Latest CompTIA Linux+ Powered by LPI LX0-104 exam dumps,LX0-104 pdf | 100% Free

Passcertguide provides practical and effective CompTIA Linux+ Powered by LPI LX0-104 exam questions and Answers,
free LX0-104 pdf download online. All exam resources come from Pass4itsure CompTIA experts. Pass4itsure is the ultimate source of
preparation through the CompTIA Linux+ Powered by LPI LX0-104 exam. Welcome to download the latest pass4itsure LX0-104 VCE dump
and LX0-104 PDF Dump: https://www.pass4itsure.com/LX0-104.html (828 Q&As)

[PDF] Free CompTIA Linux+ Powered by LPI LX0-104 dumps download from Google Drive:
https://drive.google.com/open?id=16vNE9JNAPLrVOMo8vQXXxYtKNWzd7mc1

[PDF] Free Full CompTIA dumps download from Google Drive:
https://drive.google.com/open?id=1SnVb1WLCtG5umIgtJ4zeNNSpuAFWZ3yg

LX0-104 – CompTIA IT Certifications:
https://certification.comptia.org/docs/default-source/exam-objectives/comptia-linux-powered-by-lpi-(lx0-104).pdf

About the exam:

Candidates are encouraged to use this document to prepare for the CompTIA Linux+ LX0-104 exam. In
order to receive CompTIA Linux+ certification, a candidate must pass two exams: CompTIA Linux+ LX0-103
and CompTIA Linux+ LX0-104. The CompTIA Linux+ certification offers a framework for acquiring working
knowledge of Linux for IT professionals working as junior-level systems administrators, as well as those
working in web and software development. Successful candidates will have the following skills:

Work at the Linux command line

Perform easy maintenance tasks including assisting users, adding users to a larger system,
executing backup & restore and shutdown & reboot

Install and configure a workstation (including X) and connect it to a LAN, or a stand-alone PC via
modem to the Internet in the design of capture solutions, while addressing security requirements

Pass4itsure offers the latest CompTIA Linux+ Powered by LPI LX0-104 practice test free of charge (40Q&As)

QUESTION 1
What is true regarding the statement beginning with #! that is found in the first line of a script?
A. It prevents the script from being executed until the ! is removed.
B. It specifies the path and the arguments of the interpreter used to run the script.
C. It is a comment that is ignored by the script.
D. It specifies the character encoding of the script.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which Bash option prevents a user from accidentally overwriting a file with a “>”?
A. set -o safe
B. set -o noglob
C. set -o noclobber
D. set -o append
E. set -o nooverwrite
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Which of the following commands prints the exit value of the most recently executed program in Bash?
A. echo $?
B. echo $#
C. echo $exit
D. echo $status
E. echo $&
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which of the following SQL statements will select the fields name and address from the contacts table?
A. SELECT (name, address) FROM contacts;
B. SELECT (name address) FROM contacts;
C. SELECT name, address FROM contacts;
D. SELECT name address FROM contacts;
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Which of the following configuration files should be modified to globally set shell variables for all users?
A. /etc/bashrc
B. /etc/profile
C. ~/.bash_profile
D. /etc/.bashrc
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Which of the following commands are used to manage the environment and shell variables within a shell
process? (Choose TWO correct answers.)A. export
B. init
C. reset
D. set
E. tset
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 7
Which of the following are operators used for comparisons by the test command? (Choose TWO correct
answers.)
A. equals
B. =
C. -is
D. -eq
E. null
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 8
Which of the following commands creates a function in Bash that outputs the sum of two numbers?
A. function sumitup { echo $(($1 + $2)) ; }
B. command sumitup { echo $(($1 + $2)) ; }
C. function sumitup { echo $1 + $2 ; }
D. method sumitup { echo $1 + $2 ; }
E. command sumitup { echo $1 + $2 ; }
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
What output will the following command sequence produce?
echo ‘1 2 3 4 5 6’ | while read a b c; do echo result: $c $b $a; done
A. result: 3 4 5 6 2 1
B. result: 1 2 3 4 5 6
C. result: 6 5 4
D. result: 6 5 4 3 2 1
E. result: 3 2 1
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
When the command echo $? outputs 1, which of the following statements are true?
A. It is the process ID of the echo command.
B. It is the process ID of the current shell.
C. It is the exit value of the command executed immediately before echo.
D. It is the exit value of the echo command.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Which command makes the shell variable named VARIABLE visible to subshells?A. export $VARIABLE
B. export VARIABLE
C. set $VARIABLE
D. set VARIABLE
E. env VARIABLE
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
What output will the command seq 10 produce?
A. A continuous stream of numbers increasing in increments of 10 until stopped.
B. The numbers 1 through 10 with one number per line.
C. The numbers 0 through 9 with one number per line.
D. The number 10 to standard output.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Which of the following files, when existing, affect the behavior of the Bash shell? (Choose TWO correct
answers.)
A. ~/.bashconf
B. ~/.bashrc
C. ~/.bashdefaults
D. ~/.bash_etc
E. ~/.bash_profile
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 14
After issuing:
function myfunction { echo $1 $2 ; }
in Bash, which output does:
myfunction A B C
Produce?
A. A B
B. A B C
C. A C
D. B C
E. C B A
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
Which of the following commands puts the output of the command date into the shell variable mydate?
A. mydate=”$(date)”
B. mydate=”exec date”
C. mydate=”$((date))”
D. mydate=”date”E. mydate=”${date}”
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
What is the purpose of the sticky keys feature in X?
A. To assist users who have difficulty holding down multiple keys at once.
B. To prevent repeated input of a single character if the key is held down.
C. To ignore brief keystrokes according to a specified time limit.
D. To repeat the input of a single character.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
On a machine running several X servers, how are the different instances of the X11 server identified?
A. By a fixed UUID that is defined in the X11 configuration file.
B. By a unique IPv6 address from the fe80::/64 subnet.
C. By the name of the user that runs the X server like x11:bob.
D. By a device name like /dev/X11/xservers/1.
E. By a display name like:1.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 18
What is the purpose of the xhost program?
A. Grant or revoke access to a X11 session.
B. Install all packages and video drivers required to run X11 on a host.
C. Start the X11 server and announce its availability within the local network.
D. Send informational messages to all users logged into a host using X11.
E. Display the MOTD and other important information when a user logs in via X11.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
What of the following statements is true regarding a display manager?
A. A display manager handles remote X11 logins only and has no purpose on a system that is not
attached to a network.
B. The display manager is configured in the X11 configuration file xorg.conf.
C. There is only one display manager X11DM that must be started on all systems running X11.
D. After system startup, the display manager handles the login of a user.
E. Without a display manager, no graphical programs can be run.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 20
How is a display manager started?
A. It is started by a user using the command startx.
B. It is started like any other system service by the init system.
C. It is started by inetd when a remote hosts connects to the X11 port.
D. It is started automatically when a X11 user logs in to the system console.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 21
In which file, if present, must all users be listed that are allowed to use the cron scheduling system?
(Specify the full name of the file, including path.)
Correct Answer: /etc/cron.allow

QUESTION 22
In which file, if present, must all users be listed that are allowed to use the cron scheduling system?
(Specify the full name of the file, including path.)
Correct Answer: /etc/cron.allow

QUESTION 23
Which command is used to add an empty group to the system? (Specify ONLY the command without any
path or parameters.)
Correct Answer: groupadd, /usr/sbin/groupadd

QUESTION 24
Which command, available with all MTAs, is used to list the contents of the MTA’s mail queue? (Specify
ONLY the command without any path or parameters.)
Correct Answer: mailq, /usr/bin/mailq, sendmail -bp, /usr/sbin/sendmail -bp, /usr/lib/sendmail – bp,
sendmail, /usr/sbin/sendmail, /usr/lib/sendmail

QUESTION 25
Please specify the top directory containing the configuration files for the CUPS printing system. (Specify
the full path to the directory.)
Correct Answer: /etc/cups, /etc/cups/

QUESTION 26
Which command is used to manually assign an IP address to a network interface? (Specify ONLY the
command without any path or parameters.)
Correct Answer: ifconfig, /sbin/ifconfig, ip, /sbin/ip

QUESTION 27
What is the assigned port number for the HTTP service? (Specify the port number using digits.)
Correct Answer: 80

QUESTION 28
Given the following line from /etc/nsswitch.conf:
hosts: files mdns4_minimal [NOTFOUND=return] dns mdns4
By default, which file will be queried first for hostname lookups? (Specify the full name of the file, including
path.)
Correct Answer: /etc/hosts

QUESTION 29
What is the name of the file that defines the sources (like DNS or local configuration files) and the order in
which they are consulted when resolving hostnames? (Specify the full name of the file, including path.)
Correct Answer: /etc/nsswitch.conf

QUESTION 30
How many IP-addresses can be used for unique hosts inside the IPv4 subnet 192.168.2.128/28? (Specify
the number only without any additional information.)
Correct Answer: 14

QUESTION 31
What is the lowest numbered unprivileged TCP port? (Specify the number in digits only.)
Correct Answer: 1024

QUESTION 32
Which command, depending on its options, can display the open network connections, the routing tables,
as well as network interface statistics. (Specify ONLY the command without any path or parameters.)
Correct Answer: netstat, /bin/netstat, ss, /usr/bin/ss

QUESTION 33
Which port is the default server port for the HTTPS protocol? (Specify the port number using digits.)
Correct Answer: 443

QUESTION 34
Which keyword must be listed in the hosts option of the Name Service Switch configuration file in order to
make host lookups consult the /etc/hosts file?
Correct Answer: files

QUESTION 35
In an xinetd configuration file, which attribute specifies the network address that will be used to provide the
service?
Correct Answer: bind, interface

QUESTION 36
What argument to the -type option of find will match files that are symbolic links? (Specify only the
argument and no other options or words.)
Correct Answer: l

QUESTION 37
With X11 forwarding in ssh, what environment variable is automatically set in the remote host shell that is
not set when X11 forwarding is not enabled? (Specify only the environment variable without any additional
commands or values.)
Correct Answer: DISPLAY, $DISPLAY

QUESTION 38
The presence of what file will temporarily prevent all users except root from logging into the system?
(Specify the full name of the file, including path.)
Correct Answer: /etc/nologin

QUESTION 39
Instead of using specific host names or IP addresses, which string can be used in /etc/hosts.allow entries
to cover any remote host no matter of its name or address? (Specify the relevant string only without any
additional options or arguments.)
Correct Answer: ALL

QUESTION 40
Which command is used to add OpenSSH private keys to a running ssh-agent instance? (Specify the file
name only without any path.)
Correct Answer: ssh-add, /usr/bin/ssh-add

Conclusion:

Passcertguide free LX0-104 exam dumps is to help you open the door to learning, if you are only interested in LX0-104 or other
networks please pay attention to us for a long time, we will share more free content, if you want to easily pass the exam to get
the certificate, please select the complete
LX0-104 PDF dumps and LX0-104 VCE dumps:https://www.pass4itsure.com/LX0-104.html Pass4itsure can now help you troubleshoot LX0-104
exam certification issues. Because we are the best LX0-104 exam problem training materials provider, all of our candidates get LX0-104
exams without any problems.

[PDF] Free CompTIA Linux+ Powered by LPI LX0-104 dumps download from Google Drive:
https://drive.google.com/open?id=16vNE9JNAPLrVOMo8vQXXxYtKNWzd7mc1

[PDF] Free Full CompTIA dumps download from Google Drive:
https://drive.google.com/open?id=1SnVb1WLCtG5umIgtJ4zeNNSpuAFWZ3yg

Pass4itsure Promo Code 15% Off

pass4itsure LX0-104 coupon

related: https://www.passcertguide.com/latest-microsoft-070-483-dumps-visual-studio-exam/

Latest CompTIA Network+ n10-005 exam dumps,n10-005 pdf | 100% Free

Passcertguide provides practical and effective CompTIA network+ n10-005 exam questions and Answers,
free n10-005 pdf download online. All exam resources come from Pass4itsure CompTIA experts. Pass4itsure is the ultimate source of
preparation through the CompTIA network+ n10-005 exam. Welcome to download the latest pass4itsure n10-005 VCE dump
and n10-005 PDF Dump: https://www.pass4itsure.com/n10-005.html (828 Q&As)

[PDF] Free CompTIA Network+ n10-005 dumps download from Google Drive:
https://drive.google.com/open?id=1PogSmnrI5Rw2nERhmsR2BnYu6jEBdT_I

[PDF] Free Full CompTIA dumps download from Google Drive:
https://drive.google.com/open?id=1SnVb1WLCtG5umIgtJ4zeNNSpuAFWZ3yg

Certification Exam Objectives: N10-005 – CompTIA IT Certifications:
https://certification.comptia.org/docs/default-source/exam-objectives/comptia_network_n10-005.pdf

About the exam:

The CompTIA Network+ certification is an internationally recognized validation of the technical
knowledge required of foundation-level IT network practitioners.
Test Purpose: This exam will certify that the successful candidate has the knowledge and skills
required to implement a defined network architecture with basic network security. Furthermore, a
successful candidate will be able to configure, maintain, and troubleshoot network devices using
appropriate network tools and understand the features and purpose of network technologies.
Candidates will be able to make basic solution recommendations, analyze network traffic, and be
familiar with common protocols and media types.

Pass4itsure offers the latest CompTIA Network+ n10-005 practice test free of charge (68Q&As)

Exam F
QUESTION 1
Which of the following protocols works at the LOWEST layer of the OSI model?
A. L2TP
B. PPTP
C. ISAKMP
D. IPSec
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Layer Two Tunneling Protocol (L2TP) is an extension of the Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol (PPTP) used by an Internet service provider (ISP) to
enable the operation of a virtual private network (VPN) over the Internet.

QUESTION 2
An employee connects to a work computer from home via the built-in Windows remote desktop connection.
Which of the following is MOST likely being used to establish the connection?
A. RDP
B. RTP
C. RIP
D. RAS
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) is a proprietary protocol developed by Microsoft, which provides a user with a graphical interface to connect to another computer
over a network connection. The user employs RDP client software for this purpose, while the other computer must run RDP server software.

QUESTION 3
Discover, Offer, Request, and Acknowledge are the steps for which of the following protocols?
A. DNS
B. DOS
C. DHCP
D. DSL
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
When we install a dhcp server into our network then dhcp server works on the basis of dora process first dhcp server sends a hello message in to the network to
discover the clients pc and when any client pc found in the network then, dhcp server offers the IP to client pc. When client pc selects any IP from dhcp server
then client pc request for selected IP to dhcp server then dhcp server provide that IP to client pc and both send ackonledgement to each other.

QUESTION 4
Which of the following commands displays the routing table on a server or workstation?
A. nbtstat
B. route
C. traceroute
D. nmap
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The route command allows you to make manual entries into the network routing tables. The route command distinguishes between routes to hosts …

QUESTION 5
At which of the following layers of the OSI model does ASCII work?
A. Session
B. Transport
C. Presentation
D. Application
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The presentation layer is responsible for the delivery and formatting of information to the application layer for further processing or display. It relieves the
application layer of concern regarding syntactical differences in data representation within the end-user systems. An example of a presentation service would be
the conversion of an EBCDIC-coded text computer file to an ASCII-coded file.

QUESTION 6
Which of the following uses port 23 by default?
A. TELNET
B. IMAP
C. FTP
D. SNMPCorrect Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Telnet is a network protocol used on the Internet or local area networks to provide a bidirectional interactive text-oriented communication facility using a virtual
terminal connection. User data is interspersed in-band with Telnet control information in an 8-bit byte oriented data connection over the Transmission Control
Protocol (TCP).

QUESTION 7
Assigning the same IP address to a network device is which of the following?
A. SSID
B. Scope
C. Reservation
D. Lease
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
You might want to assign network printers and certain servers DHCP reservations to ensure that they always have the same IP address, but continue to receive
updated configuration information from the DHCP server. For example, create reservations for servers that must always have the same IP address.

QUESTION 8
At which of the following layers do frames exist? (Select TWO).
A. OSI model Data link layer
B. TCP/IP model Network Interface layer
C. OSI model Physical layer
D. OSI model Network layer
E. TCP/IP model Internet layer
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The data link layer is concerned with local delivery of frames between devices on the same LAN. Data-link frames, as these protocol data units are called, do not
cross the boundaries of a local network. Inter-network routing and global addressing are higher layer functions, allowing data-link protocols to focus on local
delivery, addressing, and media arbitration. In this way, the data link layer is analogous to a neighborhood traffic cop; it endeavors to arbitrate between parties
contending for access to a medium, without concern for their ultimate destination.

QUESTION 9
A user is unable to access any network resources. The IP configuration of the workstation is as follows:
IP Address: 192.168.10.32
Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240
Default Gateway: 192.168.10.46
Which of the following would allow the user to connect to network resources?
A. Change the default gateway to 192.168.10.1
B. Change the default gateway to 192.168.10.254
C. Change the IP address to 192.168.10.31
D. Change the IP address to 192.168.10.33
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The given ip address is network id which we don’t assign to the host so the next ip is applicable to this.

QUESTION 10
Which of the following DNS records is used to identify a domain’s SMTP server?
A. CNAME
B. PTR
C. MX
D. A
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A mail exchanger record (MX record) is a type of resource record in the Domain Name System that specifies a mail server responsible for accepting email
messages on behalf of a recipient’s domain, and a preference value used to prioritize mail delivery if multiple mail servers are available. The set of MX records of
a domain name specifies how email should be routed with the Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP).

QUESTION 11
Which of the following TCP ports are used by FTP? (Select TWO).
A. 20
B. 21
C. 22
D. 23
E. 25
F. 80
Correct Answer: ABExplanation
Explanation/Reference:
FTP uses two ports by default: 21 for sending commands, and 20 for sending data. For instance if you said “FTP <ServerName>” it would make the attempt using
port 21. If the session was established, port 20 would be using for the data. NotE. These are the default ports which is what I assume you were asking. A server
administrator can however configure FTP to use whatever port he defines.

QUESTION 12
Which of the following protocols is MOST commonly used for the transfer of router configuration files?
A. SSL
B. TFTP
C. DNS
D. IMAP
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP) is a file transfer protocol notable for its simplicity. It is generally used for automated transfer of configuration or boot files
between machines in a local environment. Compared to FTP, TFTP is extremely limited, providing no authentication, and is rarely used interactively by a user.

