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Under the new rules, the following certifications will all be replaced by the new CCNA 200-301:

  • CCNA Cloud
  • CCNA Collaboration
  • CCNA Data Center
  • CCNA Industrial
  • CCNA Routing and Switching
  • CCNA Security
  • CCNA Service Provider
  • CCNA Wireless
  • CCDA (Cisco Certified Design Associate)

Cisco 200-301 is a single exam and includes 120 questions. It covers a wide range of topics such as routing and switching, security, wireless networking, and even some programming concepts.

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Effective Cisco 200-301 exam practice questions(1-13)

QUESTION 1
What is the default behavior of a Layer 2 switch when a frame with an unknown destination MAC address is received?
A. The Layer 2 switch forwards the packet and adds the destination MAC address to its MAC address table.
B. The Layer 2 switch sends a copy of a packet to CPU for destination MAC address learning.
C. The Layer 2 switch floods packets to all ports except the receiving port in the given VLAN.
D. The Layer 2 switch drops the received frame.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which command verifies whether any IPv6 ACLs are configured on a router?
A. show ipv6 interface
B. show access-list
C. show ipv6 access-list
D. show ipv6 route
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Refer to exhibit.

Pass4itsure 200-301 exam questions-q3

Which statement explains the configuration error message that is received?
A. It belongs to a private IP address range.
B. The router does not support /28 mask.
C. It is a network IP address.
D. It is a broadcast IP address.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
What are two characteristics of a controller-based network? (Choose two.)
A. It uses Telnet to report system issues.
B. The administrator can make configuration updates from the CLI.
C. It uses northbound and southbound APIs to communicate between architectural layers.
D. It decentralizes the control plane, which allows each device to make its own forwarding decisions.
E. It moves the control plane to a central point.
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 5
Which command is used to specify the delay time in seconds for LLDP to initialize on any interface?
A. lldp timer
B. lldp tlv-select
C. lldp reinit
D. lldp holdtime
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst2960/software/release/12-2_37_ey/configuration/guide/scg/swlldp.pdf

QUESTION 6
Two switches are connected and using Cisco Dynamic Trunking Protocol. SW1 is set to Dynamic Auto and SW2 is set
to Dynamic Desirable. What is the result of this configuration?
A. The link becomes an access port.
B. The link is in an error disabled state.
C. The link is in a down state.
D. The link becomes a trunk port.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop AAA functions from the left onto the correct AAA services on the right.
Select and Place:

Pass4itsure 200-301 exam questions-q7

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure 200-301 exam questions-q7-2

QUESTION 8
Which command is used to configure an IPv6 static default route?
A. ipv6 route ::/0 interface next-hop5
B. ipv6 route default interface next-hop
C. ipv6 route 0.0.0.0/0 interface next-hop
D. ip route 0.0.0.0/0 interface next-hop
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Order the DHCP message types as they would occur between a DHCP client and a DHCP server.Select and Place:

Pass4itsure 200-301 exam questions-q9

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure 200-301 exam questions-q9-2

QUESTION 10
Which of the following is the JSON encoding of a dictionary or hash?
A. {“key”:“value”}
B. [“key”,“value”]
C. {“key”,“value”}
D. (“key”:“value”)
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
In which way does a spine-and-leaf architecture allow for scalability in a network when additional access ports are
required?
A. A spine switch and a leaf switch can be added with redundant connections between them.
B. A spine switch can be added with at least 40 GB uplinks.
C. A leaf switch can be added with connections to every spine switch.
D. A leaf switch can be added with a single connection to a core spine switch.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
How can the Cisco Discovery Protocol be used?
A. to allow a switch to discover the devices that are connected to its ports
B. to determine the hardware platform of the device
C. to determine the IP addresses of connected Cisco devices
D. all of the above
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
DRAG DROP

Pass4itsure 200-301 exam questions-q13

Refer to the exhibit. Drag and drop the networking parameters from the left onto the correct values on the right.
Select and Place:

Pass4itsure 200-301 exam questions-q13-2

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure 200-301 exam questions-q13-3

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  • 300-420 ENSLD – Designing Cisco Enterprise Networks (ENSLD)
  • 300-425 ENWLSD – Designing Cisco Enterprise Wireless Networks (ENWLSD)
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  • 300-435 ENAUTO – Implementing Automation for Cisco Enterprise Solutions (ENAUI)

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List of Related Exams

  • 300-401 Implementing and Operating Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies (ENCOR)
  • 300-410 Implementing Cisco Enterprise Advanced Routing and Services (ENARSI)
  • 300-415 Implementing Cisco SD-WAN Solutions (ENSDWI)
  • 300-420 Designing Cisco Enterprise Networks (ENSLD)
  • 300-430 Implementing Cisco Enterprise Wireless Networks (ENWLSI)
  • 300-435 Automating and Programming Cisco Enterprise Solutions (ENAUTO)
  • 350-401 Implementing Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies (ENCOR)

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QUESTION 1

Pass4itsure 300-425 exam questions-q1

Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about Cisco Prime Infrastructure are true? (Choose two.)
A. It presents the recommended number of APs for the selected coverage area based on the selections made.
B. Planning mode requires a special license in Cisco Prime Infrastructure.
C. It shows the map editor feature in Cisco Prime Infrastructure.
D. Controllers must be synchronized with Cisco Prime Infrastructure for planning mode to work.
E. It shows the planning mode feature in Cisco Prime Infrastructure.
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 2
An engineer is reducing the subnet size of the corporate WLAN by segmenting the VLAN into smaller subnets. Clients
will be assigned a subnet by location. Which type of groups can the engineer use to map the smaller subnets to the
corporate WLAN?
A. WLC port groups
B. RF groups
C. AP groups
D. interface groups
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3

Pass4itsure 300-425 exam questions-q3

Refer to the exhibit. What is the main reason why the Wi-Fi design engineer took a different approach than installing the
APs in the offices, even though that installation provides better coverage?
A. aesthetics
B. transmit power considerations
C. antenna gain
D. power supply considerations
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
A company wants to replace its existing PBX system with a new VoIP System that will include wireless IP phones. The
CIO has concerns about whether the company\\’s existing wireless network can support the new system. Which tool in
Cisco Prime can help ensure that the current network will support the new phone system?
A. Location Readiness
B. Site Calibration
C. Map Editor
D. Voice Readiness
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Guest anchoring is configured for a newly created SSID for your company. It has been noticed that the mobility tunnels
are not up, and that MPING fails from your foreign WLC to the anchor WLC. What is the reason that it is failing?
A. A rule is needed at the firewall to allow UDP port 16666 for communication to work.
B. A rule is needed at the firewall to allow UDP port 97 for communication to work.
C. A rule is needed at the firewall to allow TCP port 97 for communication to work.
D. A rule is needed at the firewall to allow TCP port 16666 for communication to work.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
A wireless engineer is designing a wireless network to support real-time applications over wireless. Which IEEE protocol
mus the engineer enable on the WLC so that the number of packets that are exchanged between an access point and
client are reduced and fast roaming occurs?
A. 802.11w
B. 802.11r
C. 802.11i
D. 802.11k
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
A technician connects a Cisco Aironet 3700 Series access point to a switch and realizes that the AP is coming up with
3×3 MIMO. Which reason explains this behavior?
A. A redundant power supply is unavailable on the switch.
B. The switch is 802.3af capable.
C. The AP is getting power from a power injector.
D. The switch is PoE+ capable.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which non-Wi-Fi interferer can be identified by Metageek Chanalyzer?
A. PDAs
B. jammers
C. smartphones
D. printers
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
A network engineer is configuring high availability on an access point. What is the maximum number of controllers that
can be configured?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
A university is in the process of designing a wireless network in an auditorium that seats 500 students and supports
student laptops. Which design methodology should the university implement in the auditorium?
A. roaming design model
B. voice design model
C. location design model
D. high-density design model
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
A customer has determined that aesthetics is a primary concern for their upcoming guest deployment. Which design
consideration can be leveraged to address this concern?
A. Paint the access point to cover the LED from being noticeable.
B. Use enclosures to hide the wireless infrastructure in the surrounding environment.
C. Use AIR-AP-BRACKET-1 to allow for greater mounting locations
D. Deploy environmentally friendly cabling components to blend into the environment.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
As part of a wireless site survey in a hospital, an engineer needs to identify potential Layer 1 interferers. In which two
areas is the engineer most likely to find sources of 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz RF noise? (Choose two.)
A. magnetic resonance imaging
B. kitchen
C. Gamma Knife radiation treatment
D. X-ray radiography
E. patient room
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 13
What causes the most signal attenuation, based on the wireless design tools?
A. cinder block wall
B. metal door
C. glass wall
D. office window
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
When designing interdomain multicast, which two protocols are deployed to achieve communication between multicast
sources and receivers? (Choose two.)
A. IGMPv2
B. BIDIR-PIM
C. MP-BGP
D. MSDP
E. MLD
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 2
A network engineer must connect two sites across a public network using a secure tunneling technology that supports
multicast traffic. Which technology must be chosen?
A. IPsec
B. GRE
C. PPTP
D. GRE over IPsec
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3

