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What should you know? Microsoft MTA 98-365 Exam

  • Understanding server installation (10–15%)
  • Understanding server roles (25–30%)
  • Understanding Active Directory (20–25%)
  • Understanding storage (10–15%)
  • Understanding server performance management (10–15%)
  • Understanding server maintenance (15–20%)

Candidates should have some hands-on experience with Windows Server, Windows-based networking, Active Directory, account management, and system recovery tools and concepts.

See details
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Questions & Answers for Microsoft 98-365 Online

Online: Showing 1-13 Questions

QUESTION 1
You need to manage a Windows Server 2016 server from a Windows client computer by using a Management Console.
What should you install on the client computer?
A. Remote Assistance
B. Remote Server Administration Tools
C. Windows Server Resource Kit
D. Microsoft Office SharePoint Server
Correct Answer: B
Example: Remote Server Administration Tools for Windows 8.1 enables IT administrators to manage roles and features
that are installed on computers that are running Windows Server 2012 or Windows Server 2012 R2 from a remote
computer that is running Windows 8.1 Pro or Windows 8.1 Enterprise.

QUESTION 2
You work as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. The company has a Windows Server 2016 Active Directorybased network. The company has three departments named Sales, Purchase, and Marketing.
You are required to create organizational units (OU) structure for each department in the network.
Which of the following are the reasons for defining an OU? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.
Choose all that apply.
A. To delegate administration.
B. To administer domain controllers.
C. To hide objects.
D. To administer group policy.
Correct Answer: ACD
Organizational units (OUs) are defined to delegate administration, to administer group policy, or to hide objects.
Delegating administration is the prime reason for defining OUs.

QUESTION 3
Which of the following master roles is used for synchronizing cross-domain group membership changes?
A. Domain Naming Master role
B. Infrastructure Master role
C. Schema Master role
D. RID Master role
Correct Answer: B
The Infrastructure Master role is used for synchronizing cross-domain group membership changes. Incorrect Answers:
A: The Domain Naming Master role is used for controlling the addition and removal of domains from the forest if they
are present in the root domain.
C: The Schema Master role is used for controlling and handling updates and modifications to the Active Directory
schema.
D: The RID Master role is used for allocating pools of unique identifiers to domain controllers for use when creating
objects.

QUESTION 4
You work as a Server Administrator for company Inc. The company has a Windows Server 2016 network environment.
All client computers on the network run the Windows 10 Pro operating system. All servers of the company run Windows
Server 2016.
You want to create a VHD file on Windows Server 2016 in order to specify a virtual machine hard disk.
Which of the following tools will you use to accomplish the task? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.
(Choose two.)
A. DiskPart
B. Disk Management MMC snap-in
C. FDISK
D. BCDEdit
Correct Answer: AB
In order to accomplish the task, you should use the DiskPart and Disk Management MMC snap-in tools. These tools
help create a VHD file on Windows Server 2016 for specifying a virtual machine hard disk.

QUESTION 5
You maintain backup schedules for a Windows Server 2016 server. Some users store vital information on their local
hard drives.
You need to include the users\\’ data when you perform nightly backups of the server.
Which built-in process should you use?
A. Agent backup
B. Folder redirection
C. Local backup schedules
D. System state data backup
Correct Answer: B
Use folder redirection to store the vital information on a network share instead. Then it will be easy to backup this data.
Note: Folder Redirection lets administrators redirect the path of a folder to a new location. The location can be a folder
on the local computer or a directory on a network file share. Users can work with documents on a server as if the
documents were based on a local drive.
References: Folder Redirection Overview https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc732275.aspx