QUESTION 13
Which of the following protocols resolves IP addresses to MAC addresses?
A. DNS
B. ARP
C. RARP
D. NTP
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
ARP is used to convert an IP address to a physical address such as an Ethernet address. ARP has been implemented with many combinations of network and
data link layer technologies, such as IPv4, Chaosnet, DECnet and Xerox PARC Universal Packet (PUP) using IEEE 802 standards, FDDI, X.25, Frame Relay and
Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM). IPv4 over IEEE 802.3 and IEEE 802.11 is the most common case.

QUESTION 14
Which of the following port numbers is used for SNMP?
A. 61
B. 151
C. 161
D. 1611
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) is an “Internet-standard protocol for managing devices on IP networks”. Devices that typically support SNMP
include routers, switches, servers, workstations, printers, modem racks, UPSes and more. It is used mostly in network management systems to monitor network-
attached devices for conditions that warrant administrative attention.

QUESTION 15
Which of the following is the definition of a DNS server?
A. Hosts proprietary business applications
B. Translates FQDN’s to IP addresses
C. Provides network IDS/IPS security
D. Assigns IP addresses to network devices
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Domain Name System (DNS) is the name resolution protocol for TCP/IP networks, such as the Internet. Client computers query a DNS server to resolve
memorable, alphanumeric DNS names to the IP addresses that computers use to communicate with each other.

QUESTION 16
Which of the following features can BEST be used to facilitate authorized remote access to a network?
A. VPN concentrator
B. Proxy server
C. Content filter
D. Load balancer
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The VPN Concentrator is used for Remote Access VPN’s. In typical use, a Remote Access VPN allows users to use an encrypted tunnel to securely access a
corporate or other network via the Internet.

QUESTION 17
Which of the following is a Class A IP address?
A. 10.4.0.1B. 169.254.0.1
C. 192.168.0.1
D. 254.200.0.1
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Class A ip address ranges from 10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255

QUESTION 18
A network where all traffic feeds through a centralized gateway uses which of the following topologies?
A. Peer-to-peer
B. Ring
C. Bus
D. Star
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A bus topology is a type of network setup where each computer and network device is connected to a single cable or backbone.

QUESTION 19
In order to limit the number of dynamic addresses of hosts on a network, which of the following can be implemented?
A. Scope options
B. Leases
C. Reservations
D. DNS suffixes
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 20
Which of the following switch features allows for both incoming and outgoing data across physical ports at the same time?
A. Burst-frame
B. Full-duplex
C. Half-duplex
D. VoIP
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A full-duplex (FDX), or sometimes double-duplex system, allows communication in both directions, and, unlike half-duplex, allows this to happen simultaneously.
Land-line telephone networks are full-duplex, since they allow both callers to speak and be heard at the same time

QUESTION 21
Which of the following is a common physical network topology?
A. Cross-over
B. Loopback
C. Star
D. Straight
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A star network consists of one central switch, hub or computer, which acts as a conduit to transmit messages. This consists of a central node, to which all other
nodes are connected; this central node provides a common connection point for all nodes through a hub. In star topology, every node (computer workstation or
any other peripheral) is connected to central node called hub or switch.

QUESTION 22
Which of the following is always true when a router selects a destination?
A. The default gateway is selected over any other static or dynamic route.
B. The shortest route is always selected.
C. The most specific route is selected over the default gateway.
D. A dynamic route is selected over a directly attached network.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Router always looks for the most closely matched route for forwarding the packet. For example if there are two routes in your router and you have to send a
packet to a host with an ip 10.10.10.10 then it will forward packet to 192.168.1.10 rather than 192.168.1.1:
Network Destination Netmask Gateway
0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.1
10.10.10.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.10

QUESTION 23
A proxy server would MOST likely be installed to provide which of the following functions? (Select TWO).
A. Combined DNS and DHCP hosting
B. Encryption
C. Content filtering
D. Fault tolerance
E. Website caching
Correct Answer: CE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A content-filtering web proxy server provides administrative control over the content that may be relayed in one or both directions through the proxy.
A caching proxy server accelerates service requests by retrieving content saved from a previous request made by the same client or even other clients.

QUESTION 24
Which of the following would the telecommunications carrier use to segregate customer traffic over long fiber links?
A. VLAN
B. MPLS
C. VPN
D. PSTN
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
MPLS is a mechanism in high-performance telecommunications networks that directs data from one network node to the next based on short path labels rather
than long network addresses, avoiding complex lookups in a routing table. The labels identify virtual links (paths) between distant nodes rather than endpoints

QUESTION 25
An administrator notices SMTP traffic is being blocked by the company firewall. Which of the following ports should be opened?
A. 25
B. 53
C. 110
D. 443
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
SMTP is an Internet standard for electronic mail (e-mail) transmission across Internet Protocol (IP) networks. SMTP uses TCP port 25.

QUESTION 26
Which of the following network topologies would be separated into two networks if a client in the middle is removed or the cable is cut?
A. Mesh
B. Ring
C. Bus
D. Star
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A bus network topology is a network topology in which a set of clients are connected via a shared communications line/cables, called a bus.

QUESTION 27
Which of the following is an example of a Class C address?
A. 10.19.0.79
B. 127.34.8.197
C. 176.96.1.222
D. 192.168.1.105
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Class C address range varies from 192.0.0.0 to 223.255.255.255.

QUESTION 28
A computer’s DNS has bad cach records.which tools can be used to clear the DNS record.
A. netstat
B. ipconfig
C. nslookup
D. tracert
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
ipconfig/flushdns will flush/clear the old DNS record, which includes good and bad cached records

QUESTION 29
A technician has low signal strength connecting two wireless bridges. Which of the following could be the problem?
A. Low PoE wattage
B. Opposing antenna polarizations
C. Short distance between antennas
D. WPA 2 encryption
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The polarization of an antenna is the orientation of the electric field (E-plane) of the radio wave with respect to the Earth’s surface and is determined by the
physical structure of the antenna and by its orientation. It has nothing in common with antenna directionality terms: “horizontal”, “vertical”, and “circular”. Thus, a
simple straight wire antenna will have one polarization when mounted vertically, and a different polarization when mounted horizontally.

QUESTION 30
Which of the following is a terminal emulator used to manage a network device?
A. VPN
B. IDS
C. PuTTY
D. IPS
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
PuTTY is a free and open-source terminal emulator, serial console and network file transfer application. It supports several network protocols, including SCP,
SSH, Telnet and rlogin.

QUESTION 31
A network administrator suspects a broadcast storm is causing performance issues on the network.
Which of the following would be used to verify this situation?
A. Environmental monitor
B. Multimeter
C. Toner probe
D. Protocol analyzer
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A “Protocol analyzer” is a tool (hardware or software) used to capture and analyze signals and data traffic over a communication channel.

QUESTION 32
Ann, a technician, is installing network cables for an office building. Some of the cables are not showing active on the switch even when moved to different ports.
Which of the following is MOST likely the cause?
A. Port speed mismatch
B. Faulty F-connectors
C. Bad wiring
D. Bad switch
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Bad wiring refers to the state when you do not follow a pattern and everything seems messed up and you are not able to figure out the cause.

QUESTION 33
After a new user moves furniture into a cubicle, the computer does not connect to the network any longer.
Which of the following would be the MOST likely reason? (Select TWO).
A. Bad Ethernet switch port
B. TX/RX reversed
C. Bad connectors
D. Bad patch cable
E. Mismatched MTU
Correct Answer: CD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
It could be problem with the bad connector because the user just moved furniture to the cubicle and it is quite possible that the movement of the furniture has
created problem by disrupting the cabling and connections. These two are the important things which can be broken down whenever there is a physical
movement.

QUESTION 34
Which of the following performance benefits would multiple domain controllers BEST provide?
A. Fault tolerance
B. Caching engine
C. Proxy serverD. Quality of service
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Fault-tolerant design is a design that enables a system to continue its intended operation, possibly at a reduced level, rather than failing completely, when some
part of the system fails. The term is most commonly used to describe computer-based systems designed to continue more or less fully operational with, perhaps, a
reduction in throughput or an increase in response time in the event of some partial failure

QUESTION 35
After a network technician has added a new workstation and cabling to the network, users report the network is very slow. The activity lights on all switches are
blinking rapidly, showing large amounts of traffic.
Which of the following is the BEST explanation for the traffic?
A. The new user is downloading large files.
B. The router failed, flooding the network with beacons.
C. The new user’s IP address is a duplicate.
D. A switching loop was created.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Switching loop or Bridge loop occurs in computer networks when there is more than one Layer 2 (OSI model) path between two endpoints (e.g. multiple
connections between two network switches or two ports on the same switch connected to each other). The loop creates broadcast radiation as broadcasts and
multicasts are forwarded by switches out every port, the switch or switches will repeatedly rebroadcast the broadcast messages flooding the network.

QUESTION 36
A company has recently allowed its employees to telecommute two days a week. The employees MUST have a minimum of 1Mbps non-shared connection to the
Internet.
Which of the following MUST the employees have at their home in order to connect to the Internet?
A. ISDN
B. Cable modem
C. DSL
D. Dial-up networking
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Digital subscriber line (DSL, originally digital subscriber loop) is a family of technologies that provide Internet access by transmitting digital data over the wires of a
local telephone network.

QUESTION 37
Some visitors are unable to access the wireless network. The network’s wireless infrastructure is comprised of three different buildings with the configurations
listed below. Wireless network in Building A and C is used exclusively for internal employees and Building B is used for visitors and requires no additional
configuration on their devices.
Which of the following settings would need to be modified to provide wireless access to all visitors?
Building A Building B Building C
Channel: 2 Channel: 6 Channel: 11
Encryption: WPA2 Encryption: WPA2 Encryption: WPA2
A. Encryption set to Open in all Buildings
B. Encryption set to Open in Building B
C. Encryption set to WEP in Building B
D. Channel set to 11 in Building B
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Because the building B is in the middle, the wireless access router will have reachability to the building A and C. Now, the only thing that we need to do is to open
the Wireless access on B for the guest users for the WAP in B so that the users coming to building A and C can get access to internet using the open connection.

QUESTION 38
Some employees are unable to maintain a wireless network connection. The network’s wireless infrastructure is comprised of three different buildings with the
configurations listed below. Wireless network in Building A and C is used exclusively for internal employees and Building B is used for visitors and requires no
additional configuration on their devices.
Which of the following settings would need to be modified to provide the BEST wireless experience for all employees as they move between buildings?
Building A Building B Building C
Channel: 1 Channel: 6 Channel: 11
Encryption: WPA2 Encryption: Open Encryption: WPA2
SSID. Corp SSID. Guest SSID. Sales
A. Change Channel in Building B to 7
B. Change Encryption in Building B to match A and C
C. Change Channel in Building C to 1
D. Change SSID in Building C to match Building A
Correct Answer: D
ExplanationExplanation/Reference:
The configuration difference between users in building A and C is that they have same encryption however the SSID is different so the user has to manually
authenticate and connect to the network whenever he will move between buildings. If the SSID’s are same then he will not have to authenticate himself again and
he will get automatic connectivity.

QUESTION 39
A technician has been given the task to install a wireless network in a user’s home.
Which of the following should the technician consider when implementing the network? (Select TWO).
A. That there is strong encryption enabled and configured on the access point.
B. The user’s home network has a correctly completed WHOIS entry.
C. The access point is broadcasting the SSID based upon manufacturer’s standards.
D. There are no conflicts of channels in use by neighboring wireless networks.
E. There are redundant internal DNS names set in the access point’s settings.
F. That the access point’s MAC address is properly set in its configuration settings.
Correct Answer: AD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Strong encryption is required to keep the user’s internet safe and secure so as to avoid misuse of the internet connection and to ensure that channel conflicts are
not there so that the signals do not compete with each other and user start to face intermittent connection.

QUESTION 40
A technician working for a company with a wireless network named WirelessA notices a second wireless network named WirelessB. WirelessB is MOST likely a:
A. man-in-the-middle attack
B. rogue access point
C. evil twin
D. packet sniffer
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A rogue access point is a wireless access point that has either been installed on a secure company network without explicit authorization from a local network
administrator, or has been created to allow a hacker to conduct a man-in-the-middle attack.

QUESTION 41
A user cannot access the LAN after working successfully most of the day.
Which of the following should the network administrator check FIRST?
A. VLAN settings
B. History logs
C. Patch cable
D. Port security
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A patch cable or patch cord or patch lead is an electrical or optical cable used to connect (“patch- in”) one electronic or optical device to another for signal routing.

QUESTION 42
Which of the following can be used to limit wireless network access to a single computer?
A. Configure PPP
B. Packet sniffing
C. MAC address filtering
D. Omni-directional antennas
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Wireless access can be filtered by using the Media Access Control (MAC) addresses of the wireless devices transmitting within your wireless network. You can
either permit or prevent specific wireless computers and devices access to your wireless network.

QUESTION 43
A small business owner is setting up a SOHO office. The business owner needs one device that will allow for Internet access, trunk VLANs, translate multiple
private IP addresses into public IP addresses, and filter packets.
Which of the following network devices will allow for all functions?
A. A VPN concentrator
B. A switch
C. A router
D. A firewall
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A router is a device which is capable of performing entire task required by the business owner.

QUESTION 44
A Linux-based workstation is unable to connect to an IP printer on the same network segment. The printer IP address settings have been verified.
How would a network technician verify IP address settings on the Linux-based workstation?
A. Run the dig command on the workstation.
B. Run the nslookup command on the workstation.
C. Run the ipconfig command on the workstation.
D. Run the ifconfig command on the workstation.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The “ifconfig” command allows the linux/unix operating system to setup network interfaces and allow the user to view information about the configured network
interfaces.

QUESTION 45
Users have been stating that they need to logon to too many applications and web apps with different credentials that use different rule sets.
Which of the following would BEST address these concerns?
A. Alter the domain account login policies to reflect the most common application rule sets.
B. Ensure that the user accounts are properly configured in domain services.
C. Implement a software solution that facilitates single sign-on authentication.
D. Increase the time between mandatory password changes by a factor of three.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A single signon permits a user to enter one name and password in order to access multiple applications

QUESTION 46
A network consultant arrives at a customer’s site to troubleshoot their email server. The server is running a Linux operating system, but the consultant is only
familiar with Windows operating systems.
Which of the following troubleshooting steps should the consultant take?
A. Document findings
B. Identify the problem
C. Escalate the problem
D. Establish a plan of action
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
It is better to escalate the problem if you are not aware of the situation as it saves downtime and keeps customer happy.

QUESTION 47
A network administrator is adding 24 – 802.3af class 2 VoIP phones and needs to purchase a single PoE switch to power the phones.
Which of the following is the MINIMUM PoE dedicated wattage the switch supports to power all of the phones at full power?
A. 96W
B. 168W
C. 240W
D. 369.6W
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The switch supports 168W to power all the phones at full power.

QUESTION 48
Which of the following defines a rack located in an office building between the main rack and other office equipment?
A. DSU
B. MDF
C. CSU
D. IDF
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
An intermediate distribution frame (IDF) is a distribution frame in a central office or customer premises, which cross-connects the user cable media to individual
user line circuits and may serve as a distribution point for multipair cables from the main distribution frame (MDF) or combined distribution frame (CDF) to
individual cables connected to equipment in areas remote from these frames.
IDFs are used for telephone exchange central office, customer-premise equipment, wide area network (WAN), and local area network (LAN) environments, among
others.

QUESTION 49
The ISP needs to terminate the WAN connection. The connection should be located in the network server room where the company LAN equipment resides.
Which of the following identifies the location?A. Smart jack
B. MDF
C. VPN
D. 66 block
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Short for main distribution frame, a cable rack that interconnects and manages the telecommunications wiring between itself and any number of IDFs. Unlike an
IDF, which connects internal lines to the MDF, the MDF connects private or public lines coming into a building with the internal network.

QUESTION 50
A Chief Executive Officer (CEO) decided that only a limited number of authorized company workstations will be able to connect to the Internet.
Which of the following would BEST accomplish this goal?
A. Use content filtering
B. Install and configure IDS
C. Enable MAC address filtering
D. Enable RAS on the network firewall
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Most Wi-Fi access points and routers ship with a feature called hardware or MAC address filtering. This feature is normally turned “off” by the manufacturer,
because it requires a bit of effort to set up properly. However, to improve the security of your Wi-Fi LAN (WLAN), strongly consider enabling and using MAC
address filtering.

QUESTION 51
Multiple computers are connected to a hub near a wall plate. In order to get to the computers, students step on and around the cable that connects the teacher’s
station, a few feet away, to the same hub. The teacher is experiencing no network connectivity.
Which of the following is MOST likely the problem?
A. Cross-talk
B. Split cables
C. Distance
D. EMI
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A split cable is invisible to wire maps and continuity testers, making it very difficult to troubleshoot.

QUESTION 52
Which of the following network topologies describes a network where each node is connected to every other node?
A. Bus
B. Star
C. Mesh
D. Ring
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
In a true mesh topology every node has a connection to every other node in the network.

QUESTION 53
Which of the following supports faster wireless broadband speeds?
A. Satellite
B. Wi-MAX
C. ISDN
D. OC-3
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Wi-MAX (Worldwide Interoperability for Microwave Access) is a wireless communications standard designed to provide 30 to 40 megabit-per-second data rates
with the 2011 update providing up to 1 G bit/s for fixed stations

QUESTION 54
Ann, a home user, wishes to confine a wireless network to devices ONLY inside of her house.
Which of the following will accomplish this?
A. Decreasing radio strength
B. MAC filtering
C. WEP encryption
D. SSID broadcast disable
Correct Answer: A
ExplanationExplanation/Reference:
Decreasing Radio Strength will reduce signal strength outside the house and will accomplish what she is intending to do.

QUESTION 55
Which of the following WAN technologies has the HIGHEST latency?
A. ADSL
B. LTE
C. Satellite
D. WiMAX
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Satellite WAN latency is the delay caused by the physical distance a signal must travel from earth, to the satellite, and back to earth to complete a round-trip
transmission. Because of the physics involved in the round-trip-time (RTT), end-to-end latency can take 600 milliseconds or more due to geosynchronous
satellites orbiting miles above the earth.

