedure from SQL injection?
(Choose three.)pass4itsure 1z0-148 exam question q13

A. Explicitly validate the identifier length limit.
B. Add AUTHID DEFINER to the definition of the procedure.
C. Use PRAGMA RESTRICT_REFERENCES in the procedure.
D. Filter out control characters in user-supplied identifier names.
E. Use the object ID of the table from the data dictionary to build the trigger name.
Correct Answer: ADE

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