QUESTION 6
You work as a Server Administrator for company Inc. You are responsible for troubleshooting various issues that come
in on a day-to-day basis from the local and remote locations.
Which of the following tools will you use to determine the time and type of the problem occurred in a particular system?
A. Task Manager
B. Performance Monitor
C. Event Viewer
D. Resource Monitor
Correct Answer: C
In order to determine the time and type of the problem occurred in a particular system, you should use the Event
Viewer.
The Event Viewer allows checking of the log of multiple servers.
Diagnostic logging helps in figuring out problems on several servers (with the databases on those servers), and for the
diagnostic logging, the user can view event logs with the Event Viewer in Windows or the Web Event Viewer in
SharePoint
Central Administration.
Incorrect Answers:
A: A task manager is a program used to provide information about the processes and programs running on a computer,
as well as the general status of the computer. It can also be used to terminate processes and programs, as well as
change the processes priority. The task manager is most commonly accessed by pressing the buttons Control-AltDelete. Task manager also displays all the services that are currently running as well as those that were stopped. All
information\\’s about the services such as Process ID and their group if they are applicable.
B: Performance Monitor is a Windows tool that monitors system and network resources. It is used to get statistical data
about hardware and software components of a server.
D: Resource Monitor is a suite of administration tools designed to provide a quick overview of a single user interface. It
acts as a mediator between the Cluster service and the resource dynamic link library. It can be launched from the start menu or from the Task Manager using the Performance tab. Resource Monitor can be accessed by searching in the
Reliability and Performance monitor.

QUESTION 7
Which of the following alerts gets generated when any server or client computer in the network has low disk space,
which is less than 10% available across all volumes?
A. Network Services Alerts
B. Server Event Log Alerts
C. User Performance Alerts
D. Performance Counter Alerts
Correct Answer: D
Performance Counter Alerts is generated by default when any server or client computer in the network has low disk
space, which is less than 10% available across all volumes.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Network Services Alerts is generated by default when Windows monitors network services that are set to start
automatically, and then it generates an alert if the service stops. These services are critical to the functioning of the
network.
B: Server Event Log Alerts gets generated when Windows monitors a specific set of events across the event logs. If any
of the events are detected, an alert is generated and displayed in the Other Alerts section of the reports.
C: There is no such alert as User Performance alerts in Windows.

QUESTION 8
Which of the following represents the primary function of a server?
A. To provide the server role in the organization\\’s network.
B. To provide client access to the organization\\’s network.
C. To provide services to client computers on the organization\\’s network.
D. To prevent unauthorized access to the organization\\’s network.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
You need to assign permissions to access resources. Which type of group should you use?
A. Workgroup
B. Security group
C. Organizational group
D. Distribution group
Correct Answer: B
Security groups control access to the Workgroup server\\’s functionality.

QUESTION 10
Which of the following tools will you use to quickly diagnose potential causes of instability of your system so that you
can apply updates in a targeted manner, rather than attempting a reconfiguration after the occurrence of unexpected
changes in system behavior?
A. Server Manager
B. Task Manager
C. Windows Server Update Services
D. Windows Reliability and Performance Monitor
Correct Answer: D
You should use Windows Reliability and Performance Monitor to quickly diagnose potential causes of instability of your
system so that you can apply updates in a targeted manner, rather than attempting a reconfiguration after the
occurrence of unexpected changes in system behavior. Reliability Monitor tracks the system\\’s reliability over time and
shows events that could potentially compromise that reliability.

QUESTION 11
Which of the following statements are true about a device driver? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.
Choose all that apply.
A. Device drivers are software-dependent and do not depend on operating systems.
B. It allows higher-level computer programs to interact with a hardware device.
C. It is a program or software that controls a particular device.
D. It works as a translator between the device and the operating system and programs that use the device.
Correct Answer: BCD
A device driver is a program or software that controls a particular device. It works as a translator between the device
and the operating system and programs that use the device. It provides an interface between a hardware device and
operating systems and application software.
It allows higher-level computer programs to interact with a hardware device. When an application needs data from a
device, it requests the data from OS, which in turn, send a command request to the device driver. Drivers are hardware-dependent and operating-system-specific. They usually provide the interrupt handling required for any necessary
asynchronous time-dependent hardware interface.

QUESTION 12
Which of the following types of resource record is generally used with virtual servers that point to several servers
offering network load balancing to distribute work?
A. MX
B. SRV
C. SOA
D. CNAME
Correct Answer: D
CNAME (canonical name) is a resource record that creates an alias or an alternate DNS domain name for a specific
hostname. This resource record is generally used with virtual servers that point to several servers that offer network
load balancing in order to distribute work.
Incorrect Answers:
A: MX (mail exchanger) is used to specify which mail exchanger to contact for a specified domain and in what order to
use each mail host.
B: SRV (service) locates servers that are hosting a particular service, including LDAP servers or domain controllers.
C: SOA (Start of Authority) identifies the name server that is the authoritative source of information for a DNS domain or
zone.