QUESTION 56
Which of the following connectors are MOST commonly used on a POTS line?
A. RJ-45
B. MTRJ
C. DB-9
D. RJ-11
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The six-position plug and jack commonly used for telephone line connections may be used for RJ11, RJ14 or even RJ25, all of which are actually names of
interface standards that use this physical connector. The RJ11 standard dictates a 2-wire connection, while RJ14 uses a 4-wire configuration, and RJ25 uses all
six wires. The RJ abbreviations, though, only pertain to the wiring of the jack (hence the name “registered jack”); it is commonplace but not strictly correct to refer
to an unwired plug connector by any of these names. Typically you’ll find the RJ-11 and RJ-14 on your Plain Old Telephone Service (POTS)

QUESTION 57
Which of the following cable types is required to run through an air duct?
A. UTP
B. Fiber
C. PVC
D. Plenum
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Plenum rated cable has a special insulation that has low smoke and low flame characteristics. Plenum cable is mandated to be installed in any “air handling”
space. For example, most large office buildings use the ceiling to return air to the AC unit. This qualifies this ceiling as a plenum ceiling, and all the cables that go
through that ceiling must be plenum rated.

QUESTION 58
Which of the following technologies can cause interference for 802.11g?
A. RADAR
B. 802.11a
C. IrDA
D. Bluetooth
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
This wireless communication standard has a maximum transmission speed of 54 Mbits per second and a typical indoor range of 30 meters. It uses the 2.4 GHz
band. This band may have to deal with interference from cordless telephones, Bluetooth devices, and various appliances.

QUESTION 59
Which of the following reduces the deployment cost of a wireless LAN?
A. WPA
B. 802.1x
C. MIMO
D. PoE
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Power over Ethernet or PoE describes any of several standardized or ad-hoc systems which pass electrical power along with data on Ethernet cabling. This allows
a single cable to provide both data connection and electrical power to devices such as wireless access points or IP cameras.

QUESTION 60
Which of the following is the MAXIMUM rated speed for CAT5 cabling?
A. 10Mbps
B. 100MbpsC. 1000Mbps
D. 10Gbps
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Category 5 cable (Cat 5) is a twisted pair cable for carrying signals. This type of cable is used in structured cabling for computer networks such as Ethernet. The
cable standard provides performance of up to 100 MHz and is suitable for 10BASE-T, 100BASE-TX (Fast Ethernet), and 1000BASE-T (Gigabit Ethernet)

QUESTION 61
Which of the following connector types would be found with a VoIP system utilizing CAT6 cabling?
A. SC
B. RJ-45
C. RJ-11
D. BNC
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The heavier wire in some Cat 6 cables makes them too thick to attach to standard 8P8C (RJ-45) connectors without a special modular piece

QUESTION 62
A technician notices a newly installed CAT5 cable is longer than the standard maximum length.
Which of the following problems would this MOST likely cause?
A. Split cable
B. EMI
C. DB loss
D. Crosstalk
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The maximum length for a cable segment is 100 m per TIA/EIA 568-5-A. If longer runs are required, the use of active hardware such as a repeater or switch is
necessary. The specifications for 10BASE-T networking specify a 100metre length between active devices. This allows for 90metres of solid-core permanent
wiring, two connectors and two stranded patch cables of 5metres, one at each end.

QUESTION 63
Which of the following could be installed to allow a home user with one desktop computer to economically have Internet access in every room in the house?
A. Fiber optic
B. CAT6
C. Broadband over powerline
D. CAT5
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Internet access service through existing power lines is often marketed as broadband over power lines (BPL), also known as power-line Internet or powerband. A
computer (or any other device) would need only to plug a BPL modem into any outlet in an equipped building to have high-speed Internet access

QUESTION 64
Which of the following 802.11 standards transmits the signals the GREATEST distance?
A. a
B. b
C. g
D. n
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
802.11n uses multiple antennas to increase data rates.

QUESTION 65
Which of the following fiber types is MOST often used indoors?
A. Plenum
B. Modal conditioning
C. Multimode
D. Singlemode
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Multi-mode optical fiber is a type of optical fiber mostly used for communication over short distances, such as within a building or on a campus.
Typical multimode links have data rates of 10 Mbit/s to 10 Gbit/s over link lengths of up to 600 meters (2000 feet) and 10 Gbit/s for 300m (1000 feet) — more than
sufficient for the majority of premises applications.

QUESTION 66
Users are reporting wired connectivity drops in a new office with brand new CAT6 infrastructure.
Which of the following tools should a technician use to BEST troubleshoot this issue?
A. OTDR
B. Protocol analyzer
C. Toner probe
D. Cable certifier
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A cable certifier is an electronic device used to verify the source of electric current, voltage and a switching matrix used to connect the current source and the volt
meter to all of the contact points in a cable.

QUESTION 67
Which of the following wireless technologies only uses the 5GHz spectrum but reaches a theoretical throughput of only 54Mbps?
A. A
B. B
C. G
D. N
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
802.11a standard uses the same core protocol as the original standard, operates in 5 GHz band, and uses a 52-subcarrier orthogonal frequency-division
multiplexing (OFDM) with a maximum raw data rate of 54 Mbit/s, which yields realistic net achievable throughput in the mid-20 Mbit/s. The data rate is reduced to
48, 36, 24, 18, 12, 9 then 6 Mbit/s if required.

QUESTION 68
Which of the following WAN technology types has the GREATEST latency?
A. ISDN
B. Fiber
C. Satellite
D. Cable
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Because satellites provide a microwave radio relay technology complementary to that of communication cables. They are also used for mobile applications such
as communications to ships, vehicles, planes and hand-held terminals, and for TV and radiobroadcasting.

Conclusion:

Passcertguide free n10-005 exam dumps is to help you open the door to learning, if you are only interested in n10-005 or other
networks please pay attention to us for a long time, we will share more free content, if you want to easily pass the exam to get
the certificate, please select the complete
n10-005 PDF dumps and n10-005 VCE dumps:https://www.pass4itsure.com/n10-005.html Pass4itsure can now help you troubleshoot n10-005
exam certification issues. Because we are the best n10-005 exam problem training materials provider, all of our candidates get n10-005
exams without any problems.

[PDF] Free CompTIA Network+ n10-005 dumps download from Google Drive:
https://drive.google.com/open?id=1PogSmnrI5Rw2nERhmsR2BnYu6jEBdT_I

[PDF] Free Full CompTIA dumps download from Google Drive:
https://drive.google.com/open?id=1SnVb1WLCtG5umIgtJ4zeNNSpuAFWZ3yg

Pass4itsure Promo Code 15% Off

pass4itsure n10-005 coupon

related: https://www.passcertguide.com/high-pass-rate-microsoft-070-463-dumps-exam/

Latest CompTIA Network+ N10-006 exam dumps,N10-006 pdf | 100% Free

Passcertguide provides practical and effective CompTIA network+ n10-006 exam questions and Answers,
free n10-006 pdf download online. All exam resources come from Pass4itsure CompTIA experts. Pass4itsure is the ultimate source of
preparation through the CompTIA network+ n10-006 exam. Welcome to download the latest pass4itsure n10-006 VCE dump
and n10-006 PDF Dump: https://www.pass4itsure.com/N10-006.html (506 Q&As)

[PDF] Free CompTIA Network+ N10-006 dumps download from Google Drive:
https://drive.google.com/open?id=1qxjK4U6SK8LYaqvlTvvcC7D_Q50nhoRU

[PDF] Free Full CompTIA dumps download from Google Drive:
https://drive.google.com/open?id=1SnVb1WLCtG5umIgtJ4zeNNSpuAFWZ3yg

Network+ Certification | CompTIA IT Certifications:https://certification.comptia.org/certifications/network

About the exam:

Network+ ensures an IT professional has the knowledge and skills to:
Design and implement functional networks
Configure, manage, and maintain essential network devices
Use devices such as switches and routers to segment network traffic and create resilient networks
Identify benefits and drawbacks of existing network configurations
Implement network security, standards, and protocols
Troubleshoot network problems
Support the creation of virtualized networks
CompTIA Network+ (N10-006) English retires 8/31/18; Other languages retire 1/31/19.

The new CompTIA Network+ N10-007 exam is available as of March 2018. More information on both versions of the exam is available in the Exam Details below.​

Pass4itsure offers the latest CompTIA Network+ N10-006 practice test free of charge (51Q&As)

QUESTION 1
A technician has installed an 802.11n network, and most users are able to see speeds of up to 300Mbps. There are a few users who have an 802.1 1n network card but are unable to get speeds higher that 108Mbps. Which of the following
should the technician perform to fix the issue?
A. Upgrade the OS version to 64-bit
B. Roll back the firmware on WLAN card
C. Install a vulnerability patch
D. Upgrade the WLAN card driver
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 2
UDP is BEST used for:
A. remote desktop connections
B. file download
C. streaming media
D. secure tunneling
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/User_Datagram_Protocol

QUESTION 3
Which of the following BEST describes the process of documenting everyone who has physical access or possession of evidence
A. Legal hold
B. Chain of custody
C. Secure copy protocol
D. Financial responsiblity
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 4
Which of the following 802.11g antennas broadcast an RF signal in a specific direction with a narrow path?
A. Omni-direction
B. Unidirectional
C. Patch
D. Yagi
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 5
A technician has determined the most likely cause of an issue and implement a solution. Which of the following is the NEXT step that should be taken?
A. Document the findings, actions, and outcomes
B. Duplicate the problem if possible
C. Verify system functionality
D. Make an archival backup
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 6
A user has a network device that streams media to the LAN. The device is visible on the network. All PCs on the LAN can ping the device. All firewalls are turned off. The streaming device appears to function properly, but the media will not
stream as requested. Which of the following TCP/IP technologies is not implemented properly?
A. Multicast
B. Broadcasts
C. Unicast
D. Anycast
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 7
A technician uses a cable tester to verify the pinout in an Ethernet cable. After testing each pin, the technician records the following output:
pass4itsure N10-006 question
Based on this information, which of the following identification describes this cable?
A. Crossover cable
B. Rollover cable
C. Patch cable
D. RJ-48 cable
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 8
Two office buildings are connected via copper network cabling buried in the ground. During local construction, the second building suffers a permanent network outage. Which of the following are MOST likely the causes of the outage? (Select
two.)
A. Crosstalk
B. Open circuit
C. Short circuit
D. Signal attenuation
E. Electromagnetic interference
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 9
A technician is configuring an ACL and needs to allow for traffic from a server to assign IP addresses to network devices.
Which of the following ports and protocols should the technician configure? (Select two.)
A. 67
B. 53
C. 161
D. DNS
E. SNMP
F. DHCP
Correct Answer: AF
Explanation

QUESTION 10
A company is selecting a fire suppression system for their new datacenter and wants to minimize the IT system recovery period in the event of a fire. Which of the following is the best choice for the fire suppression system?
A. Portable extinguishers
B. Wet Pipe
C. Clean Gas
D. Dry Pipe
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 11
A technician is dispatched to investigate sporadic network outages. After looking at the event logs of the network equipment, the technician finds that all of the equipment is restarting at the same time every day. Which of the following can the
technician deploy to correct this issue?
A. Grounding bar
B. Rack monitoring
C. UPS
D. Air flow management
E. Surge protector
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 12
Which of the following broadband WAN technologies would MOST likely be used to connect several remote branches that have no fiber or satellite connections?
A. OC12
B. POTS
C. WiMax
D. OC3
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 13
A technician is being tasked to centralize the management of the switches and segment the switches by broadcast domains. The company is currently all on VLAN1 using a single private IP address range with a 24 bit mask. The supervisor
wants VLAN 100 to be the management subnet and all switches to share the VLAN information. Which of the following options would work BEST to accomplish these requirements?
A. Use VLSM on the IP address range, with STP and 802.1q on the inter switch connections with native VLAN 100
B. Use VLSM on the IP address range with VTP and 802.1x on all inter switch connections with native VLAN 100
C. Use VLSM on VLAN1, with VTP and 802.1w on the inter switch connections with native VLAN 100
D. Use VLSM on the IP address range with VTP and 802.1q on the inter switch connections with native VLAN 100
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 14
A company technician has set up the network so that all external protections and internal protections across the network are segregated from any malicious attacks and there are firewalls configured on both sides of the DMZ. During the
configuration review of the device installation, there is evidence of unauthorized network traffic penetrating the internal network. Which of the following is either missing or incorrectly configured in the firewall settings?
A. Stateful settings
B. UTM
C. ACL
D. Implicit deny
E. Stateless settings
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 15
A network administrator wants to logically separate web function servers on the network. Which of the following network devices will need to be configured?
A. IPS
B. Switch
C. Hub
D. HIDS
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 16
A network administrator notices that the border router is having high network capacity loads during non-working hours which is causing web services outages. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?
A. Evil twin
B. Session hijacking
C. Distributed DoS
D. ARP cache poisoning
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 17
A technician who is working with a junior member of the team is called away for another issue. The junior technician orders an SC 80/125 fiber cable instead of an ST 80/125. Which of the following will MOST likely be an issue with the new
cable?
A. Wavelength mismatch
B. Distance limitations
C. Connector mismatch
D. Attenuation/Db loss:
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 18
There has been an increased amount of successful social engineering attacks at a corporate office. Which of the following will reduce this attack in the near future?
A. Helpdesk training
B. Appropriate use policy
C. User awareness training
D. Personal Identifiable Information
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 19
A technician is testing a new web-based tool capable of generating automatic teller machine (ATM) cash and service availability reports. The web-based tool was developed by a consortium of financial institutions. Which of the following cloud
delivery models and technologies are being utilized? (Select two.)
A. SaaS
B. Public
C. Community
D. PaaS
E. Private
F. IaaS
Correct Answer: CE
Explanation

QUESTION 20
A PC is having trouble connecting to a remote resource.
Which of the following will identify the routers a packet travels through and provide real- time feedback regarding latency?
A. tracert
B. NETBIOS
C. ipconfig
D. nslookup
E. ping
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 21
Exploiting a weakness in a user’s wireless headset to compromise the mobile device is known as which of the following?
A. Multiplexing
B. Zero-day attack
C. Smurfing
D. Bluejacking
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 22
A technician has terminated a cable on the datacenter with an RJ-11 connector. Which of the following applications is MOST likely being used?
A. Ethernet for a NAS appliance
B. Out-of-band management
C. VRRP interconnect link
D. Crossover patch cabling
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 23
An administrator needs to install a centrally located firewall that needs to block specific incoming and outgoing IP addresses, without denying legitimate return traffic. Which of the following firewall types should the administrator install?
A. A host- based firewall
B. A network-based firewall
C. A host-based stateful firewall
D. A stateless network-based firewall.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 24
A new OC3 experiencing intermittent connectivity and loss of signal alarms. A network administrator finds all the cables are properly connected. There is excess cable between the patch panel and the network node. The cables were forced
into their storage compartments about the rack. Which of the following is MOST likely cause of the connectivity issue and alarms?
A. The OC2 was improperly provisioned.
B. The cable was improperly crimped.
C. The bend radius of the cable has been exceeded.
D. The new OC3 cable is experiencing EMI.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 25
Two switches are connected using both a CAT6 cable and a CAT5e cable. Which of the following problems is occurring?
A. Missing route
B. Autosensing ports
C. Improper cable types
D. Switching loop
E. Media mismatch
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 26
A client is concerned with theft of equipment from the datacenter. Which of the following would provide the highest level of physical security for the client?
A. Cipher lock
B. Proximity reader
C. Magnetic key swipe
D. Man trap
E. CCTV
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 27
A company has decided to upgrade its legacy phone system to VoIP. The new phones will download the configurations from a TFTP server each time they boot up. Which of the following firewall ports must be opened to ensure the phones
can communicate with the server?
A. 20
B. 53
C. 69
D. 161
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Trivial_File_Transfer_Protocol

QUESTION 28
The networking concept of split horizon is designed to prevent which of the following?
A. Large routing tables
B. Duplicate addresses
C. Collisions
D. Loops
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 29
OFDM, QAM and QPSK are all examples of which of the following wireless technologies?
A. Frequency
B. Modulation
C. RF interferenceD. Spectrum
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 30
Which of the following network infrastructure implementations would be used to connect two remote sales back to the main campus for all data and voice traffic?
A. Crossover cable
B. Multimode fiber
C. Satellite
D. MPLS
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Multi-mode_optical_fiber

QUESTION 31
A CSU/DSU device will connect which of the following?
A. A T1 line to a network router
B. An analog line to a network router
C. A cable modern to a wireless router
D. A local network to a VPN
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 32
A network administrator wants to deploy a wireless network in a location that has too much RF interference at 2.4 GHz. Which of the following standards requires the use of 5 GHz band wireless transmissions? (Select TWO)
A. 802.11a
B. 802.11ac
C. 802.11b
D. 802.11g
E. 802.11n
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation

QUESTION 33
Joe, a home user, would like to share music throughout the computers in his house using a USB drive connected to a router he purchased a year ago. The manufacturer states that the router is capable of recognizing 4 TB, however, Joe is
unable to get his 3TB drive to show up on the network. Which of the following should Joe perform in order to resolve this issue?
A. Load the latest hardware drivers for his USB drive
B. Install the latest OS on his computers
C. Download the latest playback software for his musicfiles
D. Flash the latest firmware for his router
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 34
A network technician is responsible for the basic security of the network. Management has asked if there is a way to improve the level of access users have to the company file server. Right now, any employee can upload and download files
with basic system credentials. Which of the following would require additional credentials?
A. Kerberos authentication
B. MDS authentication
C. Multifactor authentication
D. Single sign-on authentication
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 35
Which of the following cloud infrastructure designs includes on premise servers utilizing a centralized syslog server that is hosted at a third party organization for review?
A. Hybrid
B. Public
C. Community
D. Private
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 36
Which of the following ports should be allowed to provide access to certain VoIP applications?
A. 110
B. 139
C. 1720
D. 5060
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 37
A technician wants to configure the inbound port of a router to prevent FTP traffic from leaving the LAN. Which of the following should be placed on the router interface to accomplish this goal?
A. Static routes for all port 80 traffic
B. DHCP reservations for all /24 subnets
C. ACL for ports 20 and 21
D. MAC filtering using wildcards
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 38
A network technician discovers an issue with spanning tree on the core switch. Which of the following troubleshooting steps should the network technician perform NEXT to resolve the issue?
A. Test a theory to determine the cause
B. Escalate to a senior technician
C. Identify the symptoms
D. Establish a theory of probable cause
E. Establish a plan of action
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 39
An area to which access is controlled by retina scan is protected by which of the following security measure types?
A. Two-factor authentication
B. Biometric
C. Cipher locksD. Optical reader
E. Proximity reader
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 40
Workstations are unable to access the Internet after a recent power outage. Configure the appropriate devices to ensure ALL workstations have Internet connectivity.
Instructions: All ports can be enabled (green) or disabled (red). When you have completed the simu-lation please select the Done button.
pass4itsure N10-006 question
pass4itsure N10-006 question
Hot Area:
pass4itsure N10-006 question
Correct Answer:
pass4itsure N10-006 question
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
All ports should be enabled.