Pass4itsure 300-420 exam questions-q3

Refer to the exhibit. Which solution decreases the EIGRP convergence time?
A. Enable subsecond timers
B. Increase the hold time value
C. Increase the dead timer value
D. Enable stub routing on the spokes
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which solution allows overlay VNs to communicate with each other in an SD-WAN Architecture?
A. External fusion routers can be used to map VNs to VRFs and selectively route traffic between VRFs.
B. GRE tunneling can be configured between fabric edges to connect one VN to another.
C. SGTs can be used to permit traffic from one VN to another.
D. Route leaking can be used on the fabric border nodes to inject routes from one VN to another.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
A company is using OSPF between its HQ location and a branch office. HQ is assigned area 0 and the branch office is
assigned area 1. The company purchases a second branch office, but due to circuit delays to HQ, it decides to connect
the new branch office to the creating branch office as a temporary measure. The new branch office is assigned area 2.
Which OSPF configuration enables all three locations to exchange routes?
A. The existing branch office must be configured as a stub area
B. A virtual link must be configured between the new branch office and HQ
C. A sham link must be configured between the new branch office and HQ
D. The new branch office must be configured as a stub area
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
What are two benefits of designing an SD-WAN network fabric with direct Internet access implemented at every site?
(Choose two.)
A. It decreases latency to applications hosted by public cloud service provider.
B. It decreases latency on Internet circuits.
C. It increases the speed of delivery of site deployments through zero-touch provisioning.
D. It increases the total available bandwidth on Internet circuits.
E. It alleviates network traffic on MPLS circuits.
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 7
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the properties from the left onto the protocols they describe on the right.

Pass4itsure 300-420 exam questions-q7

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure 300-420 exam questions-q7-2

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/iosxml/ios/prog/configuration/166/b_166_programmability_cg/b_166_programmability_cg_chapter_01011.html 

QUESTION 8
An engineer is working with NETCONF and Cisco NX-OS based devices. The engineer needs a YANG model that
supports a specific feature relevant only to Cisco NX-OS. Which model must the engineer choose?
A. Native
B. IEEE
C. OpenConfig
D. IETF
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
An engineer is looking for a standards-driven YANG model to manage a multivendor network environment. Which model
must the engineer choose?
A. Native
B. OpenConfig
C. IETF
D. IEEE NETCONF
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
An engineer must design a multicast network for a financial application. Most of the multicast sources also receive
multicast traffic (many-to-many deployment model). To better scale routing tables, the design must not use source trees.
Which multicast protocol satisfies these requirements?
A. PIM-SSM
B. PIM-SM
C. MSDP
D. BIDIR-PIM
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Which two best practices must be followed when designing an out-of-band management network? (Choose two.)
A. Enforce access control
B. Facilitate network integration
C. Back up data using the management network
D. Ensure that the management network is a backup to the data network
E. Ensure network isolation
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 12
Which routes does the overlay management protocol advertise in an SD-WAN overlay?
A. underlay, MPLS, and overlay
B. primary, backup, and load-balanced
C. prefix, TLOC, and service
D. Internet, MPLS, and backup
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
A branch office has a primary L3VPN MPLS connection back to the main office and an IPSEC VPN tunnel that serves
as backup. Which design ensures that data is sent over the backup connection only if the primary MPLS circuit is
down?
A. Use EIGRP to establish a neighbor relationship with the main office via L3VPN MPLS and the IPSEC VPN tunnel.
B. Use BGP with the multipath feature enabled to force traffic via the primary path when available.
C. Use static routes tied to an IP SLA to prefer the primary path while a floating static route points to the backup
connection.
D. Use OSPF with a passive-interface command on the backup connection.
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
Which type subcard does the CE8860 support? (Multiple Choice)
A. 10GE
B. 25GE
C. 40GE
D. 100GE
Correct Answer: ABCD


QUESTION 2
In most scenarios, 2.4 GHz channels are as clean as 5 GHz channels.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 3
Which scenario is suitable to using AP4050DN-E?
A. Hospital
B. School
C. Hotel
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 4
Which of the following highlights does not apply to the NE08E-S6/S6E?
A. Large capacity
B. Highest density in the industry
C. High reliability
D. Dual-CXP
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
which unit is used to describe the gain of antenna?
A. dB
B. dBi
C. dBm
D. dBw
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 6
Both eSight and U2000 can manage full series of AR routers.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 7
Which of the following switches can provide agile features such as native AC, wired and wireless SVF, and free
mobility?
A. S6720-EI
B. S7700I
C. S6720-SI
D. S12700 E. S5720-HI
Correct Answer: BD


QUESTION 8
In May 2014, Tolly has released the test report that proves Huawei CE switch support openflow 1.3 and numerous
datacenter features including Trill, EVN, VS.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which of the highest-density 40GE line card for the CE12800?
A. 36 x 40GE
B. 12 x 40GE
C. 6 x 40GE
D. 24 x 40GE
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 10
CloudFabric provides an intent-driven network and can verify some configurations.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 11
The S5720I-SI switch has an extended temperature range and can work in harsh outdoor environments. The S5720I-SI
supports:
A. IP65
B. IP67
C. IP66
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
The NE routers can provide a multi-level reliability solution, which of the below are reliable technologies?
(Multiple Choice)
A. VPN FRR
B. Redundancy Design
C. NSF/NSR
D. ISSU
Correct Answer: ABCD


QUESTION 13
CE6810U and CE5855EI can both support TRILL.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Correct Answer: B

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CompTIA PenTest+ PT0-001 practice test

QUESTION 1
Joe, a penetration tester, is asked to assess a company\\’s physical security by gaining access to its corporate office.
Joe ism looking for a method that will enable him to enter the building during business hours or when there are no
employee on-site. Which of the following would be MOST effective in accomplishing this?
A. Badge cloning
B. Lock picking
C. Tailgating
D. Piggybacking
Correct Answer: A
http://www.hackingarticles.in/netbios-and-smb-penetration-testing-on- windows/

QUESTION 2
A penetration tester identifies the following findings during an external vulnerability scan:

