Featured[2020.3.24] Cisco CCNA 200-301 Dumps is Ready | Valid Cisco 200-301 Practice Test‎

Passcertguide Offer Everything You Need to Prepare & Pass CCNA 200-301 Exam. Full Attention is the Only Thing You Need to Prepare.https://www.pass4itsure.com/200-301.html Cisco CCNA 200-301 dumps is ready!Share the latest Cisco CCNA 200-301 Dumps, Valid Cisco 200-301 Practice Test here!

PDF | Share the latest Cisco CCNA 200-301 Dumps

[3.19] Free Cisco 200-301 pdf dumps download from Google Drive:

https://drive.google.com/open?id=1uyC95ctuskKO8kM_RdM-Ydgld0BqI93X

Changed from Feb. 24, 2020 | new CCNA 200-301

Under the new rules, the following certifications will all be replaced by the new CCNA 200-301:

  • CCNA Cloud
  • CCNA Collaboration
  • CCNA Data Center
  • CCNA Industrial
  • CCNA Routing and Switching
  • CCNA Security
  • CCNA Service Provider
  • CCNA Wireless
  • CCDA (Cisco Certified Design Associate)

Cisco 200-301 is a single exam and includes 120 questions. It covers a wide range of topics such as routing and switching, security, wireless networking, and even some programming concepts.

About the new exam https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/ccna-200-301.html

Effective Cisco 200-301 exam practice questions(1-13)

QUESTION 1
What is the default behavior of a Layer 2 switch when a frame with an unknown destination MAC address is received?
A. The Layer 2 switch forwards the packet and adds the destination MAC address to its MAC address table.
B. The Layer 2 switch sends a copy of a packet to CPU for destination MAC address learning.
C. The Layer 2 switch floods packets to all ports except the receiving port in the given VLAN.
D. The Layer 2 switch drops the received frame.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which command verifies whether any IPv6 ACLs are configured on a router?
A. show ipv6 interface
B. show access-list
C. show ipv6 access-list
D. show ipv6 route
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Refer to exhibit.

Pass4itsure 200-301 exam questions-q3

Which statement explains the configuration error message that is received?
A. It belongs to a private IP address range.
B. The router does not support /28 mask.
C. It is a network IP address.
D. It is a broadcast IP address.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
What are two characteristics of a controller-based network? (Choose two.)
A. It uses Telnet to report system issues.
B. The administrator can make configuration updates from the CLI.
C. It uses northbound and southbound APIs to communicate between architectural layers.
D. It decentralizes the control plane, which allows each device to make its own forwarding decisions.
E. It moves the control plane to a central point.
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 5
Which command is used to specify the delay time in seconds for LLDP to initialize on any interface?
A. lldp timer
B. lldp tlv-select
C. lldp reinit
D. lldp holdtime
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst2960/software/release/12-2_37_ey/configuration/guide/scg/swlldp.pdf

QUESTION 6
Two switches are connected and using Cisco Dynamic Trunking Protocol. SW1 is set to Dynamic Auto and SW2 is set
to Dynamic Desirable. What is the result of this configuration?
A. The link becomes an access port.
B. The link is in an error disabled state.
C. The link is in a down state.
D. The link becomes a trunk port.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop AAA functions from the left onto the correct AAA services on the right.
Select and Place:

Pass4itsure 200-301 exam questions-q7

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure 200-301 exam questions-q7-2

QUESTION 8
Which command is used to configure an IPv6 static default route?
A. ipv6 route ::/0 interface next-hop5
B. ipv6 route default interface next-hop
C. ipv6 route 0.0.0.0/0 interface next-hop
D. ip route 0.0.0.0/0 interface next-hop
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Order the DHCP message types as they would occur between a DHCP client and a DHCP server.Select and Place:

Pass4itsure 200-301 exam questions-q9

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure 200-301 exam questions-q9-2

QUESTION 10
Which of the following is the JSON encoding of a dictionary or hash?
A. {“key”:“value”}
B. [“key”,“value”]
C. {“key”,“value”}
D. (“key”:“value”)
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
In which way does a spine-and-leaf architecture allow for scalability in a network when additional access ports are
required?
A. A spine switch and a leaf switch can be added with redundant connections between them.
B. A spine switch can be added with at least 40 GB uplinks.
C. A leaf switch can be added with connections to every spine switch.
D. A leaf switch can be added with a single connection to a core spine switch.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
How can the Cisco Discovery Protocol be used?
A. to allow a switch to discover the devices that are connected to its ports
B. to determine the hardware platform of the device
C. to determine the IP addresses of connected Cisco devices
D. all of the above
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
DRAG DROP

Pass4itsure 200-301 exam questions-q13

Refer to the exhibit. Drag and drop the networking parameters from the left onto the correct values on the right.
Select and Place:

Pass4itsure 200-301 exam questions-q13-2

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure 200-301 exam questions-q13-3

Most Popular Cisco 300-175 Dumps DCUCI PDF Exam Recommendations With 100% Pass Rate Youtube Study (240+ Questions) 1-17

Latest Cisco 200-301 dumps Practice test questions & answers

Exclusive Offers For Up to 12% Off

Pass4itsure discount code 2020

Other popular exams of 2020 | You might be interested!

  • 300-410 ENARSI – Implementing Cisco Enterprise Advanced Routing and Services (ENARSI)
  • 300-415 ENSDWI – Implementing Cisco SD-WAN Solutions (SDWAN300)
  • 300-420 ENSLD – Designing Cisco Enterprise Networks (ENSLD)
  • 300-425 ENWLSD – Designing Cisco Enterprise Wireless Networks (ENWLSD)
  • 300-430 ENWLSI – Implementing Cisco Enterprise Wireless Networks (ENWLSI)
  • 300-435 ENAUTO – Implementing Automation for Cisco Enterprise Solutions (ENAUI)

Shared above for free: Includes Exclusive Offers For Up to 12% Off ,Cisco Certified Network Associate (200-301 CCNA) Video Training, Cisco CCNA 200-301 Practice Tests, and more. How to effectively pass the Cisco 200-301 exam? https://www.pass4itsure.com/200-301.html Valid Cisco 200-301 dumps is the most effective weapon to pass the exam!

FeaturedNew Cisco SCOR 350-701 PDF Dumps,350-701 Dumps [2020]

Pass Cisco SCOR 350-701 Exam with Pass4itsure 350-701 Exam Dumps & practice Questions.Here are some of the latest Cisco Exam 350-701 questions and explanation to related questions about the exam.

New Cisco SCOR 350-701 PDF Dumps,350-701 Dumps

You’ll find:

  1. What, the new Cisco CCNP Security 350-701 exam?
  2. Which Cisco Exam 350-701 Course is best?
  3. Why do you need Cisco 350-701 PDF Questions?
  4. Cisco 350-701 Dumps [2020] With Latest 350-701 Braindumps
  5. How is the Pass4itsure 350-701 Exam Dumps different from others?
  6. Get your Cisco 350-701 Exam Dumps,Watch free 350-701 exam video tutorials

What, the new Cisco CCNP Security 350-701 exam?

As you know, the new CCNP 350-701 exam will be released on February 24, 2020.CCNP examination form changes, originally need 3-5 written tests all passed, the next generation OF CCNP certification only need to pass 2 exams can be obtained, that is, must take a core examination, plus an optional exam.

CCNP Security(350-701 )

A technology core exam: 350-701 exam!The SCOR exam is the core exam required for those wishing to attain CCNP Security certification.

See more on the official: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/certifications/professional/ccnp-migration-tools.html

In this digital world, the demand for Cisco-certified (350-701) Cisco professionals is growing. Pass4itsure has always pursued the implementation of the Cisco Implementing and Operating Cisco Security Core Technologies 350-701 CCNP certification.

Which Cisco Exam 350-701 Course is best?

Pass4itsure 350-701 study materials are a series of Cisco 350-701 questions and answers that you need to participate in, so you can pass with sufficient skill and confidence.

350-701 Exam Questions & Answers

https://www.pass4itsure.com/350-701.html

Why do you need Cisco 350-701 PDF Questions?

The Cisco 350-701 Dump 2020 is useful because you can research it anytime, anywhere without causing you too much trouble. What makes it better is that the Pass4itsure Cisco 350-701 is fully updated and timely, so you do n’t need other learning materials to learn.

Cisco 350-701 Dumps [2020] With Latest 350-701 Braindumps

The advent of the New Cisco 350-701 exam has increased the demand for the Cisco 350-701 Dump 2020, so you need to obtain a Cisco 350-701 dumps pdf to prepare for the 350-701 exam questions. But the question is exactly where is the 350-701 exam dump? For this, you should consider Pass4itsure.

Latest Pass4itsure 350-701 PDF Dumps From Google Drive

https://drive.google.com/open?id=12EHfyZ3f3TYdLI-hdz0ctMbIGubZlT1K

Pass4itsure discount code 2020

How is the Pass4itsure 350-701 Exam Dumps different from others?

Pass4itsure Reason for selection

Get your Cisco 350-701 Exam Dumps,Watch free 350-701 exam video tutorials

Video mode is more intuitive and fun, I believe you will like!

Let Pass4itsure help you prepare for the actual Cisco 350-701 exam!Right away!https://www.pass4itsure.com/350-701.html Get Cisco CCNP 350-701 PDF Dumps.

FeaturedEasily prepare your Cisco 300-425 Exam | 300-425 PDF Dumps for free

Prepare for Cisco 300-425 Certification exam by Cisco 300-425 Video, Cisco 300-425 Dumps (The most recommended way by the Cisco Certified Experts to prepare CCNP Enterprise certification exam in the shortest and easiest way).You’re looking for is here!https://www.pass4itsure.com/300-425.html provides authentic and updated 300-425 dumps, success!