QUESTION 41
DRAG DROP
Your company recently purchased a new building down the street from the existing office.
For each of the tasks below, select the appropriate antenna type and encryption object for all wireless access point (AP).
1. Create an encrypted wireless connection between the two buildings that BEST controls signal propagation, while maximizing security.
2. Restrict the wireless signal generated by the access points (AP’s) inside Building 1, so that it minimizes broadcast beyond the building.
3. Maximize wireless coverage inside Building 1.
4. Building 1’s internal wireless network is for visitors only and must not require any special configuration on the visitor’s device to connect
pass4itsure N10-006 question
pass4itsure N10-006 question
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 42
DRAG DROP
pass4itsure N10-006 question
pass4itsure N10-006 question
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 43
DRAG DROP
You are tasked with creating a network that will accomplish the following requirements
Requirements:
1) The remote sales team must be able to connect to the corporate network
2) Each department must have ONLY two PCs and a server
3) Each department must be segmented from each other
4) The following VLANs have been designated:
a) VLAN 2- Finance
b) VLAN 12- Sales
c) VLAN 22- Human Resources (HR)
Complete the network by dragging the required objects into the diagram
INSTRUCTIONS: Objects can be used multiple times and not all placeholders need to be filled
pass4itsure N10-006 question
pass4itsure N10-006 question
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 44
A customer’s email server is not sending emails. Arrange the troubleshooting steps in the order the technician should perform them
pass4itsure N10-006 question
pass4itsure N10-006 question
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 45
DRAG DROP
Build a T-658B Connection
pass4itsure N10-006 question
pass4itsure N10-006 question
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Cat5/6 Cable Pinouts

QUESTION 46
SIMULATION
You have been tasked with setting up a wireless network in an office. The network will consist of 3 access points and a single switch. The network must meet the following parameters.
The SSIDs need to be configured as corpnet with a key of S3cr3t!
The wireless signals should not interfere with each other
The subnet the Access points and Switch are on should only support 30 devices maximum
The access Points should be configured to only support TKIP clients at a maximum speed
Instructions: Click on the devices to review their information and adjust the setting of the APs to meet the given requirements.
pass4itsure N10-006 question
Correct Answer: Explanation
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
This simulation is still under construction. On the first exhibit, the layout should be as follows
Access Point Name AP1
IP Address 192.168.1.3
Gateway 192.168.1.2
SSID corpnet
SSID Broadcast yes
Mode G
Channel 1
Speed Auto
Duplex Auto
WPA
Passphrase S3cr3t!
Exhibit 2 as follows
Access Point Name AP2
IP Address 192.168.1.4
Gateway 192.168.1.2
SSID corpnet
SSID Broadcast yes
Mode G
Channel 6
Speed Auto
Duplex Auto
WPA
Passphrase S3cr3t!
Exhibit 3 as follows
Access Point Name AP3
IP Address 192.168.1.5
Gateway 192.168.1.2
SSID corpnet
SSID Broadcast yes
Mode G
Channel 11
Speed Auto
Duplex Auto
WPA
Passphrase S3cr3t!

QUESTION 47
DRAG DROP
pass4itsure N10-006 question
pass4itsure N10-006 question
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 48
DRAG DROP
Build a T-658A Connection
pass4itsure N10-006 question
pass4itsure N10-006 question
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Cat5/6 Cable Pinouts

QUESTION 49
DRAG DROP
Wireless network users recently began experiencing speed and performance issues after access point 2 (AP2) was replaced due to faulty hardware. The original network was installed according to a consultant’s specifications and has always
worked without a problem.
You a network technician, have been tasked with evaluating the situation and resolving the issues to improve both performance and connectivity. Refer to the following exhibits and perform any necessary changes to the wireless and wired
infrastructure by adjusting devices. Note: Adjust the LEAST number of devices needed to fix the issue.
pass4itsure N10-006 question
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
After you fix AP2, you must click on the switch, which will bring up the switch interface.
Type in the two commands that they show there, to prove the fix. Donot worry that interface 4 is down, there is no interface 4 for you to do
pass4itsure N10-006 question

QUESTION 50
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the fiber cable connection types to the appropriate image.
pass4itsure N10-006 question
pass4itsure N10-006 question
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 51
SIMULATIONAfter recent changes to the pictured network, several users are unable to access the servers. Only PC1, PC2, PC3, and PC4 are configurable. You can only change the adapter configurations to each PC.
pass4itsure N10-006 question
pass4itsure N10-006 question
Correct Answer: Explanation
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
On PC3, change the subnet mask to 255.255.255.0. When it is set to 255.255.255.128, then the PC with a .129 address will not be on the same subnet as the default gateway which is .1
On PC4, change the default gateway to 10.0.2.1. It has been incorrectly set as 10.1.2.1.
On this simulation, you will be asked to test connectivity after fixing the issues. You MUST ping the other three computers on EACH computer (i.e. from PC1, ping PC2, PC3, PC4, and from PC2, ping PC1, PC3 and PC4, etc)

Conclusion:

Passcertguide free n10-006 exam dumps is to help you open the door to learning, if you are only interested in n10-006 or other
networks please pay attention to us for a long time, we will share more free content, if you want to easily pass the exam to get
the certificate, please select the complete
n10-006 PDF dumps and n10-006 VCE dumps:https://www.pass4itsure.com/n10-006.html Pass4itsure can now help you troubleshoot n10-006
exam certification issues. Because we are the best n10-006 exam problem training materials provider, all of our candidates get n10-006
exams without any problems.

[PDF] Free CompTIA Network+ N10-006 dumps download from Google Drive:
https://drive.google.com/open?id=1qxjK4U6SK8LYaqvlTvvcC7D_Q50nhoRU

[PDF] Free Full CompTIA dumps download from Google Drive:
https://drive.google.com/open?id=1SnVb1WLCtG5umIgtJ4zeNNSpuAFWZ3yg

Pass4itsure Promo Code 15% Off

pass4itsure N10-006 coupon

related: https://www.passcertguide.com/most-important-cisco-300-210-dumps-sitcs-exam/

[New Microsoft Release] First-hand Microsoft MB2-718 Dumps PDF Microsoft Dynamics 365 Exam Video Guaranteed Success (50+ Questions) 1-17

Where to buy pass4itsure MB2-718 dumps?

Pass4itsure Microsoft MB2-718 Dumps Vce Files, First-hand Microsoft MB2-718 Dumps PDF Guaranteed Success, We Help You Pass Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Customer Service – https://www.pass4itsure.com/MB2-718.html(50+ Questions).

Preparation options

  • Self-paced training
  • From the community

Do you provide free updates?
MB2-718 exam collection of pass4itsure is written by our professional IT teammates with a high level, which make sure the accuracy of MB2-718 actual questions. Yes. Our PDF of MB2-718 exam is designed to ensure everything which you need to pass your exam successfully. At Pass4itsure.com, we have a completely customer oriented policy. We have certified specialists and trainers who have a good knowledge of the MB2-718 actual test and the request of certificate, which guarantee the quality of the MB2-718 dumps exam collection. We invite the rich experience and expert knowledge of professionals from the IT certification industry to guarantee the PDF details precisely and logically. We all have known clearly that the major issue of IT industry is lack of high-quality MB2-718 actual exam dumps. Our customers’ time is a precious concern for us. This requires us to provide you the products that can be utilized most efficiently. Our website provide all kinds of MB2-718 exam collection for all certificate test.

We provide you with the MB2-718 actual questions and answers to reflect the MB2-718 dumps actual test. MB2-718: Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Customer Service exam dumps consists all the necessary tools and information to help you pass MB2-718 dumps certification exam. Sometimes you can get really frustrated due to failure of getting your job desires. We can guarantee the wide range of MB2-718 actual questions and the high-quality of MB2-718 exam collection. The principle thing to note is that this MB2-718 dumps exam tests a candidate’s knowledge on

Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Customer Service

should take this exam. include sales operations managers, customer service managers, service schedulers, administrators, office managers, executives, partners, and consultants who want to demonstrate a foundational understanding of the application functionality. So if you decide to join us, you just need to spend one or two days to prepare the MB2-718 exam collection skillfully and remember the key knowledge of our MB2-718 actual exam dumps, and the test will be easy for you.

Pass4itsure Microsoft MB2-718 Dumps Training Program Online Here(1-17)
QUESTION 1
You have access to the desktop version of Microsoft Excel and Excel Online.
You need to perform a bulk update of data for 225 contacts.
What are two ways to achieve the goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Open the data in Excel Online, make updates, and then save changes to Microsoft Dynamics 365.
B. Export data as a dynamic pivot table, make updates, and then save changes to Microsoft Dynamics 365.
C. Export the data as a static worksheet make updates, and then save changes to Microsoft Dynamics 365.
D. Export the data as a static worksheet, make updates, and then import the data back into Microsoft Dynamics 365.
MB2-718 exam Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 2
You need to enable the Map view for the schedule board. What should you do first?
A. Enable service territories.
B. Enable the connection to Bing Maps.
C. Enable Custom Geolocation.
D. Select a resource details view.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which of the following capabilities is only available when using enhanced SLAs?
A. pause an SLA
B. use security roles to control SLA creation
C. track Key Performance Indicators (KPIs)
D. define failure actions
MB2-718 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
You assign a case to a user named User A.
User A is not available to work on the case. The customer service manager moves the case to the queue for User B .
Which of the following statements is true?
A. User A still owns the case, but the case is located in the queue for UserB .
B. The customer service manager now owns the case.
C. User B now owns the case.
D. The case is not moved to the queue for User B until User A approves the move.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
What is a limitation of the Field Service mobile app?
A. Windows 10 phones do not support the app.
B. You cannot work offline.
C. GPS locations are not available.
D. You cannot create follow-ups.
MB2-718 pdf Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which of the following records can you convert into a case?
A. task
B. queue
C. lead
D. opportunity
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
You are creating a new knowledge base article about a known product defect
After publishing the article, you discover an inaccuracy.
You need to correct the issue while maintaining a traceable history of what was published.
What should you do?
A. Use the update article option.
B. Revert the article to draft status, fix the error, and then republish the article.
C. Delete and recreate the article.
D. Publish a minor revision to the article.
MB2-718 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which two security roles are created when you install the Field Service application? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Field Service Administrator
B. Field Service Dispatcher
C. Field Service Representative
D. Field Service Read Only
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 9
You need to provide quick ad-hoc analysis of data from within the Microsoft Dynamics 365 environment Which Export to Excel option should you use?
A. Excel Online
B. static worksheet
C. dynamic worksheet
D. dynamic pivot table
MB2-718 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
You use the interactive service hub to manage cases.
Users report that they have difficulty finding a specific knowledge base article when they initiate a search from within a case.
You need to ensure that search returns relevant results.
What are two possible ways to achieve the goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Relate the article to one or more categories.
B. Relate the article to a more relevant subject.
C. Update the article description.
D. Add additional keywords.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 11
You ship a replacement part to a customer.
The customer reports that they receive the incorrect part.
You need to initiate a process to return the product to the warehouse.
What should you do?
A. Create a new return merchandise authorization (RMA) record.
B. Create a new return to vendor (RTV) record.
C. Create a new Agreement record.
D. Create a new Inventory Adjustment record.
MB2-718 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Which two statements regarding case routing are true? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. You can add a maximum of five routing rule items to a routing rule set
B. A workflow is automatically created for each routing rule.
C. A maximum of three routing rule sets can be active at the same time.
D. You can route or assign a case to a user, queue, or team.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 13
Which two of the following are valid routing rule actions? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Cancel Case
B. Send Email
C. Assign to User/Team
D. Route to Queue
MB2-718 pdf Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 14
You have a Microsoft Dynamics 365 environment You implement Field Service.
You need to set up a service task type.
Which three fields, components, or relationships are available when you create a new service task type? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Description
B. Notes
C. Field Agent
D. Estimated Duration
E. Work Order Duration
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 15
You need to change the warehouse location for product inventory. What should you do?
A. Create a new Product Relationship record.
B. Create a new Warehouse record.
C. Create a new Inventory Transfer record.
D. Create a new Inventory Adjustment record.
MB2-718 vce Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
You implement the Unified Service Desk (USD). You plan to implement actions and replacement parameters. Which three symbols are valid replacement keys? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. ^
B. –
C. +
D. $
E. ~
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 17
You enable feedback for a Voice of the Customer survey. What is the total number of questions allowed for the survey?
A. 30
B. 40
C. 100
D. 250
MB2-718 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
You use the automatic creation and update rule feature to create case records automatically.
Which three source record types are available for automatically creating a case? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. social activity
B. mailbox alert
C. survey activity
D. auto post
E. booking alert
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 19
You create a queue and assign it to a team. Which type of queue is created?
A. Personal
B. System
C. Escalation
D. Shared
MB2-718 dumps Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 20
You create a service-level agreement (SLA). For which two of the following key performance indicators (KPIs) can you create actions? Each correct answer
presents a complete solution.
A. Escalate By
B. Resolve By
C. First Response By
D. Close By
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 21
Under which two circumstances will a routing rule be applied to a case without user intervention? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. a case is created as the result of a record creation rule
B. a case was created before the routing rule was activated
C. a case is created by using a convert to case action
D. a case is created manually
MB2-718 pdf Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 22
You manage a Microsoft Dynamics 365 deployment for Contoso, Ltd.
You need to provide users the URL to their Microsoft Dynamics 365 Online interactive service hub.
What is the URL format for the Microsoft Dynamics 365 Online interactive service hub?
A. hnps://www.microsoht.com/en-US/crynamics/crm-custo-customer-center/interactive- service-hub-user-s-guide.aspx#bkmk_Access
B. https://contoso.crm.dynamics.com/XRMServices/2011/Discovery.svc
C. https://contoso.crm.dynamics,com/engagementhub.aspx
D. https://contoso.crm.dynamics.com/main.aspx
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 23
You have a Microsoft Dynamics 365 environment. You implement Field Service and create a Field Service Agreement for a specific account
Where should you define the preferred resource?
A. Schedule Board Setting
B. Booking Setup
C. Field Service Settings
D. Scheduler Field Service slot text template
MB2-718 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 24
You implement the Unified Service Desk (USD). Which three of the following objects are events? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Realignwindow
B. BrowserDocumentComplete
C. DesktopReady
D. SessionClosing
E. FireEvent
Correct Answer: CDE

QUESTION 25
What are two examples of entitlement allotment options? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Number of Channels
B. Number of Products
C. Number of Cases
D. Number of Hours
MB2-718 exam Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 26
Which three statements regarding Voice of The Customer are true. Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. The survey definition is stored in Microsoft Azure. The survey response is temporarily stored in Azure Service Bus then later retrieved and stored in Microsoft Dynamics 365. Survey responses are deleted from Azure Service Bus after they are stored in Microsoft Dynamics 365.
B. Collateral, such as themes and images, can be stored as web resources and included in solutions.
C. Surveys can be included in solutions.
D. Each new environment requires the creation of configuration records.
E. Each survey contains three forms.
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 27
You are a customer service agent in a call center. AH customer service agents use Unified Service Desk (USD) to respond to calls.
You need to respond to two calls from two different customers at the same time. What should you do?
A. Create one session for each customer.
B. Create two sessions and use connections to create a relationship between them.
C. Create one session and add each customer to a separate section on the form.
D. Create one session and add each customer to the related customer sub grid.
MB2-718 dumps Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 28
You release an item from a queue.
What is the outcome?
A. The current routing rule is applied.
B. The value from the Worked By field is removed.
C. The record is returned to the originating queue.
D. The record is removed from the current queue and placed in the user’s personal queue.
Correct Answer: D

Exam Code: MB2-718
Exam Name: Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Customer Service
Q&As: 90

[New Pass4itsure Microsoft MB2-718 PDF Dumps Questions From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1zgYxxcF1O4ywufRzc_847E5CKyvjKNaL

[New Pass4itsure Microsoft MB6-890 PDF Dumps Questions From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1_fhtHzA-KhC_ebDl2fHSByH4M0FWe-ea

Acquiring all the required knowledge is not sufficient to pass any mb2-718 dumps Microsoft Specialist exams. The pass4itsure practice test MB2-718 prepares candidates for the Microsoft exam MB2-718: Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Customer Service exam. This is because beside the content knowledge, you need appropriate test taking plan, time management skill and above all, confidence.  Experts assess students’ capability through pass4itsure MB2-718 dumps exams. That is why, practicing the exam before taking the real mb2-718 exam is very crucial.  Pass4itsure have remarkably contributed to a vital role in your life and also the improvement of your living standards. Before appearing in the exam you must have a much detailed sense of the areas to focus on the mb2-718 exam, prospective question types, the exam-time scenario, appropriate pacing and test-taking strategies.

MB2-718 dumps
It can help you improve your job and living standard, and having it can give you a great sum of wealth. And facilitate this, we, at Passitcertify.com, have assembled a pool of required preparation dumps materials with all the essential information with in-depth coverage of the Microsoft Specialist mb2-718 exam. The topics covered for the exam are as follows. Microsoft certification MB2-718 dumps is a test of the level of knowledge of IT professionals.  Pass4itsure mb2-718 dumps can ensure you a passing score in the test.