Passcertguide PT0-001 exam questions-q2

Which of the following attack strategies should be prioritized from the scan results above?
A. Obsolete software may contain exploitable components
B. Weak password management practices may be employed
C. Cryptographically weak protocols may be intercepted
D. Web server configurations may reveal sensitive information
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Joe, an attacker, intends to transfer funds discreetly from a victim\\’s account to his own. Which of the following URLs
can he use to accomplish this attack?
A. https://testbank.com/BankingApp/ACH.aspx?CustID=435345andaccountType=FandactionACHTransferandsenderID=654846andnotify=Falseandcreditaccount=\\’OR 1=1 AND select username from testbank.custinfo where username like `Joe\\’andamount=200
B. https://testbank.com/BankingApp/ACH.aspx?CustID=435345andaccountType=FandactionACHTransferandsenderID=654846andnotify=Falseandcreditaccount=\\’OR 1=1 AND select username from
testbank.custinfo where username like `Joe\\’ andamount=200
C. https://testbank.com/BankingApp/ACH.aspx?CustID=435345andaccountType=FandactionACHTransferandsenderID=654846andnotify=Trueandcreditaccount=\\’OR 1=1 AND select username from
testbank.custinfo where username like `Joe\\’ andamount=200
D. https://testbank.com/BankingApp/ACH.aspx?CustID=435345andaccountType=FandactionACHTransferandsenderID=654846andnotify=Trueandcreditaccount=\\’AND 1=1 AND select username from
testbank.custinfo where username like `Joe\\’ andamount=200
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
An attacker uses SET to make a copy of a company\\’s cloud-hosted web mail portal and sends an email m to obtain the
CEO s login credentials Which of the following types of attacks is this an example of?
A. Elicitation attack
B. Impersonation attack
C. Spear phishing attack
D. Drive-by download attack
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
A security analyst was provided with a detailed penetration report, which was performed against the organization\\’s
DMZ environment. It was noted on the report that a finding has a CVSS base score of 10.0. Which of the following
levels of difficulty would be required to exploit this vulnerability?
A. Very difficult; perimeter systems are usually behind a firewall.
B. Somewhat difficult; would require significant processing power to exploit.
C. Trivial; little effort is required to exploit this finding.
D. Impossible; external hosts are hardened to protect against attacks.
Correct Answer: C
Reference https://nvd.nist.gov/vuln-metrics/cvss

QUESTION 6
The following command is run on a Linux file system:
Chmod 4111 /usr/bin/sudo
Which of the following issues may be exploited now?
A. Kernel vulnerabilities
B. Sticky bits
C. Unquoted service path
D. Misconfigured sudo
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
A penetration tester locates a few unquoted service paths during an engagement. Which of the following can the tester
attempt to do with these?
A. Attempt to crack the service account passwords.
B. Attempt DLL hijacking attacks.
C. Attempt to locate weak file and folder permissions.
D. Attempt privilege escalation attacks.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Place each of the following passwords in order of complexity from least complex (1) to most complex (4), based on the
character sets represented Each password may be used only once.
Select and Place:

Passcertguide PT0-001 exam questions-q8

QUESTION 9
A company planned for and secured the budget to hire a consultant to perform a web application penetration test. Upon
discovered vulnerabilities, the company asked the consultant to perform the following tasks:
Code review Updates to firewall setting
A. Scope creep
B. Post-mortem review
C. Risk acceptance
D. Threat prevention
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 10
A manager calls upon a tester to assist with diagnosing an issue within the following:
Python script: #!/usr/bin/python s = “Administrator” The tester suspects it is an issue with string slicing and manipulation
Analyze the following code segment and drag and drop the correct output for each string manipulation to its
corresponding code segment Options may be used once or not at all.
Select and Place:

Passcertguide PT0-001 exam questions-q10

Correct Answer:

Passcertguide PT0-001 exam questions-q10-2

QUESTION 11
Given the following script:

Passcertguide PT0-001 exam questions-q11

Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of this script?
A. Log collection
B. Event logging
C. Keystroke monitoring
D. Debug message collection
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
A penetration tester is performing a black box assessment on a web-based banking application. The tester was only
provided with a URL to the login page. Give the below code and output
Import requests
from BeautifulSoup import BeautifulSoup
request = requests.get (“https://www.bank.com/admin”)
respHeaders, respBody = request[0]. Request[1]
if respHeader.statuscode == 200:
soup = BeautifulSoup (respBody)
soup = soup.FindAll (“div”, (“type” : “hidden”))
print respHeader. StatusCode, StatusMessage
else:
print respHeader. StatusCode, StatusMessage
Output: 200 OK
Which of the following is the tester intending to do?
A. Horizontally escalate privileges
B. Scrape the page for hidden fields
C. Analyze HTTP respond code
D. Search for HTTP headers
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
If a security consultant comes across a password hash that resembles the following b117 525b3454
7Oc29ca3dBaeOb556ba8 Which of the following formats is the correct hash type?
A. Kerberos
B. NetNTLMvl
C. NTLM
D. SHA-1
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
You are evaluating the connectivity between the virtual machines after the planned implementation of the Azure
networking infrastructure. For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select
No.
Hot Area:

Pass4itsure AZ-103 exam questions-q1

Explanation:
Once the VNets are peered, all resources on one VNet can communicate with resources on the other peered VNets.
You plan to enable peering between Paris-VNet and AllOffices-VNet. Therefore VMs on Subnet1, which is on ParisVNet and VMs on Subnet3, which is on AllOffices-VNet will be able to connect to each other. All Azure resources
connected to a VNet have outbound connectivity to the Internet by default. Therefore VMs on ClientSubnet, which is on
ClientResources-VNet will have access to the Internet; and VMs on Subnet3 and Subnet4, which are on AllOffices-VNet will have access to the Internet.
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-network/virtual-network-peering-overview
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/networking/networking-overview#internet-connectivity

QUESTION 2
Case study (All of the QandAs in the ExamC are used this Casy Study)
This is a case study. Case studies are not timed separately. You can use as much exam time as you would like to
complete each case. However, there may be additional case studies and sections on this exam. You must manage your
time to ensure that you are able to complete all questions included on this exam in the time provided.
To answer the questions included in a case study, you will need to reference information that is provided in the case
study. Case studies might contain exhibits and other resources that provide more information about the scenario that is
described in the case study. Each question is independent of the other questions in this case study.
At the end of this case study, a review screen will appear. This screen allows you to review your answers and to make
changes before you move to the next section of the exam. After you begin a new section, you cannot return to this
section.
To start the case study To display the first question in this case study, click the Next button. Use the buttons in the left
pane to explore the content of the case study before you answer the questions. Clicking these buttons displays
information such as business requirements, existing environment, and problem statements. If the case study has an All
Information tab, note that the information displayed is identical to the information displayed on the subsequent tabs.
When you are ready to answer a question, click the Question button to return to the question.
Overview
Contoso, Ltd. is a consulting company that has a main office in Montreal and two branch offices in Seattle and New
York.
The Montreal office has 2,000 employees. The Seattle office has 1,000 employees. The New York office has 200
employees.
All the resources used by Contoso are hosted on-premises.
Contoso creates a new Azure subscription. The Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant uses a domain named
contoso.onmicrosoft.com. The tenant uses the P1 pricing tier.
Existing Environment
The network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. All domain controllers are configured as DNS
servers and host the contoso.com DNS zone.
Contoso has finance, human resources, sales, research, and information technology departments. Each department
has an organizational unit (OU) that contains all the accounts of that respective department. All the user accounts have
the
department attribute set to their respective department. New users are added frequently.
Contoso.com contains a user named User1.
All the offices connect by using private links.
Contoso has data centers in the Montreal and Seattle offices. Each data center has a firewall that can be configured as
a VPN device.
All infrastructure servers are virtualized. The virtualization environment contains the servers in the following table.