PDF + 300-425 Dumps With 12% Discount

Pass4itsure discount code 2020

Designing Cisco Enterprise Wireless Networks (300-425 ENWLSD)

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/enwlsd-300-425.html

List of Related Exams

  • 300-401 Implementing and Operating Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies (ENCOR)
  • 300-410 Implementing Cisco Enterprise Advanced Routing and Services (ENARSI)
  • 300-415 Implementing Cisco SD-WAN Solutions (ENSDWI)
  • 300-420 Designing Cisco Enterprise Networks (ENSLD)
  • 300-430 Implementing Cisco Enterprise Wireless Networks (ENWLSI)
  • 300-435 Automating and Programming Cisco Enterprise Solutions (ENAUTO)
  • 350-401 Implementing Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies (ENCOR)

There Are Many Ways by Which You Can Prepare for Your 300-425 Exam:

  • Prepare for 300-425 Certification by Cisco books
  • Prepare for 300-425 Certification exam by watching online video training
  • Joining coaching classes

The shortest and easiest way: Prepare for 300-425 Certification exam by 300-425 Dumps

latest Cisco 300-425 exam questions and answers in PDF format

Cisco 300-425 pdf dumps https://drive.google.com/open?id=1qR_lZMBu1-yXV1s9v8O0Lqw7xB8qtzlk

Cisco 300-425 Exam Video

Designing Cisco Enterprise Wireless Networks (ENWLSD) Practice Exams Dumps Question Answers

QUESTION 1

Pass4itsure 300-425 exam questions-q1

Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about Cisco Prime Infrastructure are true? (Choose two.)
A. It presents the recommended number of APs for the selected coverage area based on the selections made.
B. Planning mode requires a special license in Cisco Prime Infrastructure.
C. It shows the map editor feature in Cisco Prime Infrastructure.
D. Controllers must be synchronized with Cisco Prime Infrastructure for planning mode to work.
E. It shows the planning mode feature in Cisco Prime Infrastructure.
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 2
An engineer is reducing the subnet size of the corporate WLAN by segmenting the VLAN into smaller subnets. Clients
will be assigned a subnet by location. Which type of groups can the engineer use to map the smaller subnets to the
corporate WLAN?
A. WLC port groups
B. RF groups
C. AP groups
D. interface groups
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3

Pass4itsure 300-425 exam questions-q3

Refer to the exhibit. What is the main reason why the Wi-Fi design engineer took a different approach than installing the
APs in the offices, even though that installation provides better coverage?
A. aesthetics
B. transmit power considerations
C. antenna gain
D. power supply considerations
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
A company wants to replace its existing PBX system with a new VoIP System that will include wireless IP phones. The
CIO has concerns about whether the company\\’s existing wireless network can support the new system. Which tool in
Cisco Prime can help ensure that the current network will support the new phone system?
A. Location Readiness
B. Site Calibration
C. Map Editor
D. Voice Readiness
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Guest anchoring is configured for a newly created SSID for your company. It has been noticed that the mobility tunnels
are not up, and that MPING fails from your foreign WLC to the anchor WLC. What is the reason that it is failing?
A. A rule is needed at the firewall to allow UDP port 16666 for communication to work.
B. A rule is needed at the firewall to allow UDP port 97 for communication to work.
C. A rule is needed at the firewall to allow TCP port 97 for communication to work.
D. A rule is needed at the firewall to allow TCP port 16666 for communication to work.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
A wireless engineer is designing a wireless network to support real-time applications over wireless. Which IEEE protocol
mus the engineer enable on the WLC so that the number of packets that are exchanged between an access point and
client are reduced and fast roaming occurs?
A. 802.11w
B. 802.11r
C. 802.11i
D. 802.11k
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
A technician connects a Cisco Aironet 3700 Series access point to a switch and realizes that the AP is coming up with
3×3 MIMO. Which reason explains this behavior?
A. A redundant power supply is unavailable on the switch.
B. The switch is 802.3af capable.
C. The AP is getting power from a power injector.
D. The switch is PoE+ capable.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which non-Wi-Fi interferer can be identified by Metageek Chanalyzer?
A. PDAs
B. jammers
C. smartphones
D. printers
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
A network engineer is configuring high availability on an access point. What is the maximum number of controllers that
can be configured?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
A university is in the process of designing a wireless network in an auditorium that seats 500 students and supports
student laptops. Which design methodology should the university implement in the auditorium?
A. roaming design model
B. voice design model
C. location design model
D. high-density design model
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
A customer has determined that aesthetics is a primary concern for their upcoming guest deployment. Which design
consideration can be leveraged to address this concern?
A. Paint the access point to cover the LED from being noticeable.
B. Use enclosures to hide the wireless infrastructure in the surrounding environment.
C. Use AIR-AP-BRACKET-1 to allow for greater mounting locations
D. Deploy environmentally friendly cabling components to blend into the environment.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
As part of a wireless site survey in a hospital, an engineer needs to identify potential Layer 1 interferers. In which two
areas is the engineer most likely to find sources of 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz RF noise? (Choose two.)
A. magnetic resonance imaging
B. kitchen
C. Gamma Knife radiation treatment
D. X-ray radiography
E. patient room
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 13
What causes the most signal attenuation, based on the wireless design tools?
A. cinder block wall
B. metal door
C. glass wall
D. office window
Correct Answer: B

About Best Cisco 300-420 Exam Practice Material, Cisco 300-420 Dumps 100% Free

pass4itsure tips

Get the best 300-425 PDF dumps, Cisco 300-425 ENWLSD & Video, 300-425 exam questions https://www.pass4itsure.com/300-425.html Lot of material for preparing for 300-425 certification. Study hard and pass the exam!

FeaturedAbout Best Cisco 300-420 Exam Practice Material, Cisco 300-420 Dumps 100% Free

Best Cisco 300-420 Exam Practice Material

How do I pass the Cisco 300-420 exam 2020? The answer is: 1. You need the most accurate learning materials. 2. You need enough practice. Pass4itsure experts help you!https://www.pass4itsure.com/300-420.html (Updated: Mar 19, 2020) The most accurate and up-to-date Cisco 300-420 dumps.

Pass4itsure have

  • The 300-420 Questions & Answers covers all the knowledge points of the real exam.
  • We update our product frequently so our customer can always have the latest version of the brain dumps.
  • We provide our customers with the excellent 7×24 hours customer service.
  • We have the most professional expert team to back up our grate quality products. If you still cannot make your decision on purchasing our product, please try our free demo.

latest Cisco 300-420 Pdf Dumps From “Drive”

Pass your Designing Cisco Enterprise Networks exam easily with most updated and actual 300-420 pdf dumps.

Cisco 300-420 Pdf Dumps https://drive.google.com/open?id=1l_wmfg41Bsrsfmoa5Glr5sc4GU9BfxXC

Free dumps share it | Related exams (CCNP )

Most popular Cisco Certification exam dumps, practice test questions

Related exams (CCNP ) Free dumps share it
300-410 300-410 dumps https://www.pass4itsure.com/300-410.html
300-415 300-415 dumps https://www.pass4itsure.com/300-415.html
300-425 300-425 dumps https://www.pass4itsure.com/300-425.html
300-430 300-430 dumps https://www.pass4itsure.com/300-430.html
300-435 300-435 dumps https://www.pass4itsure.com/300-435.html

Designing Cisco Enterprise Networks (300-420 ENSLD) https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/ensld-300-420.html

Cisco 300-420 exam video

Newest Cisco 300-420 exam practice questions(100% free)

best preparation method to pass the Cisco CCNP Routing and Switching exam, latest Cisco 300-135 exam dumps

QUESTION 1
When designing interdomain multicast, which two protocols are deployed to achieve communication between multicast
sources and receivers? (Choose two.)
A. IGMPv2
B. BIDIR-PIM
C. MP-BGP
D. MSDP
E. MLD
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 2
A network engineer must connect two sites across a public network using a secure tunneling technology that supports
multicast traffic. Which technology must be chosen?
A. IPsec
B. GRE
C. PPTP
D. GRE over IPsec
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3

Pass4itsure 300-420 exam questions-q3

Refer to the exhibit. Which solution decreases the EIGRP convergence time?
A. Enable subsecond timers
B. Increase the hold time value
C. Increase the dead timer value
D. Enable stub routing on the spokes
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which solution allows overlay VNs to communicate with each other in an SD-WAN Architecture?
A. External fusion routers can be used to map VNs to VRFs and selectively route traffic between VRFs.
B. GRE tunneling can be configured between fabric edges to connect one VN to another.
C. SGTs can be used to permit traffic from one VN to another.
D. Route leaking can be used on the fabric border nodes to inject routes from one VN to another.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
A company is using OSPF between its HQ location and a branch office. HQ is assigned area 0 and the branch office is
assigned area 1. The company purchases a second branch office, but due to circuit delays to HQ, it decides to connect
the new branch office to the creating branch office as a temporary measure. The new branch office is assigned area 2.
Which OSPF configuration enables all three locations to exchange routes?
A. The existing branch office must be configured as a stub area
B. A virtual link must be configured between the new branch office and HQ
C. A sham link must be configured between the new branch office and HQ
D. The new branch office must be configured as a stub area
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
What are two benefits of designing an SD-WAN network fabric with direct Internet access implemented at every site?
(Choose two.)
A. It decreases latency to applications hosted by public cloud service provider.
B. It decreases latency on Internet circuits.
C. It increases the speed of delivery of site deployments through zero-touch provisioning.
D. It increases the total available bandwidth on Internet circuits.
E. It alleviates network traffic on MPLS circuits.
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 7
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the properties from the left onto the protocols they describe on the right.

Pass4itsure 300-420 exam questions-q7

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure 300-420 exam questions-q7-2

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/iosxml/ios/prog/configuration/166/b_166_programmability_cg/b_166_programmability_cg_chapter_01011.html 

QUESTION 8
An engineer is working with NETCONF and Cisco NX-OS based devices. The engineer needs a YANG model that
supports a specific feature relevant only to Cisco NX-OS. Which model must the engineer choose?
A. Native
B. IEEE
C. OpenConfig
D. IETF
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
An engineer is looking for a standards-driven YANG model to manage a multivendor network environment. Which model
must the engineer choose?
A. Native
B. OpenConfig
C. IETF
D. IEEE NETCONF
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
An engineer must design a multicast network for a financial application. Most of the multicast sources also receive
multicast traffic (many-to-many deployment model). To better scale routing tables, the design must not use source trees.
Which multicast protocol satisfies these requirements?
A. PIM-SSM
B. PIM-SM
C. MSDP
D. BIDIR-PIM
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Which two best practices must be followed when designing an out-of-band management network? (Choose two.)
A. Enforce access control
B. Facilitate network integration
C. Back up data using the management network
D. Ensure that the management network is a backup to the data network
E. Ensure network isolation
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 12
Which routes does the overlay management protocol advertise in an SD-WAN overlay?
A. underlay, MPLS, and overlay
B. primary, backup, and load-balanced
C. prefix, TLOC, and service
D. Internet, MPLS, and backup
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
A branch office has a primary L3VPN MPLS connection back to the main office and an IPSEC VPN tunnel that serves
as backup. Which design ensures that data is sent over the backup connection only if the primary MPLS circuit is
down?
A. Use EIGRP to establish a neighbor relationship with the main office via L3VPN MPLS and the IPSEC VPN tunnel.
B. Use BGP with the multipath feature enabled to force traffic via the primary path when available.
C. Use static routes tied to an IP SLA to prefer the primary path while a floating static route points to the backup
connection.
D. Use OSPF with a passive-interface command on the backup connection.
Correct Answer: C

Pass4itsure discount code 2020

Pass4itsure discount code 2020

You can get the Cisco 300-420 exam dumps from https://www.pass4itsure.com/300-420.html. Best Cisco 300-420 Exam Practice Material,Latest Cisco 300-420 dumps pdf questions 2020 will walk you through the success in the 300-420 exam.

Passcertguide Has The Most Valid Cisco 300-710 Exam Questions PDF and Test

The Most Valid Cisco 300-710 Exam Questions PDF and Test

The latest study material for Cisco 300-710 exam. Passcertguide provides free PDF and Test of 300-710 exam dumps. Try! https://www.pass4itsure.com/300-710.html The latest Cisco 300-710 Brain Dumps from Pass4itsure. Download 300-710 pdf.