If you are still waiting, still hesitating, or you are very depressed how through Microsoft MB2-718 dumps certification exam. However, if you fail the microsoft mb2-718 exam at the first attempt after using our products, we will arrange a Full Refund to you.  Do not worry, the pass4itsure pass4itsure MB2-718 dumps exam certification training materials will help you solve these problems. You just need to send your mb2-718 dumps certification score report and some relevant forms to us.  After confirming your information, we will proceed for the guarantee claim to eliminate your worries.

[New Microsoft Release] Discount Microsoft MCSA Exam 70-410 Dumps PDF With Low Price Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012

pass4itsure MB2-718 dumps

Pass4itsure Microsoft MB2-718 Dumps Vce Files, First-hand Microsoft MB2-718 Dumps PDF Guaranteed Success, We Help You Pass Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Customer Service. Pass4itsure MB2-718 Dumps Exam Youtube Free Online Test Here:

Pass4itsure Promo Code 15% Off
pass4itsure MB2-718 dumps

[New Cisco Release] Free Cisco 210-260 Dumps PDF CCNA Security Exam Questions Answers With New Discount (300+ Questions) 21-40

What do you think of using pass4itsure Cisco 210-260 dumps 100% correct answers? Pass4itsure Cisco 210-260 Dumps Real Questions Answers, Free Cisco 210-260 Dumps Exam Q&As With New Discount, We Help You Pass Implementing Cisco Network Security – pass4itsure 210-260 dumps pdf (300+ Questions).

Download Complete List of Pass4itsure 210-260 Dumps Topics in PDF format:
1.0 Security Concepts 12%
2.0 Secure Access 14%
3.0 VPN 17%
4.0 Secure Routing and Switching 18%
5.0 Cisco Firewall Technologies 18%
6.0 IPS 9%
7.0 Content and Endpoint Security

Do you provide free updates?

Wouldn’t it be the best thing to know about the actual 210-260 exam questions way before you step in the exam hall? Yes. Our PDF of 210-260 exam is designed to ensure everything which you need to pass your exam successfully. At Pass4itsure.com, we have a completely customer oriented policy. We flfl your dream and give you real 210-260 questions in our Cisco 210-260 dumps. We invite the rich experience and expert knowledge of professionals from the IT certification industry to guarantee the PDF details precisely and logically. Our customers’ time is a precious concern for us. This requires us to provide you the products that can be utilized most efficiently. You get the chance to practice real 210-260 test questions, exactly the ones you’ll be getting in the real 210-260 Implementing Cisco Network Security exam.

Master all the 210-260 dumps’ exam questions and answers. 210-260: Implementing Cisco Network Security exam dumps consists all the necessary tools and information to help you pass 210-260 dumps certification exam. So the dreaded day of exam will be nothing less than a fun day. Sometimes you can get really frustrated due to failure of getting your job desires. Perform amazingly in the 210-260 dumps exam and get certified easily. The principle thing to note is that this exam tests a candidate’s knowledge of installation, troubleshooting, and monitoring of a secure network to maintain integrity, confidentiality, and availability of data and devices. The Implementing Cisco Network Security (IINS) exam (210-260) is a 90-minute assessment with 60-70 questions.

Pass4itsure Cisco 210-260 Dumps Training Program Online Here(21-40)

QUESTION 21
Which ports need to be active for AAA server and a Microsoft server to permit Active Directory authentication?
A. 445 and 389
B. 888 and 3389
C. 636 and 4445
D. 363 and 983
210-260 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 22
DRAG DROP
Drag the hash or algorithm from the left column to its appropriate category on the right.
Select and Place:
210-260 dumps
Correct Answer:
210-260 dumps
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 23
If a switch receives a superior BPDU and goes directly into a blocked state, what mechanism must be in use?
A. root guard
B. EtherChannel guard
C. loop guard
D. BPDU guard
210-260  dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 24
Which two are valid types of VLANs using PVLANs? (Choose two.)
A. Backup VLAN
B. Secondary VLAN
C. Promiscuous VLAN
D. Community VLAN
E. Isolated VLAN
Correct Answer: DE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 25
Which two are the default settings for port security? (Choose two.)
A. Violation is Protect
B. Maximum number of MAC addresses is 1
C. Violation is Restrict
D. Violation is Shutdown
E. Maximum number of MAC addresses is 2
210-260 pdf Correct Answer: BD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 26
Refer to the exhibit.
210-260 dumps
Which area represents the data center?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 27
Refer to the exhibit.
210-260 dumps
A network security administrator checks the ASA firewall NAT policy table with the show nat command. Which statement is false?
A. First policy in the Section 1 is dynamic nat entry defined in the object configuration.
B. There are only reverse translation matches for the REAL_SERVER object.
C. NAT policy in Section 2 is a static entry defined in the object configuration.
D. Translation in Section 3 is used when a connection does not match any entries in first two sections.
210-260 vce Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 28
Which two are characteristics of RADIUS? (Choose two.)
A. Uses TCP ports 1812/1813
B. Uses UDP port 49
C. Encrypts only the password between user and server
D. Uses TCP port 49
E. Uses UDP ports 1812/1813
Correct Answer: CE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 29
Which two types of firewalls work at layer 4 and above? (Choose two.)
A. Application level firewall
B. Circuit-level gateway
C. Static packet filter
D. Network Address Translation
E. Stateful inspection
210-260 exam Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 30
When setting up a site-to-site VPN with PSK authentication on a Cisco router, which two elements must be configured under crypto map? (Choose two.)
A. nat
B. peer
C. pfs
D. reverse-route
E. transform-set
Correct Answer: BE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 31
Which two commands are used to implement Resilient IOS Configuration? (Choose two.)
A. copy flash:/ios.bin tftp
B. copy running-config tftp
C. copy running-config startup-config
D. secure boot-image
E. secure boot-config
210-260 dumps Correct Answer: DE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 32
Which two events would cause the state table of a stateful firewall to be updated? (Choose two.)
A. when a connection’s timer has expired within the state table
B. when a connection is created
C. when rate-limiting is applied
D. when a packet is evaluated against the outbound access list and is denied
E. when an outbound packet is forwarded to the outbound interface
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 33
Which IPSec mode is used to encrypt traffic directly between a client and a server VPN endpoint?
A. transport mode
B. tunnel mode
C. aggressive mode
D. quick mode
210-260 pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 34
On an ASA, the policy that indicates that traffic should not be translated is often referred to as which of the following?
A. NAT zero
B. NAT forward
C. NAT null
D. NAT allow
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 35
What is true of an ASA in transparent mode?
A. It requires a management IP address
B. It allows the use of dynamic NAT
C. It requires an IP address for each interface
D. It supports OSPF
210-260 vce Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 36
Which component offers a variety of security solutions, including firewall, IPS, VPN, antispyware, antivirus, and antiphishing features?
A. Cisco IOS router
B. Cisco ASA 5500-X Series Next Gen. Security appliance
C. Cisco 4200 series IPS appliance
D. Cisco ASA 5500 series security appliance
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 37
How does a zone pair handle traffic if the policy definition of the zone pair is missing?
A. It permits all traffic without logging.
B. It drops all traffic.
C. It inspects all traffic.
D. It permits and logs all traffic.
210-260 exam Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 38
Which command do you enter to configure your firewall to conceal internal addresses?
A. no ip logging facility
B. no ip directed-broadcast
C. no ip inspect
D. no proxy-arp
E. no ip source-route
F. no ip inspect audit-trail
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 39
Which IOS command do you enter to test authentication against a AAA server?
A. aaa authentication enable default test group tacacs+
B. dialer aaa suffix password C. ppp authentication chap pap test
D. test aaa-server authentication dialergroup username password
210-260 dumps Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 40
Which technology can block a non-malicious program that is run from a local computer that has been disconnected from the network?
A. antivirus software
B. firewall
C. host IPS
D. network IPS
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

Exam Code: 210-260
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Network Security
Q&As: 329

[New Pass4itsure Cisco 210-260 PDF Dumps Questions From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWU0xad3NvRWR4Qzg

[New Pass4itsure Cisco 300-365 PDF Dumps Questions From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1G_BGbDqQ_nwjO5Wle0N-RndiD58yTtFS

IINS Study Material:

Security Concepts

  • Implementing Cisco Network Security (IINS) v3.0CLN Store Content
  • CCNA Security Official Study Guide by Cisco PressCisco Press Content
  • Diffie Hellman Exchange
  • Mitigating Layer 2 Attacks
  • CCNA Security 210-260 Complete Video CourseCisco Press Content
  • CCNA Security (210-260) Portable Command Guide, 2nd EditionCisco Press Content
  • Current Security Threat Landscape Networking Talks LiveLessonsCisco Press Content
  • Cisco Firepower Threat Defense (FTD): Configuration and Troubleshooting Best Practices for the Next-Generation Firewall (NGFW), Next-Generation Intrusion Prevention System (NGIPS), and Advanced Malware Protection (AMP)

Secure Access

  • Implementing Cisco Network Security (IINS) v3.0CLN Store Content
  • Securing Cisco Routers 1.0 (SECR)
  • CCNA Security Prep from Networkers
  • CCNA Security 210-260 Complete Video CourseCisco Press Content
  • CCNA Security (210-260) Portable Command Guide, 2nd EditionCisco Press Content
  • Cisco Firepower Threat Defense (FTD): Configuration and Troubleshooting Best Practices for the Next-Generation Firewall (NGFW), Next-Generation Intrusion Prevention System (NGIPS), and Advanced Malware Protection (AMP)

VPN

  • Implementing Cisco Network Security (IINS) v3.0CLN Store Content
  • CCNA Security: IPsec VPNs
  • CCNA Security: SSL VPNs Varies
  • Configuring IPsec Site-to-Site VPN
  • Site-to-Site IPsec VPN Operations
  • Diffie Hellman Exchange
  • Securing Cisco Routers 1.0 (SECR)
  • CCNA Security 210-260 Complete Video CourseCisco Press Content
  • CCNA Security (210-260) Portable Command Guide, 2nd EditionCisco Press Content

Secure Routing and Switching

  • Implementing Cisco Network Security (IINS) v3.0CLN Store Content
  • Mitigating Layer 2 Attacks
  • Hardening Cisco IOS Devices
  • Securing Cisco Routers 1.0 (SECR)
  • CCNA Security 210-260 Complete Video CourseCisco Press Content
  • CCNA Security (210-260) Portable Command Guide, 2nd EditionCisco Press Content

Cisco Firewall Technologies

  • Implementing Cisco Network Security (IINS) v3.0CLN Store Content
  • CCNA Security 210-260 Complete Video CourseCisco Press Content
  • CCNA Security (210-260) Portable Command Guide, 2nd EditionCisco Press Content
  • Cisco Next-Generation Security Solutions: All-in-one Cisco ASA Firepower Services, NGIPS, and AMPCisco Press Content

IPS

  • Implementing Cisco Network Security (IINS) v3.0CLN Store Content
  • Chapter 6: Network Security Using Cisco IOS IPS
  • Chapter 5: Cisco IOS IPS
  • Securing Hosts Using Cisco Security Agent (HIPS) v3.1
  • Securing Cisco Routers 1.0 (SECR)
  • CCNA Security 210-260 Complete Video CourseCisco Press Content
  • CCNA Security (210-260) Portable Command Guide, 2nd EditionCisco Press Content
  • Introduction to FirePOWER & FireSIGHT Policies
  • Cisco Next-Generation Security Solutions: All-in-one Cisco ASA Firepower Services, NGIPS, and AMPCisco Press Content
  • Cisco Firepower Threat Defense (FTD): Configuration and Troubleshooting Best Practices for the Next-Generation Firewall (NGFW), Next-Generation Intrusion Prevention System (NGIPS), and Advanced Malware Protection (AMP)

Content and Endpoint Security

  • Implementing Cisco Network Security (IINS) v3.0CLN Store Content
  • Securing Hosts Using Cisco Security Agent (HIPS) v3.1
  • CCNA Security 210-260 Complete Video CourseCLN Store Content
  • CCNA Security (210-260) Portable Command Guide, 2nd EditionCLN Store Content
  • Introduction to FirePOWER & FireSIGHT Policies
  • Cisco Next-Generation Security Solutions: All-in-one Cisco ASA Firepower Services, NGIPS, and AMPCisco Press Content
  • Cisco Firepower Threat Defense (FTD): Configuration and Troubleshooting Best Practices for the Next-Generation Firewall (NGFW), Next-Generation Intrusion Prevention System (NGIPS), and Advanced Malware Protection (AMP)

This exam tests the candidate’s knowledge of secure network infrastructure, understanding core security concepts, managing secure access, VPN encryption, firewalls, intrusion prevention, web and email content security, and endpoint security. This exam validates skills for installation, troubleshooting, and monitoring of a secure network to maintain integrity, confidentiality, and availability of data and devices. The pass4itsure practice test 210-260 prepares candidates for the Cisco exam 210-260: Implementing Cisco Network Security exam. This exam also shows competency in the technologies that Cisco uses in its security infrastructure. Experts assess students’ capability through pass4itsure 210-260 dumps exams. Pass4itsure have remarkably contributed to a vital role in your life and also the improvement of your living standards. Candidates can prepare for this exam by taking the Implementing Cisco Network Security (IINS) course.
210-260 dumps
This scripture is designed on the church in Sardis, however the guidelines continues to be to become simple for homeschoolers. It can help you improve your job and living standard, and having it can give you a great sum of wealth. Within the function you seriously sense like you’re ineffective to homeschooling suitable now, you cisco 210-260 dumps exam questions are not by you. Cisco certification 210-260 dumps is a test of the level of knowledge of IT professionals. This could certainly be a difficult time of twelve months for fogeys.

It truly CCNA Security is difficult to maintain college new, thoroughly clean and fascinating. If you are still waiting, still hesitating, or you are very depressed how through Cisco 210-260 dumps certification exam. If you experience lifeless, glimpse within 210-260 iins dumps the exhortation. Do not worry, the pass4itsure pass4itsure 210-260 dumps exam certification training materials will help you solve these problems. You’ve got obtained a name of becoming alive, nevertheless, you are lifeless. Stand up! Strengthen what carries on being. Keep in mind, as a result, whatsoever you have 210-260 dump received Cisco Implementing Cisco Network Security and CCNA Security listened to.
pass4itsure 210-260 dumps

Pass4itsure Cisco 210-260 Dumps Real Questions Answers Implementing Cisco Network Security Exam Q&As With New Discount. Pass4itsure 210-260 Dumps Exam Youtube Free Online Test Here:

Pass4itsure Promo Code 15% Off

pass4itsure_pdf_coupon

[New Microsoft Release] Most Accurate Microsoft 70-533 Dumps PDF MCP Microsoft Specialist Exam Youtube Study Guide With Low Price (200+ Questions) 1-13

How do I get the best exam collection of Microsoft 70-533 dumps? Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-533 Dumps PDF, Most Accurate Microsoft 70-533 Dumps Study Guide With Low Price, We Help You Pass Implementing Microsoft Azure Infrastructure Solutions – pass4itsure 70-533 dumps pdf free (200+ Questions).

Preparation options

  • Online training
  • Instructor-led training
  • Exam prep video
  • Practice test
  • From the community
  • Books

Do you provide free updates?

There are a lot of reasons why people try to appear for the Microsoft 70-533 dumps certification exam, so that they can earn something in their lives in the field of Microsoft Azure. Yes. Our PDF of 70-533 exam is designed to ensure everything which you need to pass your exam successfully. At Pass4itsure.com, we have a completely customer oriented policy. We invite the rich experience and expert knowledge of professionals from the IT certification industry to guarantee the PDF details precisely and logically. Our customers’ time is a precious concern for us. This requires us to provide you the products that can be utilized most efficiently. Our pass4itsure have a lot of IT professionals and the exam practice questions and answers we provide have been certified by many IT elites.

70-533: Implementing Microsoft Azure Infrastructure Solutions exam dumps consists all the necessary tools and information to help you pass 70-533 dumps certification exam. Sometimes you can get really frustrated due to failure of getting your job desires. Implementing Microsoft Azure Infrastructure Solutions exam students need to get through a lot for qualifying for their 70-533 dumps certification exam for getting better jobs in IT in future. The principle thing to note is that this exam tests a candidate’s knowledge of implementing and monitoring cloud and hybrid solutions as well as supporting application lifecycle management. Besides, the exam practice questions and answers have wide coverage of the content of the examination and the correct rate is up to 100%.

Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-533 Dumps Training Program Online Here(1-13)

QUESTION 1
You manage two solutions in separate Azure subscriptions.
You need to ensure that the two solutions can communicate on a private network.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer a
Select and Place:
70-533 dumps
70-533 exam Correct Answer:
70-533 dumps
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Configure a VNet to VNet connection
There are 5 sections to plan and configure. Configure each section in the order listed below:
Note: In this procedure, we’ll walk you through connecting two virtual networks, VNet1 and VNet2. You’ll need to be comfortable with networking in order to substitute the IP address ranges that are compatible with your network design requirements. From an Azure virtual network, connecting to another Azure virtual network is the same as connecting to an on premises network via Site-to-site (S2S) VPN. This procedure primarily uses the Management Portal, however, you must use Microsoft Azure PowerShell cmdlets to connect the VPN gateways.
References:

QUESTION 2
Your company has a main office and several branch offices.
You create an Azure subscription and you deploy several virtual machines. The virtual machines are located in multiple subnets.
You need to provide remote access to the virtual machines to five users in each office by using a VPN connection. The remote access connections will not require a VPN device nor a public-facing IP address in order to work. Which three actions should you perform in sequence before you download the VPN client on each computer? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:
70-533 dumps
Correct Answer:
70-533 dumps
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 3
You manage an Azure virtual network environment for a company that has an office in Boston. The company plans to open a new office location in Paris.
You must replicate the Boston virtual network environment in Paris. How should you complete the relevant Azure PowerShell commands? To answer, drag the appropriate Azure PowerShell segment to the correct location. Each Azure PowerShell segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You
may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
Select and Place:
70-533 dumps
70-533 dumps Correct Answer:
70-533 dumps

QUESTION 4
HOTSPOT
You manage a web application named Contoso that is accessible from the URL
You need to view a live stream of log events for the web application. How should you configure the Azure PowerShell command? To answer, select the appropriate Azure PowerShell segment from each list in the answer area.
Hot Area:
70-533 dumps
Correct Answer:
70-533 dumps
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
References:

QUESTION 5
You are the Azure administrator for Contoso Ltd. You plan to use SharePoint Online to facilitate collaboration with a partner company named Fabrikam, Inc.
You have the following collaboration requirements:
You need to configure SharePoint Online.
Which configuration setting should you use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
Hot Area:
70-533 dumps
70-533 pdf Correct Answer:
70-533 dumps
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
References:

QUESTION 6
You are the administrator for your company’s Azure environment.
A developer creates an application that needs to access resources in external systems.
The application will be deployed in the domain.
You need to use the Azure Command-Line Interface (CLI) to create a service principal.
How should you configure the command? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:
70-533 dumps
Correct Answer:
70-533 dumps
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
References:

QUESTION 7
DRAG DROP
You plan to deploy a cloud service named contosoapp. The service includes a web role named contosowebrole. The web role has an endpoint named restrictedEndpoint. You need to allow access to restricted Endpoint only from your office machine using the IP address 145.34.67.82. Which values should you use within the service configuration file? To answer, drag the appropriate value to the correct location in the service configuration file. Each value may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
Select and Place:
70-533 dumps
70-533 pdf Correct Answer:
70-533 dumps
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
* Rule with lower order are applied first.
* We can selectively permit or deny network traffic (in the management portal or from PowerShell) for a virtual machine input endpoint by creating rules that specify “permit” or “deny”. By default, when an endpoint is created, all traffic is permitted to the endpoint. So for that reason, it’s important to understand how to create permit/deny rules and place them in the proper order of precedence to gain granular control over the network traffic that you choose to allow to reach the virtual machine endpoint. Note that at the instant you add one or more “permit” ranges, you are denying all other ranges by default. Moving forward from the first permit range, only packets from the permitted IP range will be able to communicate with the virtual machine endpoint.