Pass4itsure AZ-103 exam questions-q2

The network security team implements several network security groups (NSGs).
Planned Changes
Contoso plans to implement the following changes:
1.
Deploy Azure ExpressRoute to the Montreal office.
2.
Migrate the virtual machines hosted on Server1 and Server2 to Azure.
3.
Synchronize on-premises Active Directory to Azure Active Directory (Azure AD).
4.
Migrate App1 and App2 to two Azure web apps named WebApp1 and WebApp2.
Technical requirements
Contoso must meet the following technical requirements:
1.
Ensure that WebApp1 can adjust the number of instances automatically based on the load and can scale up to five
instances.
2.
Ensure that VM3 can establish outbound connections over TCP port 8080 to the applications servers in the Montreal
office.
3.
Ensure that routing information is exchanged automatically between Azure and the routers in the Montreal office.
4.
Ensure Azure Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA) for the users in the finance department only.
5.
Ensure that webapp2.azurewebsites.net can be accessed by using the name app2.contoso.com
6.
Connect the New York office to VNet1 over the Internet by using an encrypted connection.
7.
Create a workflow to send an email message when the settings of VM4 are modified.
8.
Create a custom Azure role named Role1 that is based on the Reader role.
9.
Minimize costs whenever possible.
You discover that VM3 does NOT meet the technical requirements.
You need to verify whether the issue relates to the NSGs.
What should you use?
A. Diagram in VNet1
B. the security recommendations in Azure Advisor
C. Diagnostic settings in Azure Monitor
D. Diagnose and solve problems in Traffic Manager Profiles
E. IP flow verify in Azure Network Watcher
Correct Answer: E
Scenario: Contoso must meet technical requirements including:
Ensure that VM3 can establish outbound connections over TCP port 8080 to the applications servers in the Montreal
office.
IP flow verify checks if a packet is allowed or denied to or from a virtual machine. The information consists of direction,
protocol, local IP, remote IP, local port, and remote port. If the packet is denied by a security group, the name of the
rule
that denied the packet is returned. While any source or destination IP can be chosen, IP flow verify helps administrators
quickly diagnose connectivity issues from or to the internet and from or to the on-premises environment.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/network-watcher/network-watcher-ip-flow-verify-overview

QUESTION 3
You have an Azure subscription that contains the resources shown in the following table.

Pass4itsure AZ-103 exam questions-q3

You need to create a network interface named NIC1. In which location can you create NIC1?
A. East US and North Europe only.
B. East US and West Europe only.
C. East US, West Europe, and North Europe.
D. East US only.
Correct Answer: D
A virtual network is required when you create a NIC. Select the virtual network for the network interface. You can only
assign a network interface to a virtual network that exists in the same subscription and location as the network interface.
Once a network interface is created, you cannot change the virtual network it is assigned to. The virtual machine you
add the network interface to must also exist in the same location and subscription as the network interface.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-network/virtual-network-network-interface

QUESTION 4
You have a computer named Computer1 that has a point-to-site VPN connection to an Azure virtual network named
VNet1. The point-to-site connection uses a self-signed certificate. From Azure, you download and install the VPN client
configuration package on a computer named Computer2.
You need to ensure that you can establish a point-to-site VPN connection to VNet1 from Computer2. Solution: You
modify the Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) authentication policies.
Does this meet this goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have a computer named Computer1 that has a point-to-site VPN connection to an Azure virtual network named
VNet1. The point-to-site connection uses a self-signed certificate.
From Azure, you download and install the VPN client configuration package on a computer named Computer2.
You need to ensure that you can establish a point-to-site VPN connection to VNet1 from Computer2.
Solution: You export the client certificate from Computer1 and install the certificate on Computer2.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
Each client computer that connects to a VNet using Point-to-Site must have a client certificate installed. You generate a
client certificate from the self-signed root certificate, and then export and install the client certificate. If the client
certificate is not installed, authentication fails.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/vpn-gateway/vpn-gateway-certificates-point-to-site

QUESTION 6
DRAG DROP
You have an Azure subscription named Subscription1.
You create an Azure Storage account named contosostorage, and then you create a file share named data.
Which UNC path should you include in a script that references files from the data file share? To answer, drag the
appropriate values to the correct targets. Each value may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to
drag the
split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

Pass4itsure AZ-103 exam questions-q6

Box 1: contosostorage
The name of account
Box 2: file.core.windows.net
Box 3: data
The name of the file share is data.

Pass4itsure AZ-103 exam questions-q6-2

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/files/storage-how-to-use-files-windows

QUESTION 7
You have an Azure subscription named Subscription1 and two Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenants named
Tenant1 and Tenant2.
Subscnption1 is associated to Tenant1 Multi-factor authentication (MFA) is enabled for all the users in Tenant1.
You need to enable MFA for the users in Tenant2. The solution must maintain MFA forTenant1.
What should you do first?
A. Transfer the administration of Subscription1 to a global administrator of Tenants.
B. Configure the MFA Server setting in Tenant1.
C. Create and link a subscription to Tenant2.
D. Change the directory for Subscription1.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
You need to configure the Azure ExpressRoute circuits.
How should you configure Azure ExpressRoute routing? To answer, drag the appropriate configurations to the correct
locations. Each configuration may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Pass4itsure AZ-103 exam questions-q8

QUESTION 9
You have an Azure subscription named Subscription1 that contains a virtual network named VNet1. You add the users
in the following table.

Pass4itsure AZ-103 exam questions-q9

Which user can perform each configuration? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer Area; NOTE: Each
correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Pass4itsure AZ-103 exam questions-q9-2

Box 1: User1 and User3 only.
The Owner Role lets you manage everything, including access to resources.
The Network Contributor role lets you manage networks, but not access to them.
Box 2: User1 and User2 only
The Security Admin role: In Security Center only: Can view security policies, view security states, edit security policies,
view alerts and recommendations, dismiss alerts and recommendations.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/role-based-access-control/built-in-roles

QUESTION 10
You have an Azure subscription named Subscription1 that contains an Azure virtual network named VNet1. VNet1
connects to your on-premises network by using Azure ExpressRoute. You need to connect VNet1 to the on-premises
network
by using a site-to-site VPN. The solution must minimize cost.
Which three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Create a local site VPN gateway.
B. Create a VPN gateway that uses the VpnGwl SKU.
C. Create a VPN gateway that uses the Basic SKU.
D. Create a gateway subnet.
E. Create a connection.
Correct Answer: ABE
For a site to site VPN, you need a local gateway, a gateway subnet, a VPN gateway, and a connection to connect the
local gateway and the VPN gateway. That would be four answers in this question. However, the question states that
VNet1 connects to your on-premises network by using Azure ExpressRoute. For an ExpressRoute connection, VNET1
must already be configured with a gateway subnet so we don\\’t need another one.

QUESTION 11
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You manage a virtual network named VNet1 that is hosted in the West US Azure region.
VNet1 hosts two virtual machines named VM1 and VM2 that run Windows Server.
You need to inspect all the network traffic from VM1 to VM2 for a period of three hours.
Solution: From Azure Monitor, you create a metric on Network In and Network Out.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
Use the Connection Monitor feature of Azure Network Watcher.
References: https://azure.microsoft.com/en-us/updates/general-availability-azure-network-watcher-connection-monitorin-all-public-regions/


QUESTION 12
SIMULATION
Please wait while the virtual machine loads. Once loaded, you may proceed to the lab section. This may take a few
minutes, and the wait time will not be deducted from your overall test time.
When the Next button is available, click it to access the lab section. In this section, you will perform a set of tasks in a
live environment. While most functionality will be available to you as it would be in a live environment, some
functionality
(e.g, copy and paste, ability to navigate to external websites) will not be possible by design.
Scoring is based on the outcome of performing the tasks stated in the lab. In other words, it doesn\\’t matter how you
accomplish the task, if you successfully perform it, you will earn credit for that task.
Labs are not timed separately, and this exam may have more than one lab that you must complete. You can use as
much time as you would like to complete each lab. But, you should manage your time appropriately to ensure that you
are
able to complete the lab(s) and all other sections of the exam in the time provided.
Please note that once you submit your work by clicking the Next button within a lab, you will NOT be able to return to
the lab.
You may now click next to proceed to the lab.
Use the following login credentials as needed:
Azure Username: XXXXXXX
Azure Password: XXXXXXX The following information is for technical support purposes only: Lab Instance: 9172796

Pass4itsure AZ-103 exam questions-q12

Task 4
Another administrator attempts to establish connectivity between two virtual networks named VNET1 and VNET2.
The administrator reports that connections across the virtual networks fail.
You need to ensure that network connections can be established successfully between VNET1 and VNET2 as quickly
as possible.
What should you do from the Azure portal?
A. See solution below
Correct Answer: A
You can connect one VNet to another VNet using either a Virtual network peering, or an Azure VPN Gateway. To create
a virtual network gateway
Step 1: In the portal, on the left side, click +Create a resource and type \\’virtual network gateway\\’ in search. Locate
Virtual network gateway in the search return and click the entry. On the Virtual network gateway page, click Create at
the bottom of the page to open the Create virtual network gateway page.
Step 2: On the Create virtual network gateway page, fill in the values for your virtual network gateway.