Latest Cisco 300-710 Dumps

also known as 300-710 exam, is a Cisco CCNP Security Certification.

Cisco 300-710 Exam Questions PDF Dumps https://drive.google.com/file/d/1jROG2CDpAOwmc3vOmIzlwLl85wR-uHVX/view?usp=sharing

Cisco 300-710 Exam Video

Valid Cisco CCNP Security 300-710 Questions Practice Test

Pass4itsure Cisco 300-710 60 Exam Questions And Answers
The 300-710 pdf dumps, Cisco CCNP Security certification exam.

Last Updated Jun 16, 2020
Pass your tests with the always up-to-date 300-710 dumps.

QUESTION 1
Which Cisco Firepower rule action displays an HTTP warning page?
A. Monitor
B. Block
C. Interactive Block
D. Allow with Warning
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firesight/541/user-guide/FireSIGHT-System-UserGuidev5401/AC-Rules-Tuning-Overview.html#76698

QUESTION 2
What is the maximum bit size that Cisco FMC supports for HTTPS certificates?
A. 1024
B. 8192
C. 4096
D. 2048
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/610/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guidev61/system_configuration.html

QUESTION 3
Which two conditions are necessary for high availability to function between two Cisco FTD devices? (Choose two.)
A. The units must be the same version
B. Both devices can be part of a different group that must be in the same domain when configured within the FMC.
C. The units must be different models if they are part of the same series.
D. The units must be configured only for firewall routed mode.
E. The units must be the same model.
Correct Answer: AE
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/firepower-management-center/212699-configure-ftdhigh-availability-on-firep.html

QUESTION 4
A network engineer is configuring URL Filtering on Firepower Threat Defense. Which two port requirements on the
Firepower Management Center must be validated to allow communication with the cloud service? (Choose two.)
A. outbound port TCP/443
B. inbound port TCP/80
C. outbound port TCP/8080
D. inbound port TCP/443
E. outbound port TCP/80
Correct Answer: AE
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/60/configuration/guide/fpmc-configguidev60/Security__Internet_Access__and_Communication_Ports.html

QUESTION 5
Which two actions can be used in an access control policy rule? (Choose two.)
A. Block with Reset
B. Monitor
C. Analyze
D. Discover
E. Block ALL
Correct Answer: AB
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firesight/541/firepower-module-user-guide/asa-firepowermodule-user-guide-v541/AC-Rules-Tuning-Overview.html#71854

QUESTION 6
Which action should you take when Cisco Threat Response notifies you that AMP has identified a file as malware?
A. Add the malicious file to the block list.
B. Send a snapshot to Cisco for technical support.
C. Forward the result of the investigation to an external threat-analysis engine.
D. Wait for Cisco Threat Response to automatically block the malware.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which two remediation options are available when Cisco FMC is integrated with Cisco ISE? (Choose two.)
A. dynamic null route configured
B. DHCP pool disablement
C. quarantine
D. port shutdown
E. host shutdown
Correct Answer: CD
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/identity-services-engine/210524-configurefirepower-6-1-pxgrid-remediati.html

QUESTION 8
Which Cisco Advanced Malware Protection for Endpoints policy is used only for monitoring endpoint actively?
A. Windows domain controller
B. audit
C. triage
D. protection
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/amp-endpoints/214933-amp-for-endpoints-deploymentmethodology.html

QUESTION 9
Which two types of objects are reusable and supported by Cisco FMC? (Choose two.)
A. dynamic key mapping objects that help link HTTP and HTTPS GET requests to Layer 7 application protocols.
B. reputation-based objects that represent Security Intelligence feeds and lists, application filters based on category and
reputation, and file lists
C. network-based objects that represent IP address and networks, port/protocols pairs, VLAN tags, security zones, and
origin/destination country
D. network-based objects that represent FQDN mappings and networks, port/protocol pairs, VXLAN tags, security
zones and origin/destination country
E. reputation-based objects, such as URL categories
Correct Answer: BC
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/620/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guidev62/reusable_objects.html#ID-2243-00000414

QUESTION 10
Which two dynamic routing protocols are supported in Firepower Threat Defense without using FlexConfig? (Choose
two.)
A. EIGRP
B. OSPF
C. static routing
D. IS-IS
E. BGP
Correct Answer: CE
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/660/fdm/fptd-fdm-config-guide-660/fptd-fdmrouting.html

QUESTION 11
Which interface type allows packets to be dropped?
A. passive
B. inline
C. ERSPAN
D. TAP
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/firepower-ngfw/200908-configuring-firepower-threatdefense-int.html

QUESTION 12
What is the benefit of selecting the trace option for packet capture?
A. The option indicates whether the packet was dropped or successful.
B. The option indicated whether the destination host responds through a different path.
C. The option limits the number of packets that are captured.
D. The option captures details of each packet.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
What is a functionality of port objects in Cisco FMC?
A. to mix transport protocols when setting both source and destination port conditions in a rule
B. to represent protocols other than TCP, UDP, and ICMP
C. to represent all protocols in the same way
D. to add any protocol other than TCP or UDP for source port conditions in access control rules.
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/620/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guidev62/reusable_objects.html

Pass4itsure-Reason-for-selection

Pass4itsure discount code 2020

Please read the picture carefully to get 12% off!

Pass4itsure discount code 2020

Free Cisco 300-710 Exam Questions PDF Dumps https://drive.google.com/file/d/1jROG2CDpAOwmc3vOmIzlwLl85wR-uHVX/view?usp=sharing

The perfect Cisco 300-710 dumps from https://www.pass4itsure.com/300-710.html can prepare you fully for the exam and get the desired results. Jun 16, 2020, updated Cisco 300-710 dumps to ensure you successfully pass the exam.

Free Share Oracle Certification Exam Practice Questions, Oracle Exam Pdf Dumps [2020]

Free sharing of the latest Oracle certification exam study materials (1z0-071, 1z0-083, 1Z0-148, 1z0-340, 1z0-996, 1z0-816): Oracle PDF, Oracle Study Guide, Oracle Video, Oracle Online Practice, Free Oracle PDF Dumps Download. More complete Oracle (1z0-071, 1z0-083, 1Z0-148, 1z0-340, 1z0-996, 1z0-816) practice questions, click https://www.pass4itsure.com/oracle.html latest exam materials updates for Oracle.

Oracle Exam Information

Oracle Database SQL | 1Z0-071

Exam Title: Oracle Database SQL
Exam Number: 1Z0-071
Exam Price: $245 More on exam pricing
Format: Multiple Choice
Duration: 120 minutes
Number of Questions: 78
Passing score: 63%
Validated Against: This exam was validated against 11g Release 2 version 11.2.0.1.0 and up to 19c

Oracle Database Administration II | 1Z0-083

Exam Title: Oracle Database Administration II
Exam Number: 1Z0-083
Exam Price: $245 More on exam pricing
Format: Multiple Choice
Duration: 150 Minutes
Number of Questions: 85
Passing score: 57%

Oracle Database: Advanced PL/SQL | 1Z0-148

Exam Title: Oracle Database: Advanced PL/SQL
Exam Number: 1Z0-148
Exam Price: $245 More on exam pricing
Format: Multiple Choice
Duration: 110
Number of Questions: 75
Passing score: 62%
Validated Against: Exam has been validated against Oracle Database 12c.

Oracle Eloqua CX Marketing 2019 Implementation Essentials | 1Z0-340

Exam Title: Oracle Eloqua CX Marketing 2019 Implementation Essentials
Exam Number: 1Z0-340
Exam Price: $245 More on exam pricing
Format: Multiple Choice
Duration: 120 Minutes
Number of Questions: 70
Passing score: 70%
Validated Against: Exam has been validated against 19C

Oracle Utilities Customer Cloud Service 2019 Implementation Essentials | 1Z0-996

Exam Title: Oracle Utilities Customer Cloud Service 2019 Implementation Essentials
Exam Number: 1Z0-996
Exam Price: $245 More on exam pricing
Format: Multiple Choice
Duration: 85 Minutes
Number of Questions: 60
Passing score: 68%
Validated Against: Exam has been validated against 19C

Java SE 11 Programmer II | 1Z0-816

Exam Title: Java SE 11 Programmer II
Exam Number: 1Z0-816
Exam Price: $245 More on exam pricing
Format: Multiple Choice
Duration: 180 Minutes
Number of Questions: 80
Passing score: 63%
Validated Against: This exam has been validated against Java 11.

Popular related Oracle exams

Latest Oracle Certification Exam Study Materials

Oracle Database 1Z0-071 Exam Practice Questions 1-5

QUESTION 1
Which three statements are true about the DESCRIBE command? (Choose three.)
A. It can be used to display the structure of an existing view
B. It can be used only from SQL*Plus
C. It displays the PRIMARY KEY constraint for any column or columns that have that constraint
D. It can be used from SQL Developer
E. It displays all constraints that are defined for each column
F. It displays the NOT NULL constraint for any columns that have that constraint
Correct Answer: ABF

QUESTION 2
Examine the data in the CUST_NAME column of the CUSTOMERS table.

Passcertguide 1Z0-071 exam questions-q2

You want to extract only those customer names that have three names and display the * symbol in place of the first
name as follows:

Passcertguide 1Z0-071 exam questions-q2-2

Which two queries give the required output?
A. SELECT LPAD(SUBSTR(cust_name, INSTR(cust_name, \\’ \\’)),LENGTH(cust_name),\\’*\\’) “CUST NAME” FROM
customers WHERE INSTR(cust_name, \\’ \\’,1,2)0;
B. SELECT LPAD(SUBSTR(cust_name, INSTR(cust_name, \\’ \\’)),LENGTH(cust_name),\\’*\\’) “CUST NAME” FROM
customers WHERE INSTR(cust_name, \\’ \\’,-1,2)0;
C. SELECT LPAD(SUBSTR(cust_name, INSTR (cust_name \\’ \\’)),LENGTH(cust_name) – INSTR(cust_name, \\’ \\’),
\\’*\\’) “CUST NAME” FROM customers WHERE INSTR(cust_name, \\’ \\’,1,-2)0;
D. SELECT LPAD(SUBSTR(cust_name, INSTR (cust_name \\’ \\’)),LENGTH(cust_name) – INSTR(cust_name, \\’ \\’),
\\’*\\’) “CUST NAME” FROM customers WHERE INSTR(cust_name, \\’ \\’,1,2)0;
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 3
Examine the data in the ORD_ITEMS table:

Passcertguide 1Z0-071 exam questions-q3

Evaluate this query: Which statement is true regarding the result?