QUESTION 8
You are managing an Azure SQL Database.
You need to export the database to a BACPAC file and verify that the export completes successfully.
Which four Azure PowerShell cmdlets or scripts should you run in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate cmdlets or scripts from the list of cmdlets to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:
70-533 dumps
Correct Answer:
70-533 dumps
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
References:

QUESTION 9
HOTSPOT
You manage a public-facing web application which allows authenticated users to upload and download large files. On the initial public page there is a promotional video. You plan to give users access to the site content and promotional video.In the table below, identify the access method that should be used for the anonymous and authenticated parts of the application. Make only one selection in each column.
Hot Area:
70-533 dumps
70-533 vce Correct Answer:
70-533 dumps

QUESTION 10
You manage an Azure environment that has 12 virtual machines (VMs). A set of VMs run a Web App that uses ASP.NET. The developer of the application must have access to ASP.NET metrics and Internet Information Services (IIS) logs from the VMs. You need to ensure that the metrics and logs are saved and provide the developer access to the data. For each requirement, which option should you use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
Hot Area:
70-533 dumps
Correct Answer:
70-533 dumps
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 11
You have an Azure Web App that uses the URL contoso.azurewebsites.net. The virtual IP address of the web app is subject to change. Users must be able to navigate to a custom domain name to access the Web App. You set up the DNS records for a custom domain at a third party registrar. You need to configure the web app to use the custom domain name. For each mapping, which DNS record type should you create? To answer, select the appropriate DNS record type from each list in the answer area.
Hot Area:
70-533 dumps
70-533 exam Correct Answer:
70-533 dumps
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
References:

QUESTION 12
Your company network has two branch offices. Some employees work remotely, including at public locations. You manage an Azure environment that includes several virtual networks. All users require access to the virtual networks. In the table below, identify which secure cross-premise connectivity option is needed for each type of user. Make only one selection in each column.
Hot Area:
70-533 dumps
Correct Answer:
70-533 dumps
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
* A site-to-site VPN allows you to create a secure connection between your on-premises site and your virtual network.
* A point-to-site VPN also allows you to create a secure connection to your virtual network.
In a point-to-site configuration, the connection is configured individually on each client computer that you want to connect to the virtual network.
* Use a point-to-site configuration when:
You want connect to your virtual network from a remote location. For example, connecting from a coffee shop.
You have a site-to-site connection, but have some clients that need to connect from a remote location.

QUESTION 13
HOTSPOT
You manage an Azure Web Site for a consumer-product company.
The website runs in Standard mode on a single medium instance.
You expect increased traffic to the website due to an upcoming sale during a holiday weekend.
You need to ensure that the website performs optimally when user activity is at its highest.
Which option should you select? To answer, select the appropriate option in the answer area.
Hot Area:
70-533 dumps
70-533 dumps Correct Answer:
70-533 dumps
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Note: The ‘small’ instance is selected. This setting would be for the weekdays. Then you would select a larger instance for the ‘weekend’ schedule setting to cover the increased activity.
References:

Exam Code: 70-533
Exam Name: Implementing Microsoft Azure Infrastructure Solutions
Q&As: 236

[New Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-533 PDF Dumps Questions From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWdFhrQ3ctUmY4d00

[New Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-483 PDF Dumps Questions From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1g4Vd4ELbqqdZk5P9lIpEVPx4Qzxz1QIl

Exam 70-533 Implementing Microsoft Azure Infrastructure Solutions
The next exam, “Implementing Microsoft Azure Infrastructure Solutions” forgoes the .net technicals, instead focusing on skills needed for IT pros. The requirements for 70-533 may seem like a simpler subset of those in 70-532, but closer inspection reveals that this exam places heavier emphasis on the use of PowerShell and the Azure CLI for setup and configuration. For this reason, Azure-devs might be interested in training for this exam as an extension to the skills gained from 70-532.

The Pass4itsure practice test 70-533 prepares candidates for the Microsoft exam 70-533: Implementing Microsoft Azure Infrastructure Solutions exam. Experts assess students’ capability through pass4itsure 70-533 dumps exams. Pass4itsure create an opportunity for you to get good grades in Implementing Microsoft Azure Infrastructure Solutions exam in the just first attempt, because this online platform provides you such kind of Microsoft Azure 70-533 training material from where you can easily get success in the 70-533 exam. Pass4itsure have remarkably contributed to a vital role in your life and also the improvement of your living standards. Although there are many similar websites, perhaps they can provide you study guide and online services, our pass4itsure is leading these many websites.
70-533 dumps
It can help you improve your job and living standard, and having it can give you a great sum of wealth. Microsoft certification 70-533 dumps is a test of the level of knowledge of IT professionals. The reason of making the pass4itsure stand out in so many peers is that we have a lot of timely updated practice questions and answers which accurately and correctly hit the exam. There is such a huge scope of these Microsoft 70-533 certification in this field and this is one of the most common reasons why a lot of people have been appearing for 70-533 certification.

If you are still waiting, still hesitating, or you are very depressed how through Microsoft 70-533 dumps certification exam. So we can well improve the exam pass rate and make the people ready to participate in Microsoft certification 70-533 dumps exam safely use practice questions and answers provided by pass4itsure to pass the exam. Do not worry, the pass4itsure 70-533 dumps exam certification training materials will help you solve these problems.  pass4itsure 100% guarantee you to pass Microsoft certification 70-533 exam.
pass4itsure 70-533 dumps

Most Accurate Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-533 Dumps PDF Implementing Microsoft Azure Infrastructure Solutions Exam Youtube Study Guide With Low Price. Pass4itsure 70-533 Dumps Exam Youtube Free Online Test Here:

[New Cisco Release] Most Popular Cisco 300-175 Dumps DCUCI PDF Exam Recommendations With 100% Pass Rate Youtube Study (240+ Questions) 1-17

Which version should you buy? Pass4itsure Cisco 300-175 Dumps Practise Questions, Most Popular Cisco 300-175 Dumps PDF Exam With 100% Pass Rate, We Help You Pass DCUCI Implementing Cisco Data Center Unified Computing (DCUCI) – pass4itsure 300-175 dumps (240+ Questions). Since that’s really only a few days or weeks away, we’d really suggest that you get rid of no moment, and put in an application for a Cisco 300–175 certificate examination now!

Download Complete List of Topics in PDF format
  • 1.0 Implement Cisco Unified Computing 28%
  • 2.0 Unified Computing Maintenance and Operations 20%
  • 3.0 Automation 12%
  • 4.0 Unified Computing Security 13%
  • 5.0 Unified Computing Storage 27%

Do you provide free updates?

Yes, once there are some changes on 300-175 exam, we will update the study materials timely to make sure that our customer can download the latest edition. We understand the importance of gaining 300-175 dumps Cisco Certified Network Professional Data Center exam certification and what it takes to successfully pass the 300-175 DCUCI exam dumps. The updates are provided free for 120 days.

300-175: DCUCI Implementing Cisco Data Center Unified Computing (DCUCI) exam dumps consists all the necessary tools and information to help you pass 300-175 certification exam. Sometimes you can get really frustrated due to failure of getting your job desires. That is why Pass4itsure offer something special for Candidates who are willing to take 300-175 dumps Cisco Data Center Unified Computing exam, regardless if they’re already professionals or in the beginning stages of their chosen careers. The principle thing to note is that this exam tests a candidate’s knowledge of implementing data center technologies including unified computing, unified computing maintenance and operations, automation, unified computing security, and unified computing storage.

300-175 dumps

Pass4itsure Cisco 300-175 DumpsTraining Program Online Here(1-17)

1. According to the SAS Rapid Warehousing Methodology, which of the following are valid outputs from the Requirements Phase? I.project plan II.cost/benefit analysis III.logical and physical models IV.metadata exploitation, population, and update process
A. I and II only
B. I, II, and III only
C. I, II, and IV only
D. I, II, III, and IV
300-175 exam Answer: A

2. Which of the following provides read access control to a SAS dataset?
A. Racf and RSA
B. LDAP and Racf
C. Roscoe and RSA
D. Panvelet and Roscoe
Answer: B

3. The performance scalability of SAS full table scans is being estimated. Which of the following metrics is appropriate for direct attached storage?
A. I/O per second
B. I/O latency per request
C. I/O request average size
D. I/O in megabytes per second
300-175 dumps Answer: D

4. Usage success criteria have been defined for a data warehouse project. Which of the following metrics supports these criteria?
A. number of queries in a given time period
B. performance against a pre-warehouse baseline
C. number of gigabytes of data stored in the warehouse
D. amount of time between the close of business and warehouse refresh
Answer: A

5. A data warehouse uses a relational database management system (RDBMS) for its core data repository. Bulk loading has been proposed as the method for loading larger RDBMS tables into the warehouse. Which of the following must be considered when developing the bulk load routines? I.indexes II.join efficiency III.integrity constraints IV.representation of null values
A. I and II only
B. III and IV only
C. I, II, and III only
D. I, III, and IV only
300-175 pdf Answer: D

6. Which of the following factors must be considered when designing an efficient client-server ad hoc query system?
A. output appearance
B. user access privileges
C. graphical user interface
D. number of rows in the result set
Answer: D

7. During warehouse process and architecture planning, which of the following are required inputs for an
effective gap analysis of the operational source systems? I.detailed logical models II.locations of source
data III.detailed physical models IV.business requirements document
A. I and III only
B. III and IV only
C. I, II, and IV only
D. I, III, and IV only
300-175 vce Answer: D

8. A diagram of a logical entity-relationship model of a magazine subscription company is shown below: Which of the following statements about this model is true?
A. Every sales region has several sales reps.
B. A package may be related to several subscriptions.
C. All magazines are included in at least one package.
D. A subscription may be related to several subscribers.
Answer: B

9. A medical insurance company has developed a data warehouse containing confidential data about its customers. Power users require OLAP functionality with reach-through to the detail data. Which of the following supports the users’ requirements while protecting customer privacy?
A. providing only aggregated statistics
B. securing the data within the OLAP application
C. securing sensitive data within the detail schema
D. suppressing personal details from summarized reports
300-175 exam Answer: C

10. A SAS reporting application is used by 100 users within a company. The user base is equally divided between power, intermediate, and novice users. All users are currently sharing the same temporary space when executing queries to produce reports. Examination of the user logs indicates I/O contention
when using the temporary space. Which of the following would improve I/O performance?
A. prioritizing execution of all jobs by user level
B. assigning all 100 users their individual temporary space
C. forcing all users to execute queries using permanent space
D. using logical partitioning of the temporary space by user group
Answer: B

QUESTION: 11
When applying the Messaging Metadata pattern, it is customary to place business document data in the message header and supplementary messaging metadata in the message body.
A. True
B. False
300-175 dumps Answer: B

QUESTION: 12
The Messaging Metadata pattern requires a messaging framework that supports the processing of messages with headers or properties.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

QUESTION: 13
Which of the following statements is false?
A. Widespread use of the Messaging Metadata pattern can be seen in the emergence of many WS-* extensions that define industry standard SOAP header blocks that carry metadata.
B. Messaging frameworks and technologies need to provide support for the reading and writing of message headers or properties in order to fully support the application of the Messaging Metadata pattern.
C. The Messaging Metadata pattern is not applicable to situations where the message sender and receiver need to participate in stateful or conversational message exchanges.
D. The Messaging Metadata pattern can support the application of patterns such as Intermediate Routing by supplementing messages with activity-specific metadata.
300-175 exam Answer: C

QUESTION: 14
A service agent has a technical contract that allows it to be explicitly invoked by service consumer programs.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

QUESTION: 15
Which of the following functions would not be suitable for a typical service agent?
A. event logging
B. message routing
C. complex Web service composition
D. error logging
300-175 dumps Answer: C

QUESTION: 16
The use of service agents will affect the design of service compositions as follows:
A. it will tend to increase the number of required services
B. it will tend to decrease the number of required services
C. it will tend to increase the number of required service compositions
D. it will tend to decrease the number of required service compositions
Answer: B

QUESTION: 17
Which of the following statements is true?
A. The overuse of service agents can lead to dependencies on proprietary vendor platforms.
B. The use of service agents is limited to the service architecture.
C. Service agents are common in orchestration environments but not within enterprise service bus environments.
D. None of these statements are true.
300-175 pdf Answer: A

QUESTION: 8
Governance can become an issue with service agents because:
A. You will need to determine who will own and maintain the service agents.
B. Changes to a single service agent can impact multiple services throughout a service inventory.
C. Service agents need to be versioned, just like services.
D. All of the above.
Answer: D

QUESTION: 9
Which of the following patterns may also require the application of the Service Agent pattern?
A. Reliable Messaging
B. Asynchronous Queuing
C. Intermediate Routing
D. Policy Centralization
300-175 exam Answer: A, B, C, D

QUESTION: 10
Which statement regarding intermediate routing is true?
A. The application of the Intermediate Routing pattern is suitable for handling message routing requirements that are dynamic in nature and difficult to anticipate in advance.
B. The application of the Intermediate Routing pattern is suitable for handling pre determined message paths with fixed routing requirements that cannot be changed at runtime.
C. The application of the Intermediate Routing pattern tends to improve runtime performance when compared to an approach whereby routing logic is embedded within individual services.
D. None of these statements are true.
Answer: A

QUESTION: 11
The application of the Intermediate Routing pattern can address which of the following needs?
A. The need to increase the autonomy of a service due to its reliance on a shared data source.
B. The need to perform content-based routing based upon metadata found in the message header.
C. The need for load-balanced access to a redundantly deployed service.
D. The need to provide pre-defined compensating logic for when an atomic service transaction fails.
300-175 dumps Answer: B, C

QUESTION: 12
Load balancing is commonly associated with which pattern?
A. Atomic Service Transaction
B. Intermediate Routing
C. Service Broker
D. Decoupled Contract
Answer: B

QUESTION: 13
The use of the Intermediate Routing pattern typically results in:
A. common routing logic being removed from service logic and placed into service agents
B. common routing logic being removed from service agents and placed into a database
C. common routing logic being physically centralized into a single service
D. common routing logic being physically centralized into a single service composition
300-175 pdf Answer: A

QUESTION: 14
The application of the Intermediate Routing pattern can result in multiple service agents intercepting a message before it arrives at its destination.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

QUESTION:15
When applying the Asynchronous Queuing pattern you aim to establish an environment in which:
A. an intermediate buffer exists between a service and its service consumer
B. temporary message storage is provided in case either the service or service consumer are unavailable
C. periodic re-transmission of a message is supported until it is successfully delivered
D. enforcement of consistent, uninterrupted, synchronous communication between service and service consumer are guaranteed
300-175 vce Answer: A, B, C

QUESTION: 16
The queue established by applying the Asynchronous Queuing pattern enables service consumer and service to revert to a stateless condition before a data exchange has fully completed.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

QUESTION: 17
The Reliable Messaging pattern requires:
A. the use of standardized service contracts in order to enable message atomic transaction details to be carried in the message header
B. a framework for temporarily persisting messages and issuing acknowledgements
C. the application of the Official Endpoint pattern in order to enable acknowledgement features
D. a framework capable of bridging disparate messaging protocols in order to exchange schemas between compatible services
300-175 exam Answer: B
300-175 dumps
Exam Code: 300-175
Exam Name: DCUCI Implementing Cisco Data Center Unified Computing (DCUCI)
Q&As: 249

[New Pass4itsure Cisco 300-175 PDF Dumps Release From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWUUZ4UURySG9IdE0

[New Pass4itsure Microsoft 070-463 PDF Dumps Release From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWanJic19DTmpWLUU

Implement Unified Computing:

  • BRKINI-2201 – Deploying Cisco UCS in Modern Datacenters
  • Cisco Unified Computing System At-a-glance
  • Cisco Data Center Equipment and Technology Overview
  • Cisco UCS B-Series Blade Servers
  • Cisco UCS C-Series Rack Servers
  • Cisco UCS Manager Support Documentation And Software
  • Cisco UCS Central Software Support Documentation And Software
  • Cisco UCS Director Support Documentation And Software
  • Understanding Cisco Unified Computing System Service Profiles

Unified Computing Maintenance and Operations

  • Cisco UCS Manager Support Documentation And Software
  • BRKCOM-3008 – Unraveling UCS Manager Features, Policies and Mechanics

Automation

  • DEVNET-2060 – Managing Cisco UCS with the Python SDK
  • Introduction to Python Programming
  • Cisco UCS Manager Support Documentation And Software

Unified Computing Security

  • Cisco UCS Manager Support Documentation And Software

Unified Computing Storage

  • Cisco UCS Manager Support Documentation And Software
  • BRKCOM-2007 – UCS Storage Integration, Technologies, and Topologies
  • Storage Networking Protocol Fundamentals
  • Storage Networking Fundamentals: An Introduction to Storage Devices, Subsystems, Applications, Management, and File Systems 480

The Pass4itsure practice test 300-175 dumps prepares candidates for the Cisco exam 300-175: DCUCI Implementing Cisco Data Center Unified Computing (DCUCI) exam. Experts assess students’ capability through 300-175 exams. Our Cisco 300-175 dumps exam Demo preparation product is absolutely perfect for candidates who are in need of putting their careers on the top gear or in need of providing the brightest future for themselves. Pass4itsure have remarkably contributed to a vital role in your life and also the improvement of your living standards.