Pass4itsure AZ-103 exam questions-q12-2

Name: Name your gateway. This is not the same as naming a gateway subnet. It\\’s the name of the gateway object you
are creating.
Gateway type: Select VPN. VPN gateways use the virtual network gateway type VPN.
Virtual network: Choose the virtual network to which you want to add this gateway. Click Virtual network to open the
\\’Choose a virtual network\\’ page. Select the VNet. If you don\\’t see your VNet, make sure the Location field is pointing
to the
region in which your virtual network is located.
Gateway subnet address range: You will only see this setting if you did not previously create a gateway subnet for your
virtual network. If you previously created a valid gateway subnet, this setting will not appear.
Step 4: Select Create New to create a Gateway subnet.

Pass4itsure AZ-103 exam questions-q12-3

Step 5: Click Create to begin creating the VPN gateway. The settings are validated and you\\’ll see the “Deploying
Virtual network gateway” tile on the dashboard. Creating a gateway can take up to 45 minutes. You may need to refresh
your portal page to see the completed status.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/vpn-gateway/vpn-gateway-howto-vnet-vnet-resource-managerportal?

QUESTION 13
You have an Azure virtual network named VNet1 that contains a subnet named Subnet1. Subnet1 contains three Azure
virtual machines. Each virtual machine has a public IP address.
The virtual machines host several applications that are accessible over port 443 to user on the Internet.
Your on-premises network has a site-to-site VPN connection to VNet1.
You discover that the virtual machines can be accessed by using the Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) from the Internet
and from the on-premises network.
You need to prevent RDP access to the virtual machines from the Internet, unless the RDP connection is established
from the on-premises network. The solution must ensure that all the applications can still be accesses by the Internet
users.
What should you do?
A. Modify the address space of the local network gateway.
B. Remove the public IP addresses from the virtual machines.
C. Modify the address space of Subnet1.
D. Create a deny rule in a network security group (NSG) that is linked to Subnet1.
Correct Answer: D
You can filter network traffic to and from Azure resources in an Azure virtual network with a network security group. A
network security group contains security rules that allow or deny inbound network traffic to, or outbound network traffic
from, several types of Azure resources.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-network/security-overview

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QUESTION 1
Which Cisco Firepower rule action displays an HTTP warning page?
A. Monitor
B. Block
C. Interactive Block
D. Allow with Warning
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firesight/541/user-guide/FireSIGHT-System-UserGuidev5401/AC-Rules-Tuning-Overview.html#76698

QUESTION 2
What is the maximum bit size that Cisco FMC supports for HTTPS certificates?
A. 1024
B. 8192
C. 4096
D. 2048
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/610/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guidev61/system_configuration.html

QUESTION 3
Which two conditions are necessary for high availability to function between two Cisco FTD devices? (Choose two.)
A. The units must be the same version
B. Both devices can be part of a different group that must be in the same domain when configured within the FMC.
C. The units must be different models if they are part of the same series.
D. The units must be configured only for firewall routed mode.
E. The units must be the same model.
Correct Answer: AE
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/firepower-management-center/212699-configure-ftdhigh-availability-on-firep.html

QUESTION 4
A network engineer is configuring URL Filtering on Firepower Threat Defense. Which two port requirements on the
Firepower Management Center must be validated to allow communication with the cloud service? (Choose two.)
A. outbound port TCP/443
B. inbound port TCP/80
C. outbound port TCP/8080
D. inbound port TCP/443
E. outbound port TCP/80
Correct Answer: AE
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/60/configuration/guide/fpmc-configguidev60/Security__Internet_Access__and_Communication_Ports.html

QUESTION 5
Which two actions can be used in an access control policy rule? (Choose two.)
A. Block with Reset
B. Monitor
C. Analyze
D. Discover
E. Block ALL
Correct Answer: AB
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firesight/541/firepower-module-user-guide/asa-firepowermodule-user-guide-v541/AC-Rules-Tuning-Overview.html#71854

QUESTION 6
Which action should you take when Cisco Threat Response notifies you that AMP has identified a file as malware?
A. Add the malicious file to the block list.
B. Send a snapshot to Cisco for technical support.
C. Forward the result of the investigation to an external threat-analysis engine.
D. Wait for Cisco Threat Response to automatically block the malware.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which two remediation options are available when Cisco FMC is integrated with Cisco ISE? (Choose two.)
A. dynamic null route configured
B. DHCP pool disablement
C. quarantine
D. port shutdown
E. host shutdown
Correct Answer: CD
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/identity-services-engine/210524-configurefirepower-6-1-pxgrid-remediati.html

QUESTION 8
Which Cisco Advanced Malware Protection for Endpoints policy is used only for monitoring endpoint actively?
A. Windows domain controller
B. audit
C. triage
D. protection
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/amp-endpoints/214933-amp-for-endpoints-deploymentmethodology.html

QUESTION 9
Which two types of objects are reusable and supported by Cisco FMC? (Choose two.)
A. dynamic key mapping objects that help link HTTP and HTTPS GET requests to Layer 7 application protocols.
B. reputation-based objects that represent Security Intelligence feeds and lists, application filters based on category and
reputation, and file lists
C. network-based objects that represent IP address and networks, port/protocols pairs, VLAN tags, security zones, and
origin/destination country
D. network-based objects that represent FQDN mappings and networks, port/protocol pairs, VXLAN tags, security
zones and origin/destination country
E. reputation-based objects, such as URL categories
Correct Answer: BC
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/620/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guidev62/reusable_objects.html#ID-2243-00000414

QUESTION 10
Which two dynamic routing protocols are supported in Firepower Threat Defense without using FlexConfig? (Choose
two.)
A. EIGRP
B. OSPF
C. static routing
D. IS-IS
E. BGP
Correct Answer: CE
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/660/fdm/fptd-fdm-config-guide-660/fptd-fdmrouting.html

QUESTION 11
Which interface type allows packets to be dropped?
A. passive
B. inline
C. ERSPAN
D. TAP
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/firepower-ngfw/200908-configuring-firepower-threatdefense-int.html

QUESTION 12
What is the benefit of selecting the trace option for packet capture?
A. The option indicates whether the packet was dropped or successful.
B. The option indicated whether the destination host responds through a different path.
C. The option limits the number of packets that are captured.
D. The option captures details of each packet.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
What is a functionality of port objects in Cisco FMC?
A. to mix transport protocols when setting both source and destination port conditions in a rule
B. to represent protocols other than TCP, UDP, and ICMP
C. to represent all protocols in the same way
D. to add any protocol other than TCP or UDP for source port conditions in access control rules.
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/620/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guidev62/reusable_objects.html

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Oracle Exam Information

Oracle Database SQL | 1Z0-071

Exam Title: Oracle Database SQL
Exam Number: 1Z0-071
Exam Price: $245 More on exam pricing
Format: Multiple Choice
Duration: 120 minutes
Number of Questions: 78
Passing score: 63%
Validated Against: This exam was validated against 11g Release 2 version 11.2.0.1.0 and up to 19c

Oracle Database Administration II | 1Z0-083

Exam Title: Oracle Database Administration II
Exam Number: 1Z0-083
Exam Price: $245 More on exam pricing
Format: Multiple Choice
Duration: 150 Minutes
Number of Questions: 85
Passing score: 57%

Oracle Database: Advanced PL/SQL | 1Z0-148

Exam Title: Oracle Database: Advanced PL/SQL
Exam Number: 1Z0-148
Exam Price: $245 More on exam pricing
Format: Multiple Choice
Duration: 110
Number of Questions: 75
Passing score: 62%
Validated Against: Exam has been validated against Oracle Database 12c.