Passcertguide 1Z0-071 exam questions-q3-2

A. It returns an error because the HAVING clause should be specified after the GROUP BY clause.
B. It returns an error because all the aggregate functions used in the HAVING clause must be specified in the SELECT
list.
C. It displays the item nos with their average quantity where the average quantity is more than double the minimum
quantity of that item in the table.
D. It displays the item nos with their average quantity where the average quantity is more than double the overall
minimum quantity of all the items in the table.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Which two are true about granting privileges on objects?
A. An object privilege can be granted to other users only by the owner of that object.
B. An object privilege can be granted to a role only by the owner of that object.
C. A table owner must grant the REFERENCES privilege to allow other users to create FOREIGN KEY constraints
using that table.
D. The owner of an object acquires all object privileges on that object by default.
E. The WITH GRANT OPTION clause can be used only by DBA users.
Correct Answer: CD
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B19306_01/network.102/b14266/authoriz.htm#i1008214

QUESTION 5
The SALES table has columns PROD_ID and QUANTITY_SOLD of data type NUMBER. Which two queries execute
successfully?
A. SELECT prod_id FROM sales WHERE quantity_sold > 55000 GROUP BY prod_id HAVING COUNT(*) >10;
B. SELECT prod_id FROM sales WHERE quantity_sold > 55000 AND COUNT(*) > 10 GROUP BY prod_id HAVING
COUNT(*) >10;
C. SELECT COUNT (prod_id) FROM sales WHERE quantity_sold > 55000 GROUP BY prod_id;
D. SELECT prod_id FROM sales WHERE quantity_sold > 55000 AND COUNT(*) > 10 GROUP BY COUNT(*) >10;
E. SELECT COUNT(prod_id) FROM sales GROUP BY prod_id WHERE quantity_sold > 55000;
Correct Answer: AC

Pass4itsure Oracle 1Z0-071 Dumps https://www.pass4itsure.com/1z0-071.html

Free Oracle 1Z0-071 Pdf Dumps [drive] https://drive.google.com/file/d/1Kp3ThFItD3Ti30t8UXEojc7Bv4nmFpms/view?usp=sharing

Oracle Database 1Z0-083 Exam Practice Questions 1-5

QUESTION 1
Which two are true about Oracle Optimizer Statistics, their use, and their collection? (Choose two.)
A. The number of table rows is considered when evaluating the cost of accessing a table using an index.
B. Index balanced B*Tree height is considered when evaluating the cost of using an index.
C. The Statistics Advisor can help recommend the best way to gather statistics.
D. Statistics collected using DBMS_STATS always yield the best optimizer result.
E. The Statistics Advisor generates actions for all recommendations.
Correct Answer: CD
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/database/oracle/oracle-database/19/tgsql/optimizer-statistics-advisor.html#GUIDD81A7708-FDA0-45BB-A6E2-103858B047AE

QUESTION 2
Which two are true about Oracle Database Configuration Assistant (DBCA) templates? (Choose two.)
A. The General Purpose of Transaction Processing templates are most suitable when concurrency and recoverability
are key criteria.
B. Oracle DBCA templates can store only logical structure and not database files.
C. New templates can only be created by modifying an existing user-created template.
D. The Data Warehouse template is most suitable when transaction response time is the key criterion.
E. Oracle DBCA templates can be used to create new databases and duplicate existing databases.
Correct Answer: AE
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/ADMQS/GUID-2B8A3B5ED319-4377-8B22-8BB67DCC9885.htm#ADMQS0235

QUESTION 3
While backing up to the Oracle Fast Recovery Area (FRA), you determined the backup is taking too long and suspect a
performance bottleneck.
Which three are true about diagnosing and tuning these problems? (Choose three.)
A. If an RMAN BACKUP VALIDATE command takes roughly the same time as an actual backup, then both read and
write I/O are likely bottlenecks.
B. Setting DBWR_IO_SLAVES to a non zero value can improve backup performance when using synchronous I/O.
C. If an RMAN BACKUP VALIDATE command takes noticeably less than an actual backup, then write I/O is a likely
bottleneck.
D. If an RMAN BACKUP VALIDATE command takes roughly the same time as an actual backup, then read I/O is a
likely bottleneck.
E. Data files with a high value in V$BACKUP_SYNC_IO.DISCRETE_BYTES_PER_SECOND is a potential
performance bottleneck when synchronous I/O is used.
F. Setting DBWR_IO_SLAVES to a non zero value can improve backup performance when using asynchronous I/O/
G. Data files with a high value in V$BACKUP_ASYNC_IO.SHORT_WAITS are a potential performance bottleneck when
asynchronous I/O is used.
Correct Answer: BCE
Reference: https://web.stanford.edu/dept/itss/docs/oracle/10gR2/backup.102/b14191/rcmtunin003.htm

QUESTION 4
The USERS tablespace consists of data files 3 and 4 and must always be online in reading/write mode.
Which two are true about using RMAN to perform an open database back up of this tablespace? (Choose two.)
A. Backups must be done incrementally.
B. Backups must be contained in backup sets.
C. Backups can be taken only if the database is in ARCHIVELOG mode.
D. Backups can be done incrementally.
E. The database must be registered in an RMAN catalog.
F. Only consistent backups can be created.
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 5
Which two are true about Rapid Home Provisioning (RHP), which has been available since Oracle 18c? (Choose two.)
A. It is an Oracle Database service
B. It cannot be used to upgrade Oracle Database homes.
C. It can be used to provision applications.
D. It can be used to patch Grid Infrastructure homes containing Oracle Restart.
E. It can be used to provision middleware.
Correct Answer: DE

Pass4itsure Oracle 1Z0-083 Dumps https://www.pass4itsure.com/1z0-083.html

Free Oracle 1Z0-083 Pdf Dumps [drive] https://drive.google.com/file/d/1jw76hTvWfdJACv43f49dciHytaKLz45C/view?usp=sharing

Oracle Database Application Development 1Z0-148 Exam Practice Questions 1-5

QUESTION 1
Which two statements are true about the usage of the DBMS_DESCRIBE.DESCRIBE_PROCEDURE procedure?
(Choose two.)
A. You can describe remote objects.
B. You can describe anonymous PL/SQL blocks.
C. You can describe a stored procedure, stored function, packaged procedure, or packaged function.
D. You can obtain information about the position, name, and data type of the arguments of a procedure.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 2
Consider a function totalEmp () which takes a number as an input parameter and returns the total number of employees
who have a salary higher than that parameter.
Examine this PL/SQL package AS

Passcertguide 1Z0-148 exam questions-q2

Which two definitions of totalEmp () result in an implicit conversion by Oracle Database on executing this PL/SQL
block?
A. CREATE FUNCTION totalEmp (sal IN NUMBER) RETURN NUMBER IS total NUMBER :=0; BEGIN … RETUNRN
total; END; /
B. CREATE FUNCTION totalEmp (sal IN NUMBER) RETURN NUMBER IS total NUMBER :=0; BEGIN … RETUNRN
total; END; /
C. CREATE FUNCTION totalEmp (sal IN PLS_INTEGER) RETURN NUMBER IS total NUMBER :=0; BEGIN …
RETUNRN total; END; /
D. CREATE FUNCTION totalEmp (sal IN BINARY_FLOAT) RETURN NUMBER IS total NUMBER :=0; BEGIN …
RETUNRN total; END; /
E. CREATE FUNCTION totalEmp (sal IN POSITIVEN) RETURN NUMBER IS total NUMBER :=0; BEGIN … RETUNRN
total; END; /
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 3
The database instance was recently started up. Examine the following parameter settings for the database instance:
NAME TYPE VALUE
………
result_cache_max_result integer 5
result_cache_max_size big integer 0
result_cache_mode string MANUAL
result_cache_remote_expiration integer 0
………
You reset the value for the result_cache_max_size parameter by issuing the following command:
SQL> ALTER SYSTEM SET result_cache_max_size = 1056k SCOPE = BOTH;
System altered.
Which statement is true in this scenario?
A. 1056 KB is allocated for the result cache and the result cache is enabled.
B. 1056 KB is allocated for the result cache, but the result cache is disabled.
C. The results for only the queries that have the RESULT_CACHE hint are cached.
D. The results for all the queries except those having the NO_RESULT_CACHE hint are cached.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which two statements are true about the context of an application? (Choose two.)
A. It is attached to a session.
B. It is owned by the user SYS.
C. A user can change the context of his or her application.
D. The PL/SQL package associated with the context must exist before the context is created.
E. The predefined attributes in the USERENV application context can be changed as per the requirements.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 5
View the Exhibit.
How do you reduce the chances of SQL injection for the procedure?

Passcertguide 1Z0-148 exam questions-q5

A. Execute the SQL statement in V_STMT as dynamic SQL.
B. Remove the default value for the arguments in the procedure.
C. Convert the condition in the WHERE clause to be accepted from the user and concatenated.
D. Convert the SELECT statement to static SQL, placing the value of P_EMAIL into a local variable.
Correct Answer: D

Pass4itsure Oracle 1Z0-148 Dumps https://www.pass4itsure.com/1z0-148.html

Free Oracle 1Z0-148 Pdf Dumps [drive] https://drive.google.com/file/d/1teorvo1PnAbWW2TAPDIlRQeltbVWi133/view?usp=sharing

Oracle Cloud 1Z0-340 Exam Practice Questions 1-5

QUESTION 1
Which two are benefits of Oracle Eloqua Branding and Deliverability Cloud Service products? (Choose two.)
A. maintains corporate identity by clients sending emails directly
B. IPs can be whitelisted by a client\\’s recipients
C. establishes a sending domain with Internet Service Providers (ISPs)
D. has a positive reputation of shared IP range
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 2
Which four CRM integrations with Eloqua are supported? (Choose four.)
A. Salesforce
B. Oracle OnDemand
C. Oracle Sales Cloud
D. Microsoft Dynamics 365
E. SAP
F. Siebel OnPremise
Correct Answer: ABCD
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cloud/latest/marketingcs_gs/OMCAA/Help/CRMIntegration/CRMIntegration.htm

QUESTION 3
You are creating a prompted report to be sent on a schedule by an Insight Agent? What type of filter do you need to
create?
A. named filter
B. inline filter
C. prompted filter
D. scheduled filter
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cloud/latest/marketingcs_gs/OMCAA/Help/Insight/Tasks/CreatingAgents.htm

QUESTION 4
Which is NOT a good use case for email groups?
A. managing different content types for email
B. supporting different organizations
C. limiting the frequency of emails
D. enabling Sales with custom Engage templates
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
You want to access Profiler using your company\\’s login credentials.
Which URL would you choose?
A. Direct
B. XMLogin
C. SAML
D. SFDC IDP
E. Autologin
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cloud/latest/marketingcs_gs/OMCAA/pdf/OracleEloqua_Profiler_UserGuide.pdf

Pass4itsure Oracle 1Z0-340 Dumps https://www.pass4itsure.com/1z0-340.html

Free Oracle 1Z0-340 Pdf Dumps [drive] https://drive.google.com/file/d/1FVHGM0ytiwWQXF5sMzb0M7qsVXt8eUOW/view?usp=sharing

Oracle Cloud 1Z0-996 Exam Practice Questions 1-5

QUESTION 1
Which three are important Account concepts that must always be followed? (Choose three.)
A. Accounts expire when there are no active contracts.
B. An Account can only reference one and only one person at one time.
C. Every Account has a unique, system-assigned Account ID.
D. Bills are produced for an account and are sent to the account persons.
E. An Account references one or more persons.
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 2
Which entity defines the type of collection process to start based on age of debt, amount of debt, and type of customer?
A. Debt Class
B. Customer Class
C. Collection Class Control
D. Collection Class
E. Collection Process Template
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E28945_01/4.3%20Collect%20Revenue/CCandB%20URM%204.3.2.1.pdf