QUESTION 13
What are two functions of the Group Policy loopback feature? (Choose two.)
A. Apply Group Policy Objects for only the current site.
B. Apply Group Policy Objects that depend only on the computer the user logs on to.
C. Apply only the local computer Group Policy Object.
D. Give higher precedence to computer policy over user policy.
Correct Answer: BD
Loopback processing of Group Policy has two different modes, Replace and Merge. References:
http://kudratsapaev.blogspot.se/2009/07/loopback-processing-of-group-policy.html

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Cisco 300-135 Online Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
Drag the GRE tunnel state from the left onto its corresponding scenario on the right.
Select and Place:pass4itsure 300-135 exam question q1

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure 300-135 exam question q1-1

 

QUESTION 2
You examine the port statistics on a Cisco Catalyst switch and notice an excessive number of frames are being
dropped. Which of the following are possible reasons for the drops?
A. Unknown destination MAC address
B. Bad cabling
C. MAC forwarding table is full
D. Port configured for half duplex
E. Port configured for full duplex
F. Network congestion
Correct Answer: BF

 

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit. Which command will allow the administrator to log in using the device database authentication?pass4itsure 300-135 exam question q3

A. aaa authentication login default local
B. aaa authorization network default local
C. aaa authentication login default enable
D. aaa authorization exec default local
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 4
What is the result if you configure two devices with the ntp server command?
A. Nothing will happen until one of the devices is configured with the prefer parameter.
B. The NTP protocol will determine which server is most reliable and will synchronize to that server.
C. The device with the highest priority will become the active server and the other device will become the backup
server.
D. The device with the lowest MAC address will become the active server and the other device will become the backup
server.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 5
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a ‘proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client
2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241.
After several changes to the network addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity,
FHRP services, and device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the
209.65.200.241 address.
Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
On which device is the fault condition located?
A. R1
B. R2
C. R3
D. R4
E. DSW1
F. DSW2
G. ASW1
H. ASW2
Correct Answer: D
On R4, in the redistribution of EIGRP routing protocol, we need to change name of routemap to resolve the issue. It
references route-map OSPF_to_EIGRP but the actual route map is called OSPF->EIGRP. Since Client 1 is able to ping
the near-end interface of the router R4 but not the far-end interface, we can be reasonably certain that the fault
condition is with R4.

 

QUESTION 6
The implementation group has been using the test bed to do an IPv6 \\’proof-ofconcept1.
After several changes to the network addressing and routing schemes, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that
the loopback address on R1 (2026::111:1) is not able to ping the loopback address on DSW2 (2026::102:1).
The fault condition is related to which technology?
A. NTP
B. IP DHCP Server
C. IPv4 OSPF Routing
D. IPv4 EIGRP Routing
E. IPv4 Route Redistribution
F. IPv6 RIP Routing
G. IPv6 OSPF Routing
H. IPV4 and IPV6 Interoperability
I. IPv4 layer 3 security
Correct Answer: G
As explained earlier, the problem is with route redistribution on R4 of not redistributing RIP routes into OSPF for IPV6.

 

QUESTION 7
Configuration on R1 interface Serial0/0/1 description Link to ISP ip address 209.65.200.224 255.255.255.252 ip nat
outside ip access-group edge_security in ! ip access-list extended edge_security deny ip 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 any
deny ip 172.16.0.0 0.15.255.255 any deny ip 192.168.0.0 0.0.255.255 any deny 127.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 any permit ip
host 209.65.200.241 any !
What is the solution of the fault condition?
A. add permit ip 209.65.200.224 0.0.0.3 any command to R1s ACL
B. Under the BGP process, bgp confederation identifier 65001 command
C. Delete the current BGP process and reenter all of the commands using 65002 as the AS number.
D. Under the BGP process, delete the neighbor 209.56.200.226 remote-as 65002 command enter the neighbor
209.65.200.226 remote-as 65002 command.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 8
Output showing line VTY 0 4 config with an access list applied `ip access-class 1 in\\’
ip access list permit tcp any any eq 22 ip access list permit tcp any any telnet Cisco engineer is trying to setup secure
access to the router but why is SSH failing?
A. access-list needs to be applied with access-group command.
B. access-list only allows telnet access.
C. They\\’re needed to be transport input ssh on line vty 0 4
D. https://www.pass4itsure.com/300-125.html
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 9
What is the ping response to a transmitted echo that needed to be fragmented and fragmentation was not allowed?
A. U
B. M
C. …
D. D
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit.pass4itsure 300-135 exam question q10