Oracle Eloqua CX Marketing 2019 Implementation Essentials | 1Z0-340

Exam Title: Oracle Eloqua CX Marketing 2019 Implementation Essentials
Exam Number: 1Z0-340
Exam Price: $245 More on exam pricing
Format: Multiple Choice
Duration: 120 Minutes
Number of Questions: 70
Passing score: 70%
Validated Against: Exam has been validated against 19C

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Exam Title: Oracle Utilities Customer Cloud Service 2019 Implementation Essentials
Exam Number: 1Z0-996
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Format: Multiple Choice
Duration: 85 Minutes
Number of Questions: 60
Passing score: 68%
Validated Against: Exam has been validated against 19C

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Exam Title: Java SE 11 Programmer II
Exam Number: 1Z0-816
Exam Price: $245 More on exam pricing
Format: Multiple Choice
Duration: 180 Minutes
Number of Questions: 80
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Validated Against: This exam has been validated against Java 11.

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Oracle Database 1Z0-071 Exam Practice Questions 1-5

QUESTION 1
Which three statements are true about the DESCRIBE command? (Choose three.)
A. It can be used to display the structure of an existing view
B. It can be used only from SQL*Plus
C. It displays the PRIMARY KEY constraint for any column or columns that have that constraint
D. It can be used from SQL Developer
E. It displays all constraints that are defined for each column
F. It displays the NOT NULL constraint for any columns that have that constraint
Correct Answer: ABF

QUESTION 2
Examine the data in the CUST_NAME column of the CUSTOMERS table.

Passcertguide 1Z0-071 exam questions-q2

You want to extract only those customer names that have three names and display the * symbol in place of the first
name as follows:

Passcertguide 1Z0-071 exam questions-q2-2

Which two queries give the required output?
A. SELECT LPAD(SUBSTR(cust_name, INSTR(cust_name, \\’ \\’)),LENGTH(cust_name),\\’*\\’) “CUST NAME” FROM
customers WHERE INSTR(cust_name, \\’ \\’,1,2)0;
B. SELECT LPAD(SUBSTR(cust_name, INSTR(cust_name, \\’ \\’)),LENGTH(cust_name),\\’*\\’) “CUST NAME” FROM
customers WHERE INSTR(cust_name, \\’ \\’,-1,2)0;
C. SELECT LPAD(SUBSTR(cust_name, INSTR (cust_name \\’ \\’)),LENGTH(cust_name) – INSTR(cust_name, \\’ \\’),
\\’*\\’) “CUST NAME” FROM customers WHERE INSTR(cust_name, \\’ \\’,1,-2)0;
D. SELECT LPAD(SUBSTR(cust_name, INSTR (cust_name \\’ \\’)),LENGTH(cust_name) – INSTR(cust_name, \\’ \\’),
\\’*\\’) “CUST NAME” FROM customers WHERE INSTR(cust_name, \\’ \\’,1,2)0;
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 3
Examine the data in the ORD_ITEMS table:

Passcertguide 1Z0-071 exam questions-q3

Evaluate this query: Which statement is true regarding the result?

Passcertguide 1Z0-071 exam questions-q3-2

A. It returns an error because the HAVING clause should be specified after the GROUP BY clause.
B. It returns an error because all the aggregate functions used in the HAVING clause must be specified in the SELECT
list.
C. It displays the item nos with their average quantity where the average quantity is more than double the minimum
quantity of that item in the table.
D. It displays the item nos with their average quantity where the average quantity is more than double the overall
minimum quantity of all the items in the table.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Which two are true about granting privileges on objects?
A. An object privilege can be granted to other users only by the owner of that object.
B. An object privilege can be granted to a role only by the owner of that object.
C. A table owner must grant the REFERENCES privilege to allow other users to create FOREIGN KEY constraints
using that table.
D. The owner of an object acquires all object privileges on that object by default.
E. The WITH GRANT OPTION clause can be used only by DBA users.
Correct Answer: CD
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B19306_01/network.102/b14266/authoriz.htm#i1008214

QUESTION 5
The SALES table has columns PROD_ID and QUANTITY_SOLD of data type NUMBER. Which two queries execute
successfully?
A. SELECT prod_id FROM sales WHERE quantity_sold > 55000 GROUP BY prod_id HAVING COUNT(*) >10;
B. SELECT prod_id FROM sales WHERE quantity_sold > 55000 AND COUNT(*) > 10 GROUP BY prod_id HAVING
COUNT(*) >10;
C. SELECT COUNT (prod_id) FROM sales WHERE quantity_sold > 55000 GROUP BY prod_id;
D. SELECT prod_id FROM sales WHERE quantity_sold > 55000 AND COUNT(*) > 10 GROUP BY COUNT(*) >10;
E. SELECT COUNT(prod_id) FROM sales GROUP BY prod_id WHERE quantity_sold > 55000;
Correct Answer: AC

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Oracle Database 1Z0-083 Exam Practice Questions 1-5

QUESTION 1
Which two are true about Oracle Optimizer Statistics, their use, and their collection? (Choose two.)
A. The number of table rows is considered when evaluating the cost of accessing a table using an index.
B. Index balanced B*Tree height is considered when evaluating the cost of using an index.
C. The Statistics Advisor can help recommend the best way to gather statistics.
D. Statistics collected using DBMS_STATS always yield the best optimizer result.
E. The Statistics Advisor generates actions for all recommendations.
Correct Answer: CD
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/database/oracle/oracle-database/19/tgsql/optimizer-statistics-advisor.html#GUIDD81A7708-FDA0-45BB-A6E2-103858B047AE

QUESTION 2
Which two are true about Oracle Database Configuration Assistant (DBCA) templates? (Choose two.)
A. The General Purpose of Transaction Processing templates are most suitable when concurrency and recoverability
are key criteria.
B. Oracle DBCA templates can store only logical structure and not database files.
C. New templates can only be created by modifying an existing user-created template.
D. The Data Warehouse template is most suitable when transaction response time is the key criterion.
E. Oracle DBCA templates can be used to create new databases and duplicate existing databases.
Correct Answer: AE
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/ADMQS/GUID-2B8A3B5ED319-4377-8B22-8BB67DCC9885.htm#ADMQS0235

QUESTION 3
While backing up to the Oracle Fast Recovery Area (FRA), you determined the backup is taking too long and suspect a
performance bottleneck.
Which three are true about diagnosing and tuning these problems? (Choose three.)
A. If an RMAN BACKUP VALIDATE command takes roughly the same time as an actual backup, then both read and
write I/O are likely bottlenecks.
B. Setting DBWR_IO_SLAVES to a non zero value can improve backup performance when using synchronous I/O.
C. If an RMAN BACKUP VALIDATE command takes noticeably less than an actual backup, then write I/O is a likely
bottleneck.
D. If an RMAN BACKUP VALIDATE command takes roughly the same time as an actual backup, then read I/O is a
likely bottleneck.
E. Data files with a high value in V$BACKUP_SYNC_IO.DISCRETE_BYTES_PER_SECOND is a potential
performance bottleneck when synchronous I/O is used.
F. Setting DBWR_IO_SLAVES to a non zero value can improve backup performance when using asynchronous I/O/
G. Data files with a high value in V$BACKUP_ASYNC_IO.SHORT_WAITS are a potential performance bottleneck when
asynchronous I/O is used.
Correct Answer: BCE
Reference: https://web.stanford.edu/dept/itss/docs/oracle/10gR2/backup.102/b14191/rcmtunin003.htm