QUESTION 3
Which option correctly describes the high-level process from loading measurements through calculating usage?
A. 1. Load Initial Measurements
2.
Validate, edit, and estimate Initial Measurements
3.
Create Final Measurements
4.
Update Initial Measurements
B. 1. Load Initial Measurements
2.
Verify, evaluate, and enter Initial Measurements
3.
Create Final Measurements
4.
Calculate Usage
C. 1. Load Initial Measurements
2.
Validate, evaluate, and estimate Initial Measurements
3.
Update Initial Measurements
4.
Calculate Usage
D. 1. Load Initial Measurements
2.
Validate, edit, and estimate Initial Measurements
3.
Create Final Measurements
4.
Calculate Usage
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
What determines an Account\\’s Balance?
A. the sum of all the Financial Transactions linked directly to the service agreements related to the account
B. the amount recorded in the “Balance Due” field on an account
C. the logic defined in a plug-in spot on the Installations Option
D. the sum of all the balances recorded in the “Balance Due” field on each service agreement related to the account
E. the sum of all the Financial Transactions linked directly to the account
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 5
Measuring components are either subtractive or consumptive. Which statement correctly describes these two
concepts?
A. Subtractive measuring components are associated only with water service, whereas consumptive measuring
components are for gas and electric services.
B. Subtractive measuring components are used to measure demand, whereas consumptive measuring components are
used to measure how much was consumed since the previous reading.
C. Subtractive measuring components are associated with deductive meters, whereas consumptive measuring
components are not.
D. A subtractive measuring component\\’s consumption for a given period of time is the end measurement minus the
start measurement. A consumptive measuring component\\’s consumption is simply the measurement itself, and
represents the consumption for the period of time since the previous measurement was taken.
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E91711_01/PDF/MDM-SGG_Business_User_Guide_v2_2_0_2.pdf

Pass4itsure Oracle 1Z0-996 Dumps https://www.pass4itsure.com/1z0-996.html

Free Oracle 1Z0-996 Pdf Dumps [drive] https://drive.google.com/file/d/1ZSeFoV5LzjcFSJyRmaj5UvAlYIcYcMT1/view?usp=sharing

Oracle Java 1Z0-816 Exam Practice Questions 1-5

QUESTION 1
Given:

Passcertguide 1Z0-816 exam questions-q1

You want to obtain the Stream object on reading the file. Which code inserted on line 1 will accomplish this?
A. var lines = Files.lines(Paths.get(INPUT_FILE_NAME));
B. Stream lines = Files.readAllLines(Paths.get(INPUT_FILE_NAME));
C. var lines = Files.readAllLines(Paths.get(INPUT_FILE_NAME));
D. Stream lines = Files.lines(INPUT_FILE_NAME);
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Given:

Passcertguide 1Z0-816 exam questions-q2

and:

Passcertguide 1Z0-816 exam questions-q2-2

Which code, when inserted on line 10, prints the number of unique localities from the roster list?
A. .map(Employee::getLocality) .distinct() .count();
B. map(e -> e.getLocality()) .count();
C. .map(e -> e.getLocality()) .collect(Collectors.toSet()) .count();
D. .filter(Employee::getLocality) .distinct() .count();
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://developer.android.com/reference/android/location/Address

QUESTION 3
You are working on a functional bug in a tool used by your development organization. In your investigation, you find that
the tool is executed with a security policy file containing this grant.

Passcertguide 1Z0-816 exam questions-q3

What action should you take?
A. Nothing, because it is an internal tool and not exposed to the public.
B. Remove the grant because it is excessive.
C. Nothing, because it is not related to the bug you are investigating.
D. File a security bug against the tool referencing the excessive permission granted.
E. Nothing, because listing just the required permissions would be an ongoing maintenance challenge.
Correct Answer: D
Reference:
https://wiki.sei.cmu.edu/confluence/display/java/ENV03-J.+Do+not+grant+dangerous+combinations+of+permissions

QUESTION 4
Given: Which two are correct? (Choose two.)

Passcertguide 1Z0-816 exam questions-q4

A. The output will be exactly 2 1 3 4 5.
B. The program prints 1 4 2 3, but the order is unpredictable.
C. Replacing forEach() with forEachOrdered(), the program prints 2 1 3 4 5, but the order is unpredictable.
D. Replacing forEach() with forEachOrdered(), the program prints 1 2 3 4 5.
E. Replacing forEach() with forEachOrdered(), the program prints 2 1 3 4 5.
Correct Answer: BD

Passcertguide 1Z0-816 exam questions-q4-2

QUESTION 5
Given:

Passcertguide 1Z0-816 exam questions-q5

And the command: java Main Helloworld What is the result?
A. Input: Echo:
B. Input: Helloworld Echo: Helloworld
C. Input: Then block until any input comes from System.in.
D. Input: Echo: Helloworld
E. A NullPointerException is thrown at run time.
Correct Answer: C

Pass4itsure Oracle 1Z0-816 Dumps https://www.pass4itsure.com/1z0-816.html

Free Oracle 1Z0-816 Pdf Dumps [drive] https://drive.google.com/file/d/1WOgFj3n6RsvPKzs9y5sIHeyfpvftdNRC/view?usp=sharing

Pass4itsure-tips

Pass4itsure discount code 2020

Pass4itsure discount code 2020

The latest discount code “2020PASS” is provided below. Come and buy Oracle dumps with a 12% off discount, pass the exam, come soon!

Latest and most accurate Oracle (1z0-071, 1z0-083, 1Z0-148, 1z0-340, 1z0-996, 1z0-816) exam material and real exam Q&As https://www.pass4itsure.com/oracle.html will help you pass any Oracle certification exam.

Oracle PDF, Oracle Study Guide, Oracle Video, Oracle Online Practice, Free Oracle PDF Dumps Download, 1z0-071 Dumps, 1z0-083 Dump, 1z0-148 Dumps, 1z0-340 Dumps, 1z0-996 Dumps, 1z0-816 Dumps.

The latest CompTIA Server+ SK0-004 exam Practice Questions and Answers

Security+ focuses on the latest trends and techniques in risk management, risk mitigation, threat management and intrusion detection.We share the latest effective CompTIA Server+ SK0-004 exam dumps online Practice test to improve your skills! You can also choose SK0-004 PDF or SK0-004 YouTube to learn! Get the full SK0-004 dumps: https://www.pass4itsure.com/sk0-004.html (Q&As: 497 ) to pass the exam easily!

Server+ covers server architecture, administration, storage, security, networking, troubleshooting as well as disaster recovery.

[PDF] Free CompTIA Server+ SK0-004 pdf dumps download from Google Drive: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1dbai1fpFYbbcXxb3mnvpjOwgenlj4ue2

[PDF] Free Full CompTIA pdf dumps download from Google Drive: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1SnVb1WLCtG5umIgtJ4zeNNSpuAFWZ3yg

Server+ (Plus) Certification | CompTIA IT Certifications: https://certification.comptia.org/certifications/server

Latest effective CompTIA Server+ SK0-004 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
An administrator is updating theserver infrastructure atacompany\\’s disaster recovery site. Currently, an enormous
amount of effortisrequired by theadministratorto replicate operations. Which of the followingtypes of siteis the
administrator currently using?
A. Cold site
B. Hot site
C. Warm site
D. Replication site
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
A new server has two drives and a RAID controller. Which of the following is an option for configuring the storage on this
server?
A. RAID 0
B. RAID 5
C. RAID 6
D. RAID 10
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
A technician receives an error messagewhentrying to boot the server stating the operating system was not found.
Change management logs indicateanew hard drive backplane was installed in the server last night. Which of the
following should the technician do FIRST when troubleshooting the issue?
A. Check system board cables
B. Rebuild RAID array
C. Reinstall server OS
D. Remove newly installed hardware
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
A system administrator is tasked to setup a database server with failover clustering feature enabled. One of the
requirements is to have one database running at all times with data being synchronizedand replicated to the idle
database in case the primary database server fails. Both servers will be monitored by a witness on a LUN. Which of the
followingcluster techniques should be implemented to meet these requirements?
A. Active/Active
B. Active/Passive
C. Single Local Quorum
D. Passive/Passive
E. Shared Multiple Quorum
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
A technician notices a rack mounted server is beeping without booting up. The NEXT step to diagnose this issue would
be to:
A. continue to power cycle the server until it boots normally.
B. count the beeps and reference the service manual.
C. disable the alarm within the server.
D. install the server into a different rack.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
A company is planning to replace old hardware and needs to budget accordingly. Which of the following is likely to
contain a list of end of life servers?
A. The server\\’s warranty information.
B. The server\\’s life cycle schedule.
C. The asset management database.
D. The software licensing agreement.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
A server administrator wants to upgrade the memory of the server using two memory modules. The server has two
banks of memorywith the followingslotsavailable: A2, A3, A4, B2, B3, and B4. In whichof the following two slotsshould
theadministrator install the additional RAM?
A. Slots A2 and A3
B. Slots A2 and B2
C. Slots A2 and B4
D. Slots B2 and B3
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Server A hosts a mission-critical business application. The server has one disk and one NIC. The administrator has
been asked to implement a solution to meet the business requirement that the application must maintain high
availability, even in case of a hardware failure. Which of the following BEST meets this requirement?
A. Configure failover clustering using Server A and a new server.
B. Add multiple disks on the server and configure RAID 5.
C. Add an additional NIC and configure the NIC as standby.
D. Move the application to another server that has more resources.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
A technician is upgrading the memory in a server. The server requires DDR3 Registered DIMMs. The server
hasfourbanks ofthreeslots for memory and currently there is one 2GBmodule in each bank. When the technician
attempts to add eight more 4GB modules of DDR3unbuffered ECC memory,the memory does notfit in the slots. Which
of the following is thecause ofthis issue?
A. In a bank, 2GB and 4GB memory cannot be mixed.
B. The server cannot use ECC memory.
C. The server requires fully buffered memory.
D. The total memory on the server cannot exceed 24GB of RAM.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
A server technician is connecting a server to a switch in the server room. Both the server and the switch are equipped
with 10 Gigabit Ethernet adapters. Which of the following cable choices would produce the BEST throughput?
A. CAT6 rollover cable
B. CAT5e straight-through cable
C. CAT6 straight-through cable
D. CAT5e crossover cable
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
In an effort to reduce recovery time during hardware failures, a server administrator needs to implement a backup
method that will allow for complete OS and service/application recovery as long as compatible hardware is available.
Which of the following backup types meets this requirement?
A. Incremental
B. Bare metal
C. Snapshot
D. Full
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
When attempting to diagnose service access issues between multiple hosts that coordinateinformation, whichof the
followingcan be used to track dependencies?
A. Dataflow diagrams
B. Architecture diagrams
C. Baseline documentation
D. Service manuals
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
A technician wants to implement a grandfather-father-son tape rotation policy. Which of the following implements this
backup strategy?
A. Assign a different set of tapes for daily, weekly, and monthly backups.
B. Use a different set of tapes for every two, four, and eight days.
C. Designate a different set of tapes for odd-day and even-day backups.
D. Use a queue to rotate tapes based on the age and usage of the tape.
Correct Answer: A

We offer more ways to make it easier for everyone to learn, and YouTube is the best tool in the video.Follow channels: https://www.youtube.com/channel/UCTP5RClZrtMxtRkSvIag0DQ/videos get more useful exam content.