300-175 dumps

It can help you improve your job and living standard, and having it can give you a great sum of wealth. If you think you’re one of these people, our 300-175 dumps  exam demo solution will help you. Cisco certification 300-175 dumps is a test of the level of knowledge of IT professionals.

If you are still waiting, still hesitating, or you are very depressed how through 300-175  dumps certification exam. If it is fame, fortune and outstanding wealth that you are after, then we’d really recommend you ought to try 300–175 Cisco Certified Network Professional Data Center exam preparation with their enormous value and the fact that we also offer you exciting discount offers. Do not worry, the pass4itsure 300-175 dumps DCUCI exam certification training materials will help you solve these problems.pass4itsure 300-175 dumps
Most Popular Pass4itsure Cisco 300-175 Dumps PDF Practise DCUCI Implementing Cisco Data Center Unified Computing (DCUCI) Exam Questions Recommendations With 100% Pass Rate Video Training. Pass4itsure Cisco 300-175 Dumps Exam Youtube Free Online Test Here:

[New Microsoft Release] Best Quality Microsoft 70-686 Dumps Study Guide PDF Pro: Windows 7, Enterprise Desktop Administrator Video Study 184Q&As

Does it matter according to the Microsoft 70-686 dumps certification exam pattern? The Pro: Windows 7, Enterprise Desktop Administrator (70-686 Windows) exam is a 184 questions assessment in pass4itsure that is associated with the MCP certification. Best quality Microsoft 70-686 dumps study guide pdf Pro: Windows 7, Enterprise Desktop Administrator video study. “Pro: Windows 7, Enterprise Desktop Administrator” is the exam name of Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-686 dumps test which designed to help candidates prepare for and pass the Microsoft 70-686 exam. As I must consider Microsoft 70-686 test, I did recently been definitely freaking out since I truly doubted my own preparation. I we had not got considerable time prepare yourself possibly and that’s why the item came up as a surprise while I wound up passing https://www.pass4itsure.com/70-686.html dumps test along with flying colorings.

[New Microsoft 70-410 Dumps Release From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWemRUYmFFQVdJM1k

[New Microsoft 070-461 Dumps Release From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWRFNLVl8xNFJPejg

70-686 dumps

Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-686 Dumps Training Program Online Here(14-20)

Question No : 14  You use Group Policy to standardize Internet Explorer settings on Windows 7 client computers. Users occasionally change the Internet Explorer settings on individual client computers. What should you do?
A. Use Group Policy to disable the Advanced tab of the Internet Explorer Properties dialog box.
B. Use the Group Policy Update utility to refresh Group Policy.
C. Enable Internet Explorer Maintenance Policy Processing in Group Policy.
D. Enable User Group Policy loopback processing mode.
70-686 exam 
Answer: C
Explanation:
nternet Explorer Maintenance policy processing
This policy affects all policies that use the Internet Explorer Maintenance component of Group Policy, such as those in Windows Settings\Internet Explorer Maintenance. It overrides customized settings that the program implementing the Internet Explorer Maintenance policy set when it was installed. If you enable this policy, you can use the check boxes provided to change the options. Allow processing across a slow network connection updates the policies even when the update is being transmitted across a slow network connection, such as a telephone line. Updates across slow connections can cause significant delays. Do not apply during periodic background processing prevents the system from updating affected policies in the background while the computer is in use. Background updates can disrupt the user, cause a program to stop or operate abnormally, and, in rare cases, damage data.  Process even if the Group Policy objects have not changed updates and reapplies the policies even if the policies have not changed. Many policy implementations specify that they are updated only when changed. However, you might want to update unchanged policies, such as reapplying a desired setting in case a user has changed it.

Question No : 15
Your companys network includes client computers that run Windows 7. You design a wireless network to use Extensible Authentication ProtocolCTransport Level Security (EAP-TLS). The Network Policy Server has a certificate installed. Client computers are unable to connect to the wireless access points. You need to enable client computers to connect to the wireless network. What should you do?
A. Install a certificate in the Trusted Root Certification Authorities certificate store.
B. Configure client computers to use Protected Extensible Authentication ProtocolCTransport Layer Security (PEAP-TLS).
C. Configure client computers to use Protected Extensible Authentication Protocol Microsoft Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol version 2 (PEAP-MS-CHAP v2).
D. Install a certificate in the Third-Party Root Certification Authorities certificate store.
Answer: A
Explanation:

Question No : 16
Your company infrastructure includes a Windows Server 2008 R2 file server and 1,000 Windows 7 Enterprise client computers. The company wants to require a secure connection between client computers and the file server. You need to create and deploy a Group Policy object (GPO) that includes a rule for Windows Firewall with Advanced Security. What should you do?
A. Create an Isolation rule and specify Request authentication for inbound and outbound connections.
B. Create a Tunnel rule and specify Gateway-to-client as the tunnel type.
C. Create a Server-to-server rule and specify the endpoints as Any IP address and the file server IP address.
D. Create an Authentication exemption rule and add the file server IP address to the Exempt Computers list.
70-686 dumps Answer: C
Explanation:
The PDC emulator master also serves as the machine to which all domain controllers in the domain will synchronise their clocks. It, in turn, should be configured to synchronise to an external NTP time source

Question No : 17
You deploy Windows 7 to the computers that are used by your companys Web developers. All Web developer user accounts are in a single organizational unit (OU). Internet Explorer is blocking pop-up windows for multiple internal Web applications that are hosted on different servers. You need to use Group Policy to ensure that Internet Explorer does not block pop-up windows for internal Web applications. What should you do?
A. Enable Compatibility View in Internet Explorer.
B. Add each server to the Intranet zone.
C. Add each server to the Trusted Sites zone.
D. Set the default security setting in Internet Explorer to Medium.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Pop-up Blocker features
Pop-up Blocker is turned on by default. There are restrictions on the size and position of pop-up windows, regardless of the Pop-up Blocker setting. Pop-up windows cannot be opened larger than or outside the viewable desktop area. For more information, see “Windows Restrictions” in this document. When this functionality is enabled, automatic and background pop-up windows are blocked, but windows that are opened by a user click will still open in the usual manner. Note that sites in the Trusted Sites and Local Intranet zones do not have their pop-up windows blocked by default, as they are considered safe. This setting can be configured in the Security tab in Internet Options.
hints: internal web , so i choose intranet zones.
Local Intranet Zone
By default, the Local Intranet zone contains all network connections that were established
by using a Universal
Naming Convention (UNC) path, and Web sites that bypass the proxy server or have names that do not include periods (for example, http://local), as long as they are not assigned to either the Restricted Sites or Trusted Sites zone. The default security level for the Local Intranet zone is set to Medium (Internet Explorer 4) or Medium-low (Internet Explorer 5 and 6). Be aware that when you access a local area network (LAN) or an intranet share, or an intranet Web site by using an Internet Protocol (IP) address or by using a fully qualified domain name (FQDN), the share or Web site is identified as being in the Internet zone instead of in the Local intranet zone.
Trusted Sites Zone
This zone contains Web sites that you trust as safe (such as Web sites that are on your organization’s intranet or that come from established companies in whom you have confidence). When you add a Web site to the Trusted Sites zone, you believe that files you download or that you run from the Web site will not damage your computer or data. By default, there are no Web sites that are assigned to the Trusted Sites zone, and the security level is set to Low.

Question No : 18
Your network has client computers that run Windows 7 Enterprise. You plan to deploy new administrative template policy settings by using custom ADMX files. You create the custom ADMX files, and you save them on a network share. You start Group Policy Object Editor (GPO Editor). The custom ADMX files are not available in the Group Policy editing session. You need to ensure that the ADMX files are available to the GPO Editor. What should you do?
A. Copy the ADMX files to the % systemroot% \ inf folder on each Windows 7 computer, and then restart the GPO Editor.
B. Set the network share permissions to grant all Windows 7 users Read access for the share.
C. Copy the ADMX files to the %systemroot% \ system32 folder on each Windows 7 computer, and then restart the GPO Editor.
D. Copy the ADMX files to the central store, and then restart the GPO Editor.
70-686 pdf Answer: D
Explanation:
To take advantage of the benefits of .admx files, you must create a Central Store in the SYSVOL folder on a domain controller. The Central Store is a file location that is checked by the Group Policy tools. The Group Policy tools use any .admx files that are in the Central Store. The files that are in the Central Store are later replicated to all domain controllers in the domain.

Question No : 19 DRAG DROP
You are planning to deploy Windows 7 Enterprise to all of your company’s client
computers.
You have the following requirements:
• Create two custom partitions on each client computer’s hard disk, one for the operating system and the other for data.
• Automatically create the partitions during Windows Setup.
You need to design an image that meets the requirements. Which two actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order)
70-686 dumps

Question No : 20 DRAG DROP
All client computers in an organization run Windows 7 and are joined to an Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain. All user objects are stored in an Organizational Unit (OU) named Contoso Users. All computer objects are stored in an OU named Contoso Computers. You need to add a proxy server to the Microsoft Internet Explorer 9 configuration on all client computers by using the least administrative effort. Which three actions should you perform? (To answer, move the appropriate action from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)
70-686 dumps
70-686 dumps

See What Our Customers Are Saying:

We at Pass4itsure are committed to our customer’s success. There are 50,000+ customers who used this preparation material for the preparation of various certification exams and this number of customers is enough for new candidates to trust in these products. Our products are created with utmost care and professionalism. We utilize the experience and knowledge of a team of industry professionals from leading organizations all over the world.
70-686 dumps

I must say which Pass4itsure is best intended for 70-686 dumps test as well as I solely get this to admission after presenting the situation some serious concern. “Pro: Windows 7, Enterprise Desktop Administrator”, also known as 70-686 exam, is a Microsoft certification which covers all the knowledge points of the real Microsoft exam. Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-686 dumps exam questions answers are updated (184 Q&As) are verified by experts. The associated certifications of https://www.pass4itsure.com/70-686.html dumps is MCP. To not boast too much or anything but I must say I always deserve to be which man intended for after in my life.

Read More Youtube: https://youtu.be/tkQuBQR4yAY
pass4itsure
Compared with other brands, Pass4itsure has up to dated exam information, affordable price, instant exam PDF files downloaded, error correction, unlimited install,etc. Such as Pass4itsure Best Quality Microsoft 70-686 Dumps PDF, Real Microsoft 70-686 Dumps Self Study, We Help You Pass Pro: Windows 7, Enterprise Desktop Administrator. Simple and Easy! To take advantage of the guarantee, simply contact Customer Support, requesting the exam you would like to claim. Pass4itsure guarantee insures your success otherwise get your MONEYBACK!

[New Lpi Release] New Lpi 117-202 Dumps LPI Level 2 Exam 202 Study Guide Youtube Video LPI Questions Answers Guaranteed Success

How to avoid failure in Lpi 117-202 dumps exam? The LPI Level 2 Exam 202 (117-202) exam is a 294 questions assessment in pass4itsure that is associated with the Lpi certification. New Lpi 117-202 dumps LPI Level 2 Exam 202 study guide Youtube video LPI questions answers guaranteed success. “LPI Level 2 Exam 202” is the exam name of Pass4itsure Lpi 117-202 dumps test which designed to help candidates prepare for and pass the Lpi 117-202 exam. Pass4itsure’s https://www.pass4itsure.com/117-202.html dumps training tool has strong pertinence, which can help you save a lot of valuable time and energy to pass IT certification exam. Our exercises and answers and are very close true examination questions.

[New 117-202 Dumps Release From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1aY57mh_3ccN5_01gGk8V4gs68ZLp_hVa

[New Cisco 200-105 Dumps Release From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWWWw0QXQxY3R1X1E
117-202 dumps
Pass4itsure Lpi 117-202 Dumps Training Program Online Here:
QUESTION 36
An administrator wants to issue the command echo 1 >/var/ log/boater.log once all of the scripts in / etc/ rc2.d have been executed. What is the best way to accomplish this?
A. Add the command to /etc/rc.local
B. Create a script in ~/.kde/Autostart/ and place the command in it
C. Create a script in /etc/init.d/ and place a link to it in /etc/rc2.d/

D. Create a script in /etc/rc2.d/ and place the command in it
117-202 exam 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 37
An administrator has placed an executable in the directory /etc/init.d, however it is not being executed when the system boots into runlevel 2. What is the most likely cause of this?
A. The script has not been declared in /etc/services
B. runleve1 2 is not declared in /etc/inittab
C. The script has the permissions 700 and is owned by root
D. A corresponding link was not created in /etc/rc2.d
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 38
For an LDAP client configuration, the LDAP base needs to be set. Which TWO of the following actions would achieve that?
A. export LDAPBASE=dc=linuxfoo,dc=com
B. export BASE=dc=linuxfoo,dc=com
C. Edit ldapbase.conf and add “BASE dc=linuxfoo,dc=com”.
D. Edit cldap.conf and add “BASE dc=linuxfoo,dc=com”.
E. Edit ldap.conf and add “BASE dc=linuxfoo,dc=com”.
117-202 dumps 
Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 39
Which of the following options can be passed to a DHCP client machine using configuration options on the DHCP server?
A. The NIS domain name
B. The resolving order in /etc/resolv.conf
C. The priority order in nsswitch.conf
D. The filter rules for iptables
E. The contents of hosts.allow and hosts.deny
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 40
Which answer best describes the meaning of the following LDAP search commanD. ldapseareh -x” (& (cn=marie)(telephoneNumber=9*))”
A. It is searching for all entries that don’t have the cn attribute equal to marie OR the telephoneNumber attribute starting with number 9
B. It is searching for all entries that have the cn attribute equal to marie AND the telephoneNumber attribute starting with number 9
C. It is searching for all entries that have the cn attribute equal to marie AND the telephoneNumber attribute ending with number 9
D. It is searching for all entries that don’t have the cn attribute equal to marie AND the telephoneNumber attribute starting with number 9
E. It is searching for all entries that have the cn attribute different than marie OR the telephoneNumber attribute starting with number 9
117-202 pdf 
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 41
In a PAM configuration file, a sufficient control allows access:
A. Immediately on success, if no previous required or requisite control failed
B. Immediately on success, regardless of other controls
C. After waiting if all other controls return success
D. Immediately, but only if the user is root
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 42
After setting up Apache to run inside a chroot jail as a non-root user, httpd no longer starts. What is the primary cause of the problem?
A. Apache needs to start as root to bind to port 80
B. Apache cannot read the main index.html file because it was not moved into the chroot environment
C. A LoadModule line for mod_chroot needs to be added to httpd.conf
D. Apache requires a VirtualHost directive when running from a chroot environment
E. The mod_chroot configuration needs the absolute path to the chroot environment
117-202 vce 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 43
Which is a valid Squid option to define a listening port?
A. port = 3128
B. http-listen-port=3128
C. http_port 3128
D. squid_port 3128
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 44
What is the name of the network security scanner project which, at the core, is a server with a set of network vulnerability tests (NVTs)?
A. nmap
B. OpenVAS
C. Snort
D. wireshark
117-202 exam 
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 45
How must Samba be configured, so that it can check passwords against the ones in /etc/passwd and / etc/ shadow?
A. Set the parameters “encrypt passwords = yes” and “password file = /etc/passwd”.
B. Set the parameters “encrypt passwords = yes”, “password file = /etc/passwd” and “password algorithm =crypt”
C. Delete the smbpasswd file and create a symbolic link to the passwd and shadow file
D. It is not possible for Samba to use/etc/passwd and /etc/shadow
E. Run smbpasswd to convert /etc/passwd and /etc/shadow to a Samba pass word file
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 46
What is the standard port number for the unencrypted IMAP service?
A. 25
B. 143
C. 443
D. 993
E. 1066
117-202 dumps 
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 47
Considering the following kernel IP routing table below, which of the following commands must be used to remove the route to the network 10.10.1.0/24?
117-202 dumps
A. route del 10.10.1.0
B. route del 10.10.1.0/24
C. route del – net 10.10.1.0/24
D. route del 10.10.1.0/24 gw 192.168.246.11
E. route del -net 10.10.1.0
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 48
After changing /etc/exports on a server, remote hosts are still unable to mount the exported directories. What should be the next action? Please select TWO correct answers.
A. Restart the NFS daemon
B. Run exportfs -a on the server
C. Run exportfs -f on the server
D. Run showmount -a on the server
E. Restart the remote hosts
117-202 pdf 
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 49
Considering the following kernel IP routing table now, which of the following commands must be remove the route to the network 10.10.1.0/24?
117-202 dumps
Kernel IP routing table