PC was not configured to obtain default-gateway from the DHCP server. What can we do for PC to access the Internet?
A. Configure static ARP in gateway router
B. Configure dynamic ARP in gateway router
C. Configure proxy-ARP in gateway router
D. https://www.pass4itsure.com/300-135.html
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 11
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a ‘proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client
2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241.
After several changes to the network addressing, routing schemes, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity,
FHRP services, and device security, a trouble ticket has been opened DSW1 will not become the active router for
HSRP
group 10.
Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
What is the solution to the fault condition?
A. Under the interface vlan 10 configuration enter standby 10 preempt command.
B. Under the track 1 object configuration delete the threshold metric up 1 down 2 command and enter the threshold
metric up 61 down 62 command.
C. Under the track 10 object configuration delete the threshold metric up 61 down 62 command and enter the threshold
metric up 1 down 2 command.
D. Under the interface vlan 10 configuration delete the standby 10 track1 decrement 60 command and enter the standby
10 track 10 decrement 60 command.
Correct Answer: D
On DSW1, related to HSRP, under VLAN 10 change the given track 1 command to instead use the track 10 command.
The reason that router DSW1 will not become the active router is because it is configured to track the 10.1.21.128
255.255.0.0 network. It should have been configured to track the 10.2.21.128 255.255.255.0 network. This can be fixed
by
replacing the Change “standby 10 track 1 decrement 60” command with the “standby 10 track 10 decrement 60”
command.

 

QUESTION 12
If you want to use GRE with IPSec which is compatible with NAT traversal?
A. MD5 mode
B. SHA mode
C. IPsec tunnel mode
D. tunnel transport
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 13
—Output from config–service password-encryption ! line console password a123124 ! line vty 0 4 password asdfasf12
login transport input telnet ! What will happen if client A will telnet to this device.
A. Telnet will be successful
B. Telnet will fail because of missing user database
C. Telnet will fail because of missing aaa new model
D. Telnet will fail because only ssh is allowed
Correct Answer: A

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Cisco 300-101 Online Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
A network administrator notices that the BGP state drops and logs are generated for missing BGP hello keepalives.
What is the potential problem?
A. Incorrect neighbor options
B. Hello timer mismatch
C. BGP path MTU enabled
D. MTU mismatch
Correct Answer: D
BGP neighbors form; however, at the time of prefix exchange, the BGP state drops and the logs generate missing BGP
hello keepalives or the other peer terminates the session.
Here are some possible causes:
*The interface MTU on both routers do not match.
*The interface MTU on both routers match, but the Layer 2 domain over which the BGP session is formed does not
match.
*Path MTU discovery determined the incorrect max datasize for the TCP BGP session. *The BGP Path Maximum
Transmission Unit Discovery (PMTUD) could be failing due to PMTUD ICMP packets blocked (firewal or ACL) http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/border-gateway-protocol-bgp/116377-troubleshoot-bgp-mtu.html

 

QUESTION 2
What are two protocols used for user with authentication on network device? (OR)
What are two options for authenticating a user who is attempting to access a network device?(Choose two)
A. CHAP
B. Radius
C. 802.1x
D. PAP
E. TACACS+
Correct Answer: BE

 

QUESTION 3
You have a router has some interface configured with 10Gb interface and giga interface. Which command you use to
optimize higher BW ?
A. (config)#router ospf 1 (config-router)auto-cost reference-bandwidth 10000
B. (config)#router ospf 1 (config-router)auto-cost reference-bandwidth 1000
C. (config)#int f0/0 (config-int)auto-cost reference-bandwidth 1000
D. (config)#int f0/0 (config-int)auto-cost reference-bandwidth 10000
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 4
Which two protocols are used to deploy a single Hub-DMVPN supporting Spoke-to Spoke tunnels? (Choose Two)
A. MPLS
B. RSVP
C. NHRP
D. BFB
E. Multipoint GR
Correct Answer: CE

 