Latest CompTIA Server+ SK0-004 YouTube videos:

CompTIA Server+ certified candidates can work in any environment because it is the only vendor-neutral certification covering the major server platforms. It is the only industry certification that covers the latest server technologies including virtualization, security and network-attached storage.

Share 13 of the latest CompTIA Server+ SK0-004 dumps Practice tests for free to help you improve your skills. SK0-004 PDF download Online! Get the full SK0-004 dumps: https://www.pass4itsure.com/sk0-004.html (Q&As: 497 ). Easily pass the exam!

[PDF] Free CompTIA Server+ SK0-004 pdf dumps download from Google Drive: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1dbai1fpFYbbcXxb3mnvpjOwgenlj4ue2

[PDF] Free Full CompTIA pdf dumps download from Google Drive: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1SnVb1WLCtG5umIgtJ4zeNNSpuAFWZ3yg

pass4itsure Promo Code 12% Off

pass4itsure SK0-004 coupon

related: https://www.passcertguide.com/new-lpi-117-202-dumps-lpi-level-2-exam-202/

Latest Microsoft other Certification MS-300 exam dumps, MS-300 Exam Practice Tests | 100% Free

pass4itsure ms-300 dumps

Easily pass the Microsoft other Certification MS-300 exam: “Deploying Microsoft 365 Teamwork”- https://www.pass4itsure.com/ms-300.html (Q&As: 70) Free share the latest MS-300 dumps questions and answers!
Practice the test online! Improve your skills and exam experience!

Download Microsoft other Certification MS-300 PDF Online

[PDF] Free Microsoft MS-300 pdf dumps download from Google Drive: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1R_L1cj_gFkjRDCMNBeEeTA9pNdLvq7OE

[PDF] Free Full Microsoft pdf dumps download from Google Drive: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1gdQrKIsiLyDEsZ24FxsyukNPYmpSUDDO

Valid information provided by Microsoft officials

Exam MS-300: Deploying Microsoft 365 Teamwork (beta): https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-ms-300.aspx

Candidates for this exam are Teamwork Administrators who are responsible for configuring, deploying and managing Office 365 and Azure workloads that focus on efficient and effective collaboration and adoption.
Teamwork Administrators manage apps, services, and supporting infrastructure to meet business requirements. The Teamwork administrator must be able to deploy, manage, migrate, and secure SharePoint (online, on-premises, and hybrid), OneDrive, and Teams.

The Teamwork administrator is involved with decisions regarding governance and works with other administrators to implement many
of the decisions made by governance bodies. The Teamwork administrator collaborates with the Messaging Administrator to configure
options and security related to email tasks, the Voice Administrator to integrate voice capabilities in organizations, and the Security Administrator to ensure an end to end security.

pass4itsure ms-300 Skills measured

Configure and manage SharePoint Online (35-40%)

  • Plan and configure site collections and hub sites
  • Plan and configure customizations and apps
  • Plan and configure managed metadata
  • Plan and configure guest access
  • Manage SharePoint Online
  • Manage search
  • Monitor and maintain the SharePoint Online service

Configure and manage OneDrive for Business (25-30%)

  • Configure and manage OneDrive for Business
  • Manage users and groups
  • Manage sharing and security
  • Manage sync security
  • Monitor and maintain the OneDrive service

Configure and manage Teams (20-25%)

  • Plan and configure Teams settings
  • Plan identity and authentication for Teams
  • Manage the Teams environment
  • Monitor and maintain the Teams service

Configure and manage workload integrations (15-20%)

  • Integrate M365 workloads
  • Manage Yammer capabilities
  • Manage Stream capabilities
  • Integrate M365 workloads with external data and systems

Latest effective Microsoft other Certification MS-300 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
Your company has a Microsoft SharePoint Online subscription.
The company purchases a new add-in for Microsoft Excel.
You need to deploy the add-in to all users.
Solution: From the Microsoft 365 admin center, you deploy the add-in.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription.
You need to prevent all users except for a user named User1 from uploading video to Microsoft Stream channels and
creating Stream channels. User1 must be able to create a channel and upload video to the created channel.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Turn on Restrict companywide channel creation and add User1 as an unrestricted user.
B. Turn on Restrict video uploads and add User1 as an unrestricted user.
C. Turn on Restrict companywide channel creation and add the Office 365 group associated to the channel as an
unrestricted user.
D. Add user1 to the Office 365 group associated to the channel.
E. Turn on Restrict video uploads and add the Office 365 group associated to the channel as an unrestricted user.
Correct Answer: AB
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/stream/restrict-companywide-channels https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/stream/restrict-uploaders

QUESTION 3
You are a Microsoft Teams administrator for your company.
The company creates a new Teams app named App1. A developer packages App1 as a ZIP file.
You need to ensure that App1 can be uploaded as a ZIP package to Teams.
Which Apps setting should you turn on?
A. Allow sideloading of external apps
B. Allow external in Microsoft Teams
C. Enable default apps
D. Enable new external apps by default
Correct Answer: A
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoftteams/admin-settings

QUESTION 4
You work for a Canadian company named Contoso, Ltd.
Contoso has a Microsoft 365 subscription.
Contoso discovers that some users share Canadian Personally Identifiable Information (PII) data with external users.
You need to notify users and administrators when sensitive information is shared with internal or external users.
What should you create?
A. a sensitivity label policy
B. a data governance policy
C. a Microsoft Azure Information Protection policy
D. a data loss prevention (DLP) policy
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription.
You need to add a user named Admin1 as an administrator of the Microsoft OneDrive for the Business site of a user named
User1.
What should you do?
A. Run the Set-SPOSite (site URL) ?owner Admin1 command.
B. From the SharePoint admin center, select user profiles, and then select Manage User Permissions.
C. Add Admin1 to the Site owners group.
D. From the SharePoint admin center, select user profiles, and then select Manage User Profiles. Select User1, and
then select Manage site collection owners.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Your company has a Microsoft SharePoint Online subscription.
The company purchases a new add-in for Microsoft Excel.
You need to deploy the add-in to all users.
Solution: From the App Catalog, you upload the add-in to the SharePoint Add-ins
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
You need to grant an external user guest access to the SharePoint site of the design department. What should you do?
A. From the SharePoint team site, modify the Visitors group.
B. From the SharePoint team site, modify the Members group
C. From Microsoft Outlook, add a member to a group.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
You have a Microsoft SharePoint Online site named Site1.
You are monitoring the usage patterns of the site collection.
What should you use to identify which files were shared with external users?
A. the Data governance dashboard in the Security and Compliance admin center
B. the usage report in the Microsoft 365 admin center
C. Sharing settings in the SharePoint admin center
D. the Site usage page in Site1
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
You are planning the deployment of a Microsoft SharePoint Online site collection.
You need to recommend a solution that provides consistent global navigation across multiple sites within the site
collection. The solution must use a term set for navigation.
Which navigation approach should you include in the recommendation?
A. hub sites
B. structural navigation
C. Quick Launch
D. metadata navigation
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
You need to configure retention for OneDrive. The solution must meet the technical requirements.
How should you complete the command? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:pass4itsure ms-300 exam question q10

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure ms-300 exam question q10-1

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/sharepoint-online/set-spotenant?view=sharepoint-ps

QUESTION 11
Your company has a Microsoft SharePoint Online subscription.
You use a DocumentType term set to tag documents. All existing terms are created in English.
The company opens a new office in Mexico.
You need to ensure that the tags are available in Spanish automatically.
Select and Place:pass4itsure ms-300 exam question q11

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure ms-300 exam question q11-1

QUESTION 12
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription.
SharePoint administrators open several Microsoft support tickets.
You need to view the status of the support tickets.
Solution: From the Microsoft 365 admin center, you select Support, and then you select View service requests.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription.
You need to ensure that users accessing files in Microsoft SharePoint Online from an unmanaged device can only view
the files in a browser.
How should you complete the command? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:pass4itsure ms-300 exam question q13

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure ms-300 exam question q13-1

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sharepoint/control-access-from-unmanaged-devices#limit-access-using-powershell

The latest Microsoft other Certification MS-300 dumps help you get on the ladder of success! Get the latest updates from the MS-300 exam: https://www.pass4itsure.com/ms-300.html (Q&As: 70) For more effective exam dumps, follow me!

Pass4itsure Promo Code 15% Off

pass4itsure ms-300 coupon

Why Choose Pass4itsure?

Pass4itsure is the best provider of IT learning materials and the right choice for you to prepare for the Microsoft MS-300 exam. Other brands started earlier, but the price is relatively expensive and the questions are not the newest. Pass4itsure provides the latest real questions and answers with the lowest prices, helps you pass the MS-300 exam easily at first try.

why pass4itsure

Maybe you might like the exam questions and answers

[New Microsoft Release] Latest Microsoft 70-483 Dumps Visual Studio Exam Questions Actual 70-483 Dumps Youtube Training Will Be More Popular

Do you need Guaranteed Pass4itsure Q&A for 70-483 dumps exam? The Programming in C# (70-483 Visual Studio) exam is a 242 questions assessment in pass4itsure that is associated with the MCP, MCSA certification. Latest Microsoft 70-483 dumps Visual Studio exam questions actual 70-483 dumps Youtube training will be more popular. “Programming in C#” is the exam name of Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-483 dumps test which designed to help candidates prepare for and pass the Microsoft 070-483 exam. Microsoft https://www.pass4itsure.com/70-483.html dumps exam certification with the highest standards of professional and technical information, as the knowledge of experts and scholars to study and research purposes. All of the products we provide have a part of the free trial before you buy to ensure that you fit with this set of data.