QUESTION 4
The USERS tablespace consists of data files 3 and 4 and must always be online in reading/write mode.
Which two are true about using RMAN to perform an open database back up of this tablespace? (Choose two.)
A. Backups must be done incrementally.
B. Backups must be contained in backup sets.
C. Backups can be taken only if the database is in ARCHIVELOG mode.
D. Backups can be done incrementally.
E. The database must be registered in an RMAN catalog.
F. Only consistent backups can be created.
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 5
Which two are true about Rapid Home Provisioning (RHP), which has been available since Oracle 18c? (Choose two.)
A. It is an Oracle Database service
B. It cannot be used to upgrade Oracle Database homes.
C. It can be used to provision applications.
D. It can be used to patch Grid Infrastructure homes containing Oracle Restart.
E. It can be used to provision middleware.
Correct Answer: DE

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Oracle Database Application Development 1Z0-148 Exam Practice Questions 1-5

QUESTION 1
Which two statements are true about the usage of the DBMS_DESCRIBE.DESCRIBE_PROCEDURE procedure?
(Choose two.)
A. You can describe remote objects.
B. You can describe anonymous PL/SQL blocks.
C. You can describe a stored procedure, stored function, packaged procedure, or packaged function.
D. You can obtain information about the position, name, and data type of the arguments of a procedure.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 2
Consider a function totalEmp () which takes a number as an input parameter and returns the total number of employees
who have a salary higher than that parameter.
Examine this PL/SQL package AS

Passcertguide 1Z0-148 exam questions-q2

Which two definitions of totalEmp () result in an implicit conversion by Oracle Database on executing this PL/SQL
block?
A. CREATE FUNCTION totalEmp (sal IN NUMBER) RETURN NUMBER IS total NUMBER :=0; BEGIN … RETUNRN
total; END; /
B. CREATE FUNCTION totalEmp (sal IN NUMBER) RETURN NUMBER IS total NUMBER :=0; BEGIN … RETUNRN
total; END; /
C. CREATE FUNCTION totalEmp (sal IN PLS_INTEGER) RETURN NUMBER IS total NUMBER :=0; BEGIN …
RETUNRN total; END; /
D. CREATE FUNCTION totalEmp (sal IN BINARY_FLOAT) RETURN NUMBER IS total NUMBER :=0; BEGIN …
RETUNRN total; END; /
E. CREATE FUNCTION totalEmp (sal IN POSITIVEN) RETURN NUMBER IS total NUMBER :=0; BEGIN … RETUNRN
total; END; /
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 3
The database instance was recently started up. Examine the following parameter settings for the database instance:
NAME TYPE VALUE
………
result_cache_max_result integer 5
result_cache_max_size big integer 0
result_cache_mode string MANUAL
result_cache_remote_expiration integer 0
………
You reset the value for the result_cache_max_size parameter by issuing the following command:
SQL> ALTER SYSTEM SET result_cache_max_size = 1056k SCOPE = BOTH;
System altered.
Which statement is true in this scenario?
A. 1056 KB is allocated for the result cache and the result cache is enabled.
B. 1056 KB is allocated for the result cache, but the result cache is disabled.
C. The results for only the queries that have the RESULT_CACHE hint are cached.
D. The results for all the queries except those having the NO_RESULT_CACHE hint are cached.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which two statements are true about the context of an application? (Choose two.)
A. It is attached to a session.
B. It is owned by the user SYS.
C. A user can change the context of his or her application.
D. The PL/SQL package associated with the context must exist before the context is created.
E. The predefined attributes in the USERENV application context can be changed as per the requirements.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 5
View the Exhibit.
How do you reduce the chances of SQL injection for the procedure?

Passcertguide 1Z0-148 exam questions-q5

A. Execute the SQL statement in V_STMT as dynamic SQL.
B. Remove the default value for the arguments in the procedure.
C. Convert the condition in the WHERE clause to be accepted from the user and concatenated.
D. Convert the SELECT statement to static SQL, placing the value of P_EMAIL into a local variable.
Correct Answer: D

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Oracle Cloud 1Z0-340 Exam Practice Questions 1-5

QUESTION 1
Which two are benefits of Oracle Eloqua Branding and Deliverability Cloud Service products? (Choose two.)
A. maintains corporate identity by clients sending emails directly
B. IPs can be whitelisted by a client\\’s recipients
C. establishes a sending domain with Internet Service Providers (ISPs)
D. has a positive reputation of shared IP range
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 2
Which four CRM integrations with Eloqua are supported? (Choose four.)
A. Salesforce
B. Oracle OnDemand
C. Oracle Sales Cloud
D. Microsoft Dynamics 365
E. SAP
F. Siebel OnPremise
Correct Answer: ABCD
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cloud/latest/marketingcs_gs/OMCAA/Help/CRMIntegration/CRMIntegration.htm

QUESTION 3
You are creating a prompted report to be sent on a schedule by an Insight Agent? What type of filter do you need to
create?
A. named filter
B. inline filter
C. prompted filter
D. scheduled filter
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cloud/latest/marketingcs_gs/OMCAA/Help/Insight/Tasks/CreatingAgents.htm

QUESTION 4
Which is NOT a good use case for email groups?
A. managing different content types for email
B. supporting different organizations
C. limiting the frequency of emails
D. enabling Sales with custom Engage templates
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
You want to access Profiler using your company\\’s login credentials.
Which URL would you choose?
A. Direct
B. XMLogin
C. SAML
D. SFDC IDP
E. Autologin
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cloud/latest/marketingcs_gs/OMCAA/pdf/OracleEloqua_Profiler_UserGuide.pdf

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Oracle Cloud 1Z0-996 Exam Practice Questions 1-5

QUESTION 1
Which three are important Account concepts that must always be followed? (Choose three.)
A. Accounts expire when there are no active contracts.
B. An Account can only reference one and only one person at one time.
C. Every Account has a unique, system-assigned Account ID.
D. Bills are produced for an account and are sent to the account persons.
E. An Account references one or more persons.
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 2
Which entity defines the type of collection process to start based on age of debt, amount of debt, and type of customer?
A. Debt Class
B. Customer Class
C. Collection Class Control
D. Collection Class
E. Collection Process Template
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E28945_01/4.3%20Collect%20Revenue/CCandB%20URM%204.3.2.1.pdf

QUESTION 3
Which option correctly describes the high-level process from loading measurements through calculating usage?
A. 1. Load Initial Measurements
2.
Validate, edit, and estimate Initial Measurements
3.
Create Final Measurements
4.
Update Initial Measurements
B. 1. Load Initial Measurements
2.
Verify, evaluate, and enter Initial Measurements
3.
Create Final Measurements
4.
Calculate Usage
C. 1. Load Initial Measurements
2.
Validate, evaluate, and estimate Initial Measurements
3.
Update Initial Measurements
4.
Calculate Usage
D. 1. Load Initial Measurements
2.
Validate, edit, and estimate Initial Measurements
3.
Create Final Measurements
4.
Calculate Usage
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
What determines an Account\\’s Balance?
A. the sum of all the Financial Transactions linked directly to the service agreements related to the account
B. the amount recorded in the “Balance Due” field on an account
C. the logic defined in a plug-in spot on the Installations Option
D. the sum of all the balances recorded in the “Balance Due” field on each service agreement related to the account
E. the sum of all the Financial Transactions linked directly to the account
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 5
Measuring components are either subtractive or consumptive. Which statement correctly describes these two
concepts?
A. Subtractive measuring components are associated only with water service, whereas consumptive measuring
components are for gas and electric services.
B. Subtractive measuring components are used to measure demand, whereas consumptive measuring components are
used to measure how much was consumed since the previous reading.
C. Subtractive measuring components are associated with deductive meters, whereas consumptive measuring
components are not.
D. A subtractive measuring component\\’s consumption for a given period of time is the end measurement minus the
start measurement. A consumptive measuring component\\’s consumption is simply the measurement itself, and
represents the consumption for the period of time since the previous measurement was taken.
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E91711_01/PDF/MDM-SGG_Business_User_Guide_v2_2_0_2.pdf