QUESTION 5
Which two actions are common methods for migrating a network from one protocol to another? (Choose two)
A. redistributing routes from the current routing protocol to the new routing protocol
B. removing the current routing protocol and implementing the new routing protocol
C. changing the relative administrative distances of the two routing protocols
D. changing the network IP addresses and bringing up the new IP addresses using the new routing protocol
E. disabling IP routing globally and implementing the new routing protocol
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 6
Which feature is supported with stateful NAT64 ?
A. IP multicast
B. NAT44 and NAT64 on the same interface
C. VRF
D. FTP and ICMP on an application layer gateway
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit. Which command would verify if PBR reacts to packets sourced from 172.16.0.0/16?pass4itsure 300-101 exam question q7

A. show ip route
B. show policy-map
C. show access-lists
D. show route-map
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 8
An organization decides to implement NetFlow on its network to monitor the fluctuation of traffic that is disrupting core
services. After reviewing the output of NetFlow, the network engineer is unable to see OUT traffic on the interfaces.
What can you determine based on this information?
A. Cisco Express Forwarding has not been configured globally.
B. NetFlow output has been filtered by default.
C. Flow Export version 9 is in use.
D. The command ip flow-capture fragment-offset has been enabled.
Correct Answer: A
We came across a recent issue where a user setup a router for NetFlow export but was unable to see the OUT traffic for
the interfaces in NetFlow Analyzer. Every NetFlow configuration aspect was checked and nothing incorrect was found.
That is when we noticed the `no ip cef\\’ command on the router. CEF was enabled at the global level and within
seconds, NetFlow Analyzer started showing OUT traffic for the interfaces. This is why this topic is about Cisco Express
Forwarding.
What is switching?
A Router must make decisions about where to forward the packets passing through. This decision-making process is
called “switching”. Switching is what a router does when it makes the following decisions:
1.
Whether to forward or not forward the packets after checking that the destination for the packet is reachable.
2.
If the destination is reachable, what is the next hop of the router and which interface will the router use to
get to that destination.
What is CEF?
CEF is one of the available switching options for Cisco routers. Based on the routing table, CEF creates its own table,
called the Forwarding Information Base (FIB). The FIB is organized differently than the routing table and CEF uses the
FIB
to decide which interface to send traffic from. CEF offers the following benefits:
1.
Better performance than fast-switching (the default) and takes less CPU to perform the same task.
2.
When enabled, allows for advanced features like NBAR
3.
Overall, CEF can switch traffic faster than route-caching using fast-switching How to enable CEF?
CEF is disabled by default on all routers except the 7xxx series routers. Enabling and Disabling CEF is easy. To enable
CEF, go into global configuration mode and enter the CEF command.
Router# config t
Router(config)# ip cef
Router(config)#
To disable CEF, simply use the `no\\’ form of the command, ie. `no ip cef`.
Why CEF Needed when enabling NetFlow ?
CEF is a prerequisite to enable NetFlow on the router interfaces. CEF decides through which interface traffic is exiting
the router. Any NetFlow analyzer product will calculate the OUT traffic for an interface based on the Destination
Interface
value present in the NetFlow packets exported from the router. If the CEF is disabled on the router, the NetFlow packets
exported from the router will have “Destination interface” as “null” and this leads NetFlow Analyzer to show no OUT
traffic for the interfaces. Without enabling the CEF on the router, the NetFlow packets did not mark the destination
interfaces and so NetFlow Analyzer was not able to show the OUT traffic for the interfaces

 

QUESTION 9
The Cisco SA 500 Series Security Appliances are built specifically for businesses with less than 100 employees. What
are three important benefits of this device? (Choose three.)
A. business-grade firewall
B. premium support via SMART net
C. site-to-site VPN for remote offices
D. Cisco IOS software-based
E. email security
F. XML support
Correct Answer: ACE

 