[New Microsoft 70-483 Dumps Release From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWQUM2eV9yZ2hMNTQ

[New Microsoft 070-464 Dumps Release From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWY000Mkw0VEZqYWM
070-483 dumps
Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-483 Dumps Training Program Online Here:
QUESTION 18
You are creating a class named Employee. The class exposes a string property named EmployeeType. The following code segment defines the Employee class. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
070-483 dumps
The EmployeeType property value must be accessed and modified only by code within the Employee class or within a class derived from the Employee class. You need to ensure that the implementation of the EmployeeType property meets the requirements. Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer represents part of the complete solution. Choose two.)
A. Replace line 05 with the following code segment: protected get;
B. Replace line 06 with the following code segment: private set;
C. Replace line 03 with the following code segment: public string EmployeeType
D. Replace line 05 with the following code segment: private get;
E. Replace line 03 with the following code segment: protected string EmployeeType
F. Replace line 06 with the following code segment: protected set;
070-483 exam 
Correct Answer: BE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 19
You are implementing a method named Calculate that performs conversions between value types and reference types. The following code segment implements the method. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
070-483 dumps
You need to ensure that the application does not throw exceptions on invalid conversions. Which code segment should you insert at line 04?
A. int balance = (int) (float)amountRef;
B. int balance = (int)amountRef;
C. int balance = amountRef;
D. int balance = (int) (double) amountRef;
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 20
You are creating a console application by using C#. You need to access the application assembly. Which code segment should you use?
A. Assembly.GetAssembly(this);
B. this.GetType();
C. Assembly.Load();
D. Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly();
70-483 dumps
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 21
HOTSPOT
You are implementing a library method that accepts a character parameter and returns a string. If the lookup succeeds, the method must return the corresponding string value. If the lookup fails, the method must return the value “invalid choice.” You need to implement the lookup algorithm. How should you complete the relevant code? (To answer, select the correct keyword in each drop-down list in the answer area.)
Hot Area:
070-483 dumps
Correct Answer:
070-483 dumps
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 22
You use the Task.Run() method to launch a long-running data processing operation. The data processing operation often fails in times of heavy network
congestion. If the data processing operation fails, a second operation must clean up any results of the first operation. You need to ensure that the second operation is invoked only if the data processing operation throws an unhandled exception. What should you do?
A. Create a TaskCompletionSource<T> object and call the TrySetException() method of the object.
B. Create a task by calling the Task.ContinueWith() method.
C. Examine the Task.Status property immediately after the call to the Task.Run() method.
D. Create a task inside the existing Task.Run() method by using the AttachedToParent option.
070-483 pdf 
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 23
You are modifying an application that processes leases. The following code defines the Lease class. (Line numbers are included for reference only.) 070-483 dumps
Leases are restricted to a maximum term of 5 years. The application must send a notification message if a lease request exceeds 5 years. You need to implement the notification mechanism. Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
E. Option E
F. Option F
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 24
What is a benefit of cloud computing over traditional computing?
A. Reduces the time to provision and deploy new applications
B. Eliminates consumer’s IT operational expenditure
C. Enables the use of proprietary APIs to access IT resources
D. Lowers migration cost and prevents vendor lock-in
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Benefits of Cloud Computing
Cloud computing offers the following key benefits: Reduced IT cost: Cloud services can be purchased based on pay-per-use or subscription pricing. This reduces or eliminates consumer’s IT capital expenditure (CAPEX).
Business agility:
Cloud computing provides the capability to allocate and scale computing capacity quickly. Cloud can reduce the time required to provision and deploy new applications and services from months to minutes. This enables businesses to respond more quickly to market changes and reduce time-to-market. Flexible scaling: Cloud computing enables consumers to scale up, scale down, scale out, or scale in the demand for computing resources easily. Consumers can unilaterally and automatically scale computing resources without any interaction with cloud service providers. The flexible service provisioning capability
of cloud often provides a sense of unlimited scalability to the cloud service consumers. High availability: Cloud computing has the ability to ensure resource availability at varying levels depending on the consumer’s policy and priority. Redundant infrastructure components (servers, network paths, and storage equipment, along with clustered software) enable fault tolerance for cloud deployments. These techniques can encompass multiple data centers located in different geographic regions, which prevents data unavailability due to regional failures. EMC E10-001 Student Resource Guide. Module 13: Cloud Computing
QUESTION 25
Which statement describes a denial of service attack?
A. Prevents authorized users from accessing the resources and services
B. Prohibits attempts to repair the resources and services after an attack
C. Attempts to provide false information by impersonating someone’s identity
D. Prevents unauthorized users to access the resources and services
070-483 vce 
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Threats are the potential attacks that can be carried out on an IT infrastructure. These attacks can be classified as active or passive. Passive attacks are attempts to gain unauthorized access into the system. They pose threats to confidentiality of information. Active attacks include data modification, denial of service (DoS), and repudiation attacks. They pose threats to data integrity, availability, and accountability. In a data modification attack, the unauthorized user attempts to modify information for malicious purposes. A modification attack can target the data at rest or the data in transit. These attacks pose a threat to data integrity. Denial of service (DoS) attacks prevent legitimate users from accessing resources and services. These attacks generally do not involve access to or modification of information. Instead, they pose a threat to data availability. The intentional flooding of a network or website to prevent
legitimate access to authorized users is one example of a DoS attack. Repudiation is an attack against the accountability of information. It attempts to provide false information by either impersonating someone’s identity or denying that an event or a transaction has taken place. For example, a repudiation attack may involve performing an action and eliminating any evidence that could prove the identity of the user (attacker) who performed that action. Repudiation attacks include circumventing the logging of security events or tampering with the security log to conceal the identity of the attacker.
QUESTION 26
What is a key benefit of virtualization?
A. Improved resource utilization
B. Improved performance
C. Enhanced interoperability
D. Unlimited resource scaling
070-483 exam 
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 27
What is an accurate statement about the Data Center Bridging Exchange protocol?
A. Enables Converged Enhanced Ethernet (CEE) devices to convey and configure their features with other CEE devices
B. Creates virtual FCoE links over an existing Ethernet network to transport FC frames over virtual links independently
C. Enables an FCoE switch to send signals to other FCoE switches that need to stop or slow down their transmissions
D. Enables an FCoE switch to transport both TCP/IP and FC frames over a single virtual FCoE link
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Data Center Brdiging Exchange Protocol (DCBX)
DCBX protocol is a discovery and capability exchange protocol, which helps Converged Enhanced Ethernet devices to convey and configure their features with the other CEE devices in the network. DCBX is used to negotiate capabilities between the switches and the adapters, and it allows the switch to distribute the configuration values to all the attached adapters. This helps to ensure consistent configuration across the entire network.
QUESTION 28
What is a key security consideration when a NAS device enables sharing of the same data among UNIX and Microsoft Windows users?
A. NAS device must map UNIX permissions to Windows and vice versa
B. NAS defines and maintains ownership to the objects
C. NIS server must separately maintain SIDs for UNIX and Windows environments
D. Object permissions are not defined in advance and assigned dynamically
70-483 dumps
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

Explanation:
Authorization defines user privileges in a network. The authorization techniques for UNIX users and Windows users are quite different. UNIX files use mode bits to define access rights granted to owners, groups, and other users, whereas Windows uses an ACL to allow or deny specific rights to a particular
user for a particular file. Although NAS devices support both of these methodologies for UNIX and Windows users, complexities arise when UNIX and Windows users access and share the same data. If the NAS device supports multiple protocols, the integrity of both permission methodologies must be
maintained. NAS device vendors provide a method of mapping UNIX permissions to Windows and vice versa, so a multiprotocol environment can be supported.

QUESTION 29 An attacker finds a web page for a target organization that supplies contact information for the company. Using available details to make the message seem authentic, the attacker drafts e-mail to an employee on the contact page that appears to come from an individual who might reasonably request confidential information, such as a network administrator. The email asks the employee to log into a bogus page that requests the employee’s user name and password or click on a link that will download spyware or other malicious programming. Google’s Gmail was hacked using this technique and attackers stole source code and sensitive data from Google servers. This is highly sophisticated attack using zero-day exploit vectors, social engineering and malware websites that focused on targeted individuals working for the company. What is this deadly attack called?
A. Spear phishing attack
B. Trojan server attack
C. Javelin attack
D. Social networking attack
Answer: A
QUESTION 30 Vulnerability scanners are automated tools that are used to identify vulnerabilities and misconfigurations of hosts. They also provide information regarding mitigating discovered vulnerabilities. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

A. Vulnerability scanners attempt to identify vulnerabilities in the hosts scanned.
B. Vulnerability scanners can help identify out-of-date software versions, missing patches, or system upgrades
C. They can validate compliance with or deviations from the organization’s security policy
D. Vulnerability scanners can identify weakness and automatically fix and patch the vulnerabilities without user intervention
070-483 pdf 
Answer: D
QUESTION 31 How does traceroute map the route a packet travels from point A to point B?
A. Uses a TCP timestamp packet that will elicit a time exceeded in transit message
B. Manipulates the value of the time to live (TTL) within packet to elicit a time exceeded in transit message
C. Uses a protocol that will be rejected by gateways on its way to the destination
D. Manipulates the flags within packets to force gateways into generating error messages
Answer: B
QUESTION 32 How do you defend against DHCP Starvation attack?

A. Enable ARP-Block on the switch
B. Enable DHCP snooping on the switch
C. Configure DHCP-BLOCK to 1 on the switch
D. Install DHCP filters on the switch to block this attack
Answer: B
QUESTION 33 What type of session hijacking attack is shown in the exhibit?
A. Cross-site scripting Attack
B. SQL Injection Attack
C. Token sniffing Attack
D. Session Fixation Attack
070-483 vce 
Answer: D
070-483 dumps

If you want to buy Microsoft 070-483 dumps exam information, Pass4itsure will provide the best service and the best quality products. “Programming in C#”, also known as 070-483 exam, is a Microsoft certification which covers all the knowledge points of the real Microsoft exam. Pass4itsure Microsoft 070-483 dumps exam questions answers are updated (242 Q&As) are verified by experts. The associated certifications of 070-483 dumps is MCP, MCSA. Our exam questions have been authorized by the manufacturers and third-party. And has a large number of IT industry professionals and technology experts, based on customer demand, according to the the outline developed a range of https://www.pass4itsure.com/70-483.html dumps to meet customer needs.

Read More Youtube: https://youtu.be/Ob2iBGBBlN8

[New Microsoft Release] High Pass Rate Microsoft 70-463 Dumps Exam Video Actual Questions Is What You Need To Take

Would you like to distinguish Microsoft 70-463 dumps in IT industry? The Implementing a Data Warehouse with Microsoft SQL Server 2012 (70-463 SQL Server) exam is a 230 questions assessment in pass4itsure that is associated with the Microsoft SQL Server 2012 certification. When you choose to participate in 70-413 dumps, you are proved to be an active person who wants better development opportunities for yourself. “Implementing a Data Warehouse with Microsoft SQL Server 2012” is the exam name of Pass4itsure Microsoft 070-463 dumps test which designed to help candidates prepare for and pass the Microsoft 070-463 exam. Our Pass4itsure is willing to help those active people like you to achieve their goals. The most comprehensive and latest 70-413 dumps provided by us can meet all your need to prepare for https://www.pass4itsure.com/70-463.html exam dumps.