A. routedel 10.10.1.0
B. routedel 10.10.1.0/24
C. routedel -net 10.10.1.0/24
D. routedel 10.10.1.0/24 gw 192.168.246.11
E. routedel -net 10.10.1.0
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 50
Some users are unable to connect to specific local hosts by name, while accessing hosts in other zones works as expected. Given that the hosts are reachable by their IP addresses, which is the default log file that could provide hints about the problem?
A. /var/named/log
B. /var/lib/named/dev/log
C. /var/log/bind_errors
D. /var/log/bind/errors
E. /var/log/messages
117-202 vce 
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 51
Which Squid configuration directive defines the authentication method to use?
A. auth_param
B. auth_method
C. auth_program
D. auth_mechanism
E. proxy_auth
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 52
Which entry in the .procmailrc file will send a copy of an email to another mail address?
A. :0 c
B. :0 copy
C. :c
D. :copy
E. :s
117-202 exam 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 53
A security-conscious administrator would change which TWO of the following lines found in an SSH configuration file?
A. Protocol 2, 1
B. PermitEmptyPasswords no
C. Port 22
D. PermitRootLogin yes
E. IgnoreRhosts yes
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 54
Which of the following sentences is true about ISC DHCP?
A. It can’t be configured to assign addresses to BOOTP clients.
B. Its default behavior is to send DHCPNAK to clients that request inappropriate addresses.
C. It can’t be used to assign addresses to X – terminals.
D. It can be configured to only assign addresses to known clients.
E. None of the above.
117-202 dumps 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 55
The host, called ” Certkiller “, with the MAC address “08:00:2b:4c:59:23”, should always be given the IP address of 192.168.1.2 by the DHCP server. Which of the following configurations will achieve this?
A. host Certkiller {
hardware-ethernet 08:00:2b:4c:59:23;
fixed-address 192.168.1.2;
}
B. host Certkiller {
mac=08:00:2b:4c:59:23;
ip= 192.168.1.2;
}
C. host Certkiller = 08:00:2b:4c:59:23 192.168.1.2
D. host Certkiller {
hardware ethernet 08:00:2b:4c:59:23;
fixed-address 192.168.1.2;
}
E. host Certkiller {
hardware-address 08:00:2b.4c:59:23;
fixed-ip 192.168.1.2;
}
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 56
Which dhcpd.conf option defines the DNS server address(es) to be sent to the DHCP clients?
A. domainname
B. domain-name-servers
C. domain-nameserver
D. domain-name-server
117-202 pdf 
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 57
What is a significant difference between host and zone keys generated by dnssec-keygen?
A. There is no difference.
B. Both zone key files ( .key/.private ) contain a public and private key.
C. Both host keys files ( .key/. private) contain a public and private key.
D. Host Keys must always be generated if DNSSEC is used; zone keys are optional
E. Zone Keys must always be generated if is used; host keys are optional
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 58
Which of these would be the simplest way to configure BIND to return a different version number to queries?
A. Compile BIND with the option -blur-version=my version.
B. Set version-string “my version” in BIND’s configuration file.
C. Set version “my version” in BIND’s configuration file.
D. Set version=my version in BIND’s configuration file.
E. Ser version-bind “my version” in BIND’s configuration file.
117-202 vce 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 59
117-202 dumps
A. Any host, from any network, may use this server as its main DNS server.
B. If the server doesn’t know the answer to a query, it sends a recursive query to 192.168.0.4.
C. If the server doesn’t know the answer to a query, it sends a query to a root DNS server.
D. Hosts in the network 10.0.0.0/24 will be able to ask for zone transfers.
E. If the server doesn’t know the answer to a query, it sends a recursive query to 192.168.0.4 and, if this fails, it returns a failure.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 60
A BIND server should be upgraded to use TSIG. Which configuration parameters should be added, if the server should use the algorithm hmac-md5 and the key skrKc4DoTzi/tAkllPi7JZA== ?
A. TSIG server.example.com.
algorithm hmac-md5;
secret “skrKc4DoTzi/tAkllPi7JZA==”;
};
B. key server.example.com. {
algorithm hmac-md5;
secret skrKc4DoTzi/tAkllPi7JZA==;
};
C. key server.example.com. {
algorithm hmac-md5;
secret “skrKc4DoTzi/tAkllPi7JZA==”;
};
D. key server.example.com. {
algorithm=hmac-md5;
secret=”skrKc4DoTzi/tAkllPi7JZA==”;
};
E. key server.example.com. {
algorithm hmac-md5
secret “skrKc4DoTzi/tAkI1Pi7JZA==”
};

117-202 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 61
DNSSEC is used for?
A. Encrypted DNS queries between nameservers.
B. Cryptographic authentication of DNS zones.
C. Secondary DNS queries for local zones.
D. Defining a secure DNS section.
E. Querying a secure DNS section.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 62
A BIND server should never answer queries from certain networks or hosts. Which configuration directive could be used for this purpose?
A. deny-query { …; };
B. no-answer { …; };
C. deny-answer { …; };
D. deny-access { …; };
E. blackhole { …; };
117-202 dumps 
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 63
What is the purpose of a PTR record?
A. To provide name to IP resolution.
B. To provide IP to name resolution.
C. To direct email to a specific host.
D. To provide additional host information.
E. To direct clients to another nameserver.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 64
Performing a DNS lookup with dig results in this answer: What might be wrong in the zone definition?
117-202 dumps
A. Nothing. All seems to be good.
B. There’s no “.” after linuserv.example.net in the PTR record in the forward lookup zone file.
C. There’s no “.” after linuserv in the PTR record in the forward lookup zone file.
D. There’s no “.” after linuserv.example.net in the PTR record in the reverse lookup zone file.
E. The “.” in the NS definition in reverse lookup zone has to be removed.

117-202 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 65
What directive can be used in named.conf to restrict zone transfers to the 192.168.1.0/24 network?
A. allow-transfer { 192.168.1.0/24; };
B. allow-transfer { 192.168.1.0/24 };
C. allow-axfr { 192.168.1.0/24; };
D. allow-axfr { 192.168.1.0/24 };
E. allow-xfer { 192.168.1.0/24; };
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 66
To securely use dynamic DNS updates, the use of TSIG is recommended. Which TWO statements about TSIG are true?
A. TSIG is used for zone data encryption
B. TSIG is a signal to start a zone update
C. TSIG is used in zone files
D. TSIG is used only in server configuration
E. Servers using TSIG must be in sync (time zone!)
117-202 vce 
Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 67
Which option is used to configure pppd to use up to two DNS server addresses provided by the remote server?
A. ms-dns
B. nameserver
C. usepeerdns
D. dns
E. None of the above
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 68
A DNS server has the IP address 192.168.0.1. Which TWO of the following need to be done on a client machine to use this DNS server?
A. Add nameserver 192.168.0.1 to /etc/resolv.conf
B. Run route add nameserver 192.168.0.1
C. Run ifconfig eth0 nameserver 192.168.0.1
D. Run echo “nameserver 192.168.1.1” >> /etc/resolv.conf
E. Run bind nameserver 192.168.1.1
117-202 exam 
Correct Answer: AD

Pass4itsure is a website to provide IT certification Lpi 117-202 dumps exam training tool for people who attend IT certification exam examinee. “LPI Level 2 Exam 202”, also known as 117-202 exam, is a Lpi certification which covers all the knowledge points of the real Lpi exam. Pass4itsure Lpi 117-202 dumps exam questions answers are updated (294 Q&As) are verified by experts. The associated certifications of 117-202 dumps is Lpi. IN a short time of using Pass4itsure’s simulation test, you can 100% pass the exam. So spending a small amount of time and money in exchange for such a good result is worthful. Please add Pass4itsure’s https://www.pass4itsure.com/117-202.html dumps training tool in your shopping cart now.

Read More Youtube: https://youtu.be/vlv4NBH9WAc

 

[New Cisco Release] Download 100% Pass Rate Cisco 700-172 Dumps FlexPod Sales Exam Guide Questions Answers Video Training

Now are you in preparation for Cisco 700-172 dumps training materials? The FlexPod Sales (700-172) exam is a 45-minute, 35−45 item exam assessment in pass4itsure that is associated with the Cisco certification. 100% pass rate Cisco 700-172 dumps FlexPod Sales exam guide questions answers video training. “FlexPod Sales” is the exam name of Pass4itsure Cisco 700-172 dumps test which designed to help candidates prepare for and pass the Cisco 700-172 exam. Our Cisco Cisco 700-172 dumps practice test are updated in a timely manner in accordance with the changing of dumps objectives. In fact, the success is not far away, go down along with Pass4itsure, then you will come to the road to success. After years of research in IT dumps certification, our Pass4itsure has become a leader of IT industry. Our dumps software is consisted of comprehensive and diverse questions. Besides, as Pass4itsure know, once you have obtain Cisco https://www.pass4itsure.com/700-172.html dumps certification, your career in IT industry will be much easier.

[New Cisco 700-172 Dumps Release From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWQm8wSzFwYndIWjg

[New 117-202 Dumps Release From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1aY57mh_3ccN5_01gGk8V4gs68ZLp_hVa
700-172 dumps
Pass4itsure Cisco 700-172 Dumps Training Program Online Here:
QUESTION 18
Which cloud computing characteristic enables consumers to grow and shrink the demand for resources dynamically?
A. Rapid elasticity
B. Resource pooling
C. Measured service
D. On-demand self-service
700-172 exam 
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Rapid Elasticity
Capabilities can be elastically provisioned and released, in some cases automatically, to scale rapidly outward and inward commensurate with demand. To the consumer, the capabilities available for provisioning often appear to be unlimited and can be appropriated in any quantity at any time. Consumers can leverage rapid elasticity of the cloud when they have a fluctuation in their IT resource requirements. For example, an organization might require doubling the number of web and application servers for a specific duration to accomplish a specific task. For the remaining period, they might want to release idle server resources to cut down the expenses. The cloud enables consumers to grow and shrink the demand for resources dynamically.
QUESTION 19
Which operation is performed while creating a VM snapshot?
A. Create a delta file to record changes to the virtual disk since the session is activated
B. Capture the configuration data of a VM to create an identical copy of the VM
C. Create a journal volume to update changes to the snapshot
D. Create a “Gold” copy of the snapshot before copying changes to the virtual disk
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
VM Snapshot
VM Snapshot captures the state and data of a running virtual machine at a specific point in time. The VM state includes VM files, such as BIOS, network configuration, and its power state (powered-on, powered off, or suspended). The VM data includes all the files that make up the VM, including virtual disks and memory. A VM Snapshot uses a separate delta file to record all the changes to the virtual disk since the snapshot session is activated. Snapshots are useful when a VM needs to be reverted to the previous state in the event of logical corruptions. EMC E10-001 Student Resource Guide. Module 11: Local Replication
QUESTION 20
Which cloud computing capability enables monitoring and reporting resource usage?
A. Metering

B. Pooling
C. Self-service requesting
D. Publishing
700-172 dumps 
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Measured Service
Cloud systems automatically control and optimize resource use by leveraging a metering capability at some level of abstraction appropriate to the type of service (example, storage, processing, bandwidth, and active user accounts). Resource usage can be monitored, controlled, and reported, providing transparency for both the provider and consumer of the utilized service.
QUESTION 21
In the context of protecting the FC SAN infrastructure, what is an example of infrastructure integrity?
A. Preventing node login to the fabric without proper authorization
B. Implementing iSNS discovery domains
C. Implementing an FSPF algorithm to create a virtual SAN
D. Not permitting physical segmentation of nodes
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Security controls for protecting the storage infrastructure address the threats of unauthorized tampering of data in transit that leads to a loss of data integrity, denial of service that compromises availability, and network snooping that may result in loss of confidentiality. The security controls for protecting the network fall into two general categories: network infrastructure integrity and storage network encryption. Controls for ensuring the infrastructure integrity include a fabric switch function that ensures fabric integrity. This is achieved by preventing a host from being added to the SAN fabric without proper authorization. Storage network encryption methods include the use of IPSec for protecting IP-based storage networks, and FC SP for protecting FC networks.
QUESTION 22
What is true about parity-based RAID?
A. Parity is updated each time a write is performed
B. Parity is read each time a read is performed
C. Parity is updated only when writes fill a stripe
D. Parity is updated each time when both reads and writes are performed
700-172 pdf 
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Compared to mirroring, parity implementation considerably reduces the cost associated with data protection. Consider an example of a parity RAID configuration with five disks where four disks hold data, and the fifth holds the parity information. In this example, parity requires only 25 percent extra disk space compared to mirroring, which requires 100 percent extra disk space. However, there are some disadvantages of using parity. 
Parity information is generated from data on the data disk. Therefore, parity is recalculated every time there is a change in data. This recalculation is time-consuming and affects the performance of the RAID array. When choosing a RAID type, it is imperative to consider its impact on disk performance and application IOPS. In both mirrored and parity RAID configurations, every write operation translates into more I/O overhead for the disks, which is referred to as a write penalty. In a RAID 1 implementation, every write operation must be performed on two disks configured as a mirrored pair, whereas in a RAID 5 implementation, a write operation may manifest as four I/O operations. When performing I/Os to a disk configured with RAID 5, the controller has to read, recalculate, and write a parity segment for every data write operation.
QUESTION 23
What is an accurate statement about a gateway NAS solution?
A. NAS head and storage are managed independently
B. Consolidates file-level and block-level access on a single storage platform
C. Provides integrated management for both NAS head and storage
D. Creates a single file system that runs on all NAS heads
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A gateway NAS device consists of one or more NAS heads and uses external and independently managed storage. Similar to unified NAS, the storage is shared with other applications that uses block-level I/O. Management functions in this type of solution are more complex than those in a unified NAS environment because there are separate administrative tasks for the NAS head and the storage. A gateway solution can use the FC infrastructure, such as switches and directors for accessing SAN-attached storage arrays or direct-attached storage arrays. The gateway NAS is more scalable compared to unified NAS because NAS heads and storage arrays can be independently scaled up when required. For example, NAS heads can be added to scale up the NAS device performance. When the storage limit is reached, it can scale up, adding capacity on the SAN, independent of NAS heads. Similar to a unified NAS, a gateway NAS also enables high utilization of storage capacity by sharing it with the SAN environment.
QUESTION 24
What is prevented using RAID technology?
A. Data loss
B. Host Bus Adapter failures
C. Security breach
D. Switch failure
700-172 vce 
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Today’s data centers house hundreds of disk drives in their storage infrastructure. Disk drives are inherently susceptible to failures due to mechanical wear and tear and other environmental factors, which could result in data loss. The greater the number of disk drives in a storage array, the greater the probability of a disk failure in the array. For example, consider a storage array of 100 disk drives, each with an average life expectancy of 750,000 hours. The average life expectancy of this collection in the array, therefore, is 750,000/100 or 7,500 hours. This means that a disk drive in this array is likely to fail at least once in 7,500 hours. 
RAID is an enabling technology that leverages multiple drives as part of a set that provides data protection against drive failures. In general, RAID implementations also improve the storage system performance by serving I/Os from multiple disks simultaneously. Modern arrays with flash drives also benefit in terms of protection and performance by using RAID.
QUESTION 25
Which process minimizes the exposure to a loss of uncommitted cached data when there is a power failure?
A. Cache vaulting
B. Cache mirroring
C. Low watermarking
D. Prefetching
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Cache Data Protection
Cache is volatile memory, so a power failure or any kind of cache failure will cause loss of the data that is not yet committed to the disk. This risk of losing uncommitted data held in cache can be mitigated using cache mirroring and cache vaulting: Cache mirroring: Each write to cache is held in two different memory locations on two independent memory cards. If a cache failure occurs, the write data will still be safe in the mirrored location and can be committed to the disk. Reads are staged from the disk to the cache; therefore, if a cache failure occurs, the data can still be accessed from the disk. Because only writes are mirrored, this method results in better utilization of the available cache. In cache mirroring approaches, the problem of maintaining cache
coherency is introduced. Cache coherency means that data in two different cache locations must be identical at all times. It is the responsibility of the array operating environment to ensure coherency. Cache vaulting: The risk of data loss due to power failure can be addressed in various ways: powering the memory with a battery until the AC power is restored or using battery power to write the cache content to the disk. If an extended power failure occurs, using batteries is not a viable option. This is because in intelligent storage systems, large amounts of data might need to be committed to numerous disks, and batteries might not provide power for sufficient time to write each piece of data to its intended disk. Therefore, storage vendors use a set of physical disks to dump the contents of cache during power failure. This is called cache vaulting and the disks are called vault drives. When power is restored, data from these disks is written back to write cache and then written to the intended disks.
QUESTION 26
What are the three elements of the risk triad from an information security perspective?
A. Assets, threats, and vulnerabilities
B. Actions, threats, and vulnerabilities
C. Assets, threats, and countermeasures
D. Assets, countermeasures, and vulnerabilities
700-172 exam 
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 27
Which cloud computing characteristic enables consumers to request resources using a service catalog through a web-based user interface?
A. On-demand self-service
B. Broad network access
C. Metered services
D. Catalog management
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
On-Demand Self-Service
A consumer can unilaterally provision computing capabilities, such as server time and network storage, as needed automatically without requiring human interaction with each service provider. A cloud service provider publishes a service catalogue, which contains information about all cloud services available to consumers. The service catalogue includes information about service attributes, prices, and request processes. Consumers view the service catalogue via a web-based user interface and use it to request for a service. Consumers can either leverage the “ready-to- use” services or change a few service parameters to customize the services.
QUESTION 28
What is a purpose for distributing Switch Registered State Change Notifications (SW-RSCNs) in a fabric?
A. Updates the name server on all switches in the fabric
B. Stops or slows down transmissions from other switches in the fabric

C. Distributes configuration values and congestion notifications across the fabric
D. Exchanges requests for change notifications among distributed management servers
700-172 dumps 
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Fabric Services
Each switch has a Fabric Controller located at the predefined address FFFFFD. The Fabric Controller provides services to both node ports and other switches. The Fabric Controller is responsible for managing and distributing Registered State Change Notifications (RSCNs) to the node ports registered with the Fabric Controller. If there is a change in the fabric, RSCNs are sent out by a switch to the attached node ports. The Fabric Controller also generates Switch Registered State Change Notifications (SW-RSCNs) to every other domain (switch) in the fabric. These RSCNs keep the name server up-to-date on all switches in the fabric.

Pass4itsure provide you with the comprehensive Cisco 700-172 dumps practice test to help you to succeed. Our training materials are the latest study materials which bring by experts.  “FlexPod Sales”, also known as 700-172 exam, is a Cisco certification which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. Pass4itsure help you achieve your success. You can get the most detailed and accurate Cisco 700-172 dumps questions and answers Pass4itsure from us.  Pass4itsure Cisco 700-172 dumps exam questions answers are updated (112 Q&As) are verified by experts. The associated certifications of 700-172 dumps is Cisco. Cisco 700-172 dumps software, as one of the most popular software with best sales, has helped many candidates successfully pass Cisco https://www.pass4itsure.com/700-172.html dumps.

Read More Youtube: https://youtu.be/rgMAlLg4Od0