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Oracle Java 1Z0-816 Exam Practice Questions 1-5

QUESTION 1
Given:

Passcertguide 1Z0-816 exam questions-q1

You want to obtain the Stream object on reading the file. Which code inserted on line 1 will accomplish this?
A. var lines = Files.lines(Paths.get(INPUT_FILE_NAME));
B. Stream lines = Files.readAllLines(Paths.get(INPUT_FILE_NAME));
C. var lines = Files.readAllLines(Paths.get(INPUT_FILE_NAME));
D. Stream lines = Files.lines(INPUT_FILE_NAME);
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Given:

Passcertguide 1Z0-816 exam questions-q2

and:

Passcertguide 1Z0-816 exam questions-q2-2

Which code, when inserted on line 10, prints the number of unique localities from the roster list?
A. .map(Employee::getLocality) .distinct() .count();
B. map(e -> e.getLocality()) .count();
C. .map(e -> e.getLocality()) .collect(Collectors.toSet()) .count();
D. .filter(Employee::getLocality) .distinct() .count();
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://developer.android.com/reference/android/location/Address

QUESTION 3
You are working on a functional bug in a tool used by your development organization. In your investigation, you find that
the tool is executed with a security policy file containing this grant.

Passcertguide 1Z0-816 exam questions-q3

What action should you take?
A. Nothing, because it is an internal tool and not exposed to the public.
B. Remove the grant because it is excessive.
C. Nothing, because it is not related to the bug you are investigating.
D. File a security bug against the tool referencing the excessive permission granted.
E. Nothing, because listing just the required permissions would be an ongoing maintenance challenge.
Correct Answer: D
Reference:
https://wiki.sei.cmu.edu/confluence/display/java/ENV03-J.+Do+not+grant+dangerous+combinations+of+permissions

QUESTION 4
Given: Which two are correct? (Choose two.)

Passcertguide 1Z0-816 exam questions-q4

A. The output will be exactly 2 1 3 4 5.
B. The program prints 1 4 2 3, but the order is unpredictable.
C. Replacing forEach() with forEachOrdered(), the program prints 2 1 3 4 5, but the order is unpredictable.
D. Replacing forEach() with forEachOrdered(), the program prints 1 2 3 4 5.
E. Replacing forEach() with forEachOrdered(), the program prints 2 1 3 4 5.
Correct Answer: BD

Passcertguide 1Z0-816 exam questions-q4-2

QUESTION 5
Given:

Passcertguide 1Z0-816 exam questions-q5

And the command: java Main Helloworld What is the result?
A. Input: Echo:
B. Input: Helloworld Echo: Helloworld
C. Input: Then block until any input comes from System.in.
D. Input: Echo: Helloworld
E. A NullPointerException is thrown at run time.
Correct Answer: C

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The latest CompTIA Server+ SK0-004 exam Practice Questions and Answers

Security+ focuses on the latest trends and techniques in risk management, risk mitigation, threat management and intrusion detection.We share the latest effective CompTIA Server+ SK0-004 exam dumps online Practice test to improve your skills! You can also choose SK0-004 PDF or SK0-004 YouTube to learn! Get the full SK0-004 dumps: https://www.pass4itsure.com/sk0-004.html (Q&As: 497 ) to pass the exam easily!

Server+ covers server architecture, administration, storage, security, networking, troubleshooting as well as disaster recovery.

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Latest effective CompTIA Server+ SK0-004 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
An administrator is updating theserver infrastructure atacompany\\’s disaster recovery site. Currently, an enormous
amount of effortisrequired by theadministratorto replicate operations. Which of the followingtypes of siteis the
administrator currently using?
A. Cold site
B. Hot site
C. Warm site
D. Replication site
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
A new server has two drives and a RAID controller. Which of the following is an option for configuring the storage on this
server?
A. RAID 0
B. RAID 5
C. RAID 6
D. RAID 10
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
A technician receives an error messagewhentrying to boot the server stating the operating system was not found.
Change management logs indicateanew hard drive backplane was installed in the server last night. Which of the
following should the technician do FIRST when troubleshooting the issue?
A. Check system board cables
B. Rebuild RAID array
C. Reinstall server OS
D. Remove newly installed hardware
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
A system administrator is tasked to setup a database server with failover clustering feature enabled. One of the
requirements is to have one database running at all times with data being synchronizedand replicated to the idle
database in case the primary database server fails. Both servers will be monitored by a witness on a LUN. Which of the
followingcluster techniques should be implemented to meet these requirements?
A. Active/Active
B. Active/Passive
C. Single Local Quorum
D. Passive/Passive
E. Shared Multiple Quorum
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
A technician notices a rack mounted server is beeping without booting up. The NEXT step to diagnose this issue would
be to:
A. continue to power cycle the server until it boots normally.
B. count the beeps and reference the service manual.
C. disable the alarm within the server.
D. install the server into a different rack.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
A company is planning to replace old hardware and needs to budget accordingly. Which of the following is likely to
contain a list of end of life servers?
A. The server\\’s warranty information.
B. The server\\’s life cycle schedule.
C. The asset management database.
D. The software licensing agreement.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
A server administrator wants to upgrade the memory of the server using two memory modules. The server has two
banks of memorywith the followingslotsavailable: A2, A3, A4, B2, B3, and B4. In whichof the following two slotsshould
theadministrator install the additional RAM?
A. Slots A2 and A3
B. Slots A2 and B2
C. Slots A2 and B4
D. Slots B2 and B3
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Server A hosts a mission-critical business application. The server has one disk and one NIC. The administrator has
been asked to implement a solution to meet the business requirement that the application must maintain high
availability, even in case of a hardware failure. Which of the following BEST meets this requirement?
A. Configure failover clustering using Server A and a new server.
B. Add multiple disks on the server and configure RAID 5.
C. Add an additional NIC and configure the NIC as standby.
D. Move the application to another server that has more resources.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
A technician is upgrading the memory in a server. The server requires DDR3 Registered DIMMs. The server
hasfourbanks ofthreeslots for memory and currently there is one 2GBmodule in each bank. When the technician
attempts to add eight more 4GB modules of DDR3unbuffered ECC memory,the memory does notfit in the slots. Which
of the following is thecause ofthis issue?
A. In a bank, 2GB and 4GB memory cannot be mixed.
B. The server cannot use ECC memory.
C. The server requires fully buffered memory.
D. The total memory on the server cannot exceed 24GB of RAM.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
A server technician is connecting a server to a switch in the server room. Both the server and the switch are equipped
with 10 Gigabit Ethernet adapters. Which of the following cable choices would produce the BEST throughput?
A. CAT6 rollover cable
B. CAT5e straight-through cable
C. CAT6 straight-through cable
D. CAT5e crossover cable
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
In an effort to reduce recovery time during hardware failures, a server administrator needs to implement a backup
method that will allow for complete OS and service/application recovery as long as compatible hardware is available.
Which of the following backup types meets this requirement?
A. Incremental
B. Bare metal
C. Snapshot
D. Full
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
When attempting to diagnose service access issues between multiple hosts that coordinateinformation, whichof the
followingcan be used to track dependencies?
A. Dataflow diagrams
B. Architecture diagrams
C. Baseline documentation
D. Service manuals
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
A technician wants to implement a grandfather-father-son tape rotation policy. Which of the following implements this
backup strategy?
A. Assign a different set of tapes for daily, weekly, and monthly backups.
B. Use a different set of tapes for every two, four, and eight days.
C. Designate a different set of tapes for odd-day and even-day backups.
D. Use a queue to rotate tapes based on the age and usage of the tape.
Correct Answer: A

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CompTIA Server+ certified candidates can work in any environment because it is the only vendor-neutral certification covering the major server platforms. It is the only industry certification that covers the latest server technologies including virtualization, security and network-attached storage.

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