[New Microsoft 70-463 Dumps Release From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWanJic19DTmpWLUU

[New Microsoft 70-464 Dumps Release From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWY000Mkw0VEZqYWM
070-463 dumps
Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-463 Dumps Training Program Online Here:
QUESTION NO: 32
As a user moves through the authentication process, which of the following is not used in a derivation rule?
A. MAC address
B. OS version
C. SSID
D. Radius attribute
070-463 exam 
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 33
Other than a user role, what attribute can be applied to a user with a derivation rule?
A. SSID
B. MAC
C. VLAN
D. IP Address
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 34
Which is an Aruba specific DSA that can be used in a user derivation rule?
A. user login name
B. authentication server
C. location
D. controller Loopback address
70-463 dumps 
Answer: C
Question No : 35 – (Topic 1)  You are developing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package to load data into a 
data warehouse.
070-463 dumps
You need to establish the correct order for loading each table to maximize parallel processing. Which order should you use?
A.
1. DimCurrency, DimScenario, DimAccount in parallel
2. DimOrganization
3. FactFinance
B.
C.
DimCurrency, DimOrganization in parallel
2. DimScenario, DimAccount in parallel
3. FactFinance
D.
1. DimCurrency, FactFinance in parallel
2. DimOrganization, DimScenario, DimAccount in parallel
E.
1. FactFinance
2. DimOrganization, DimScenario, DimAccount in parallel
3. DimCurrency
F.
1. DimCurrency
2. DimOrganization
3. DimScenario, DimAccount in parallel
4. FactFinance
Answer: A
Explanation: References:
Question No : 36 – (Topic 1) You are designing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package that uploads a file to a table named Orders in a SQL Azure database. The company’s auditing policies have the following requirements: An entry must be written to a dedicated SQL Server log table named OrderLog. The entry must be written as soon as the file upload task completes. You need to meet the company’s policy requirements. Which event handler should you use?
A. OnPostExecute
B. OnWarning
C. OnExecStatusChanged
D. OnVariableValueChanged
070-463 pdf 
Answer: A
Question No : 37 – (Topic 1)  You are editing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package that contains three Execute SQL tasks and no other tasks. The package and all three Execute SQL tasks have their TransactionOption property set to Supported. You need to ensure that if any of the Execute SQL tasks fail, all three tasks will roll back their changes. What should you do?
A. Move the three Execute SQL tasks into a Sequence container.
B. Move the three Execute SQL tasks into a Foreach Loop container.
C. Change the TransactionOption property of all three Execute SQL tasks to Required.
D. Change the TransactionOption property of the package to Required.
Answer: D
Reference:
Question No : 38 DRAG DROP – (Topic 1)
You are developing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package. The package uses custom functionality that accesses a SQL Server database. The custom functionality must be implemented by using Language Integrated Query (LINQ). You need to ensure that the LINQ code can be debugged at design time. What should you select from the SSIS Toolbox? (To answer, drag the appropriate item to the correct location in the answer area.)
070-463 dumps
Question No : 39 DRAG DROP – (Topic 1)  You are designing an extract, transform, load (ETL) process with SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS). Two packages, Package A and Package B, will be designed. Package A will execute Package B. Both packages must reference a file path corresponding to an input folder where files will be located for further processing. You need to design a solution so that the file path can be easily configured with the least administrative and development effort. Which four actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)
070-463 dumps
Question No : 40 – (Topic 1)  You are creating a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package that implements a Type 3 Slowly Changing Dimension (SCD). You need to add a task or component to the package that allows you to implement the SCD logic. What should you use?
A. a Script component
B. an SCD component
C. an Aggregate component
D. a Merge component
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 41
Which match condition can be used by a server derivation rule?
A. greater than
B. less than
C. inverse of
D. contains
070-463 exam 
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 42
Where are Aruba Vendor Specific Attributes (VSA) programmed?
A. controller
B. client
C. authentication server
D. Internal user database
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 43
View the Server group screen shot above.
A company has provisioned the same VAP, AAA and SSID profiles at both its Miami and NY offices. This Server Group is applied for 802.1x authentication at both locations. The user’s credentials are only found in the Miami Radius server “RadiusMiami”. There is no Radius synchronization. What happens when the user attempts to authenticate?

A. The controller recognizes the users Domain and sends the authentication request directly to RadiusMiami.
B. The request is initially sent to RadiusNY1 then RadiusNY1 redirects, the controller, to send the authentication request to RadiusMiami
C. RadiusNY1 receives the request and returns a deny. No other action is taken.
D. RadiusNY1 receives the request and returns a deny. The authentications request will then be sent to RadiusMiami.
70-463 dumps 
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 44
View the Server group and User Roles screen shots above. A user associated to an SSID with 802.1x using this server group. RadiusNY returned a standard radius attribute of filter-Id with a value of “employee”. The user was placed in the guest Role. What statements below are correct?
A. The user was placed in the 802.1x authentication default Role guest
B. The user was placed in the initial Role guest
C. Role derivation failed because roles are case sensitive
D. Role derivation failed because the incorrect operation “value-of” was used
E. 802.1x authentication failed so the user was automatically placed in the guest Role
Answer: A,C
QUESTION NO: 45
View the Server group and User Roles screen shots above. A user associated to an SSID with 802.1x using this server group. RadiusNY returned a standard radius attribute of filter-Id with a value of “employee”. What Role will the user get?
A. The User will get the Emp Role
B. The user will get the 802.1x authentication default Role
C. The User will get the employee Role
D. The User will get the Employee Role
E. The User will get the initial Role
070-463 pdf 
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 46
Which profiles are required in an AP Group to enable an SSID with VLAN 1, WPA2 and LMSIP?
A. Virtual-ap
ap mesh-radio-profile
ap system profile
B. Wlan ssid-profile
ap-system-profile
virtual-ap profile
C. Virtual-ap profile
ap-system profile
aaa profile
D. 802.1X authentication profile
wlan ssid-profile
virtual-ap profile
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 47
A user connected to a Captive Portal VAP successfully. When the user opens their browser and tries to access their homepage, they get redirected as expected to another URL on the Aruba Controller. However, they see an error message that web authentication has been disabled. What might be a cause of this?
A. The Captive portal profile has not been assigned to the initial role B.
The Captive portal profile has not been assigned to the AAA profile C.
A server group has not been assigned to the captive portal profile D.
An initial role has not been assigned to the AAA profile
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 48
A customer has configured a 3000 controller with the following commands:
Vlan 55
Vlan 56
Vlan 57
Interface gigabitethernet 1/0
switchport mode trunk
switchport trunk native vlan 55
switchport trunk allowed vlan 55-57
Which of the following sentences best describes this port?
A. All traffic in vlan 55 will be dropped and all traffic in vlan 56 and 57 will be trunked with and 802.1Q tag
B. All traffic in vlan 55, 56 and 57 will be trunked with an 802.1Q tag
C. All traffic in vlan 55 will be sent with an 802.1Q tag while vlan 56 and 57 traffic will be trunked untagged
D. All traffic in vlan 56 and 57 will be sent with an 802.1Q tag while vlan 55 traffic will be trunked untagged
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 49
A customer has a remote AP deployment, where each remote AP has an IPSEC VPN tunnel with L2TP to the controller. 1 of the remote APs is stuck in the user table and hasn’t yet transitioned to the AP active table in the controller. The customer suspects that the AP is not setting up its VPN connection successfully. Which of the following commands might be useful in troubleshooting this? Select all that apply.
A. Logging level debugging security process localdb
B. Logging level debugging security process l2tp
C. Logging level debugging security process dot1x
D. Logging level debugging security process crypto
070-463 exam 
Answer: A,B,D
QUESTION NO: 50
The screen captures above show the 802.1X authentication profile and AAA profile settings for a VAP.  If machine authentication passes and user authentication passes, which role will be assigned?
A. employee
B. guest
C. contractor
D. logon
E. you can’t tell
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 51
The screen captures above show the 802.1X authentication profile and AAA profile settings for a VAP. If machine authentication fails and user authentication fails, which role will be assigned?
A. employee
B. guest
C. contractor
D. Captive Portal
E. Logon
F. no role will be assigned
70-463 dumps 
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 52
What cannot be configured from the Initial Configuration wizards?
A. Controller name.
B. Syslog server and levels.
C. User firewall policy.
D. User derivation rules.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 53
When you create a WLAN SSID in the WLAN/LAN wizard what AP group is it automatically added to?
A. The air-monitors group
B. The first configured AP group
C. The Default AP group
D. It is only added to the ‘All Profiles’ section
070-463 pdf 
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 54
The reusable wizards are accessible in which one of the following ways?
A. On startup through the CLI
B. Through the CLI, after the initial CLI wizard has been completed
C. In the Web UI under maintenance.
D. In the Web UI under configuration.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 55
What additional fields must be configured in the configuration wizard if the controller role is selected as a local instead of a standalone controller?
A. The Local’s SNMPv3 user name and password
B. The Master IP address
C. The Local’s loopback address
D. The IPSec PSK for Master/Local communication
Answer: B,D
QUESTION NO: 56
The configuration wizard enables which of the following controller clock configurations?
A. NTP to a time server
B. Manually setting the date time
C. Daylight savings time
D. Only GMT can be configured
Answer: A,B
QUESTION NO: 57
When configuring ports in the configuration wizard, which of the following are not options for configuration?
A. Inter-VLAN routing
B. Source NAT
C. Trusted
D. LACP
070-463 exam 
Answer: A,B,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 58
What Wizards can be used to create a new AP Group?
A. AP Wizard
B. Controller Wizard
C. WLAN/LAN Wizard
D. License Wizard
E. AP configurations Wizard
Answer: A,C
QUESTION NO: 59
By default, which CLI based remote access method is enabled on Aruba controllers?
A. rsh
B. Telnet
C. SSH
D. Telnet and SSH
E. Telnet, SSH and rsh
70-463 dumps 
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 60
An Aruba controller can be configured to support which CLI based remote access methods?
A. RSH
B. Telnet
C. SSH
D. Telnet and SSH
E. SSH and RSH
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 61
The Aruba controller’s Command Line Interface can be accessed from WITHIN the browser based Web User Interface using which method?
A. It’s not possible to access the CLI from within the WebUI
B. Embedded Telnet client
C. Java based SSH client
D. Proprietary serial over Ethernet client
070-463 pdf 
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 62
As an admin/root user, what other types of role-based management users can be created on Aruba controllers? (Choose all the correct answers)
A. Auditing-compliance user
B. Read only user
C. Location-api-management user
D. Guest provisioning user
Answer: B,C,D
070-463 dumps

This age changes quickly, so we can’t be passively, we should be actively to follow the age. “Implementing a Data Warehouse with Microsoft SQL Server 2012”, also known as 70-463 exam, is a Microsoft certification which covers all the knowledge points of the real Microsoft exam. High pass Rate Microsoft 70-463 dumps exam video actual questions is what you need to take. Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-463 dumps exam questions answers are updated (230 Q&As) are verified by experts. The associated certifications of 70-463 dumps is Microsoft SQL Server 2012. Every version of Microsoft 70-463 dumps questions that we provide to you has its own advantage: the PDF version has no equipment limited, which can be read anywhere; the online version can use on any electronic equipment there is the network available; the software version can simulate the real Microsoft https://www.pass4itsure.com/70-463.html dumps questions to let you have more real feeling to Microsoft 070-463 dumps questions, besides the software version can be available installed on unlimited number devices.

Read More Youtube:  https://youtu.be/0-Bp7XVTi04