QUESTION 10
Which Cisco IOS VPN technology leverages IPsec, mGRE, dynamic routing protocol, NHRP, and Cisco Express
Forwarding?
A. FlexVPN
B. DMVPN
C. GETVPN
D. Cisco Easy VPN
Correct Answer: B
Dynamic Multipoint Virtual Private Network (DMVPN) is a dynamic tunneling form of a virtual private network (VPN)
supported on Cisco IOS-based routers and Unix-like Operating Systems based on the standard protocols, GRE, NHRP
and
Ipsec. This DMVPN provides the capability for creating a dynamicmesh
VPN network without having to pre-configure (static) all possible tunnel end-point peers, including Ipsec (Internet
Protocol Security) and ISAKMP (Internet Security Association and Key Management Protocol) peers. DMVPN is initially
configured to build out a hub-and-spoke network by statically configuring
the hubs (VPN headends) on the spokes, no change in the configuration on the hub is required to accept new spokes.
Using this initial hub-and-spoke network, tunnels between spokes can be dynamically built on demand (dynamic-mesh)
without additional configuration on the hubs or spokes. This dynamic-mesh capability alleviates the need for any load on
the hub to route data between the spoke networks.
DMVPN is combination of the following technologies:
Multipoint GRE (mGRE)
Next-Hop Resolution Protocol (NHRP)
Dynamic Routing Protocol (EIGRP, RIP, OSPF, BGP)
Dynamic Ipsec encryption
Cisco Express Forwarding (CEF)
Reference: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dynamic_Multipoint_Virtual_Private_Network

 

QUESTION 11
What are two differences between SNMP traps and SNMP informs? (Choose two)
A. Only informs provide a confirmation of receipt
B. Informs are more reliable than traps because they require a TCP three-way handshake
C. Only traps are discarded after delivery
D. Traps are more reliable than informs because they generate PDUs from the network manager
E. Only informs are discarded after delivery
Correct Answer: AE

 

QUESTION 12
Click and drag the correct techniques for transitioning networks or devices from IPv4 to IPv6 from the left to the target
zone on the right.
Select and Place:pass4itsure 300-101 exam question q12

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure 300-101 exam question q12-1

 

QUESTION 13
Which address is used by the Unicast Reverse Path Forwarding protocol to validate a packet against the routing table?
A. source address
B. destination address
C. router interface
D. default gateway
Correct Answer: A
The Unicast RPF feature helps to mitigate problems that are caused by the introduction of malformed or forged
(spoofed) IP source addresses into a network by discarding IP packets that lack a verifiable IP source address. For
example, a number of common types of denial-of-service (DoS) attacks, including Smurf and Tribal Flood Network
(TFN), can take advantage of forged or rapidly changing source IP addresses to allow attackers to thwart efforts to
locate or filter the attacks. For Internet service providers (ISPs) that provide public access, Unicast RPF deflects such
attacks by forwarding only packets that have source addresses that are valid and consistent with the IP routing table.
This action protects the network of the ISP, its customer, and the rest of the Internet. Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/ios/12_2/security/configuration/guide/scfrpf.html

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220-902 – CompTIA IT Certifications: https://certification.comptia.org/docs/default-source/exam-objectives/comptia-a-220-902-exam-objectives.pdf

About the Exam

Candidates are encouraged to use this document to help prepare for CompTIA A+ 220-902. In order to receive the CompTIA A+ certification, you must pass two exams: 220-901 and 220-902. CompTIA A+ 220-902 measures the necessary skills for an entry-level IT professional. Successful
candidates will have the knowledge required to:

  • Assemble components based on customer requirements
  • Install, configure and maintain devices, PCs, and software for end-users
  • Understand the basics of networking and security/forensics
  • Properly and safely diagnose, resolve and document common hardware and software issues
  • Apply troubleshooting skills
  • Provide appropriate customer support
  • Understand the basics of virtualization, desktop imaging, and deployment

These content examples are meant to clarify the test objectives and should not be construed as a comprehensive listing of all the content of this examination

The latest CompTIA A+ 220-902 exam practice questions test your strength

QUESTION 1
A technician receives a helpdesk ticket about an employee having a problem sending text messages with a company
Android smartphone. It has been determined that it is not a carrier issue. Which of the following should the technician
perform FIRST?
A. Verify data connectivity
B. Reformat the MicroSD card
C. Replace the SIM card
D. Perform a soft restore
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
A team needs to deploy a temporary server room at a site to provide support during construction. Which of the following
should they use at this site while setting up the server room?
A. Air filters
B. Privacy screens
C. Vacuums
D. ESD mats
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
A user reports that the PC is not working. After questioning the user, the technician believes the problem is a bad
memory module. Which of the following is the NEXT step the technician should take?
A. Document findings, actions, and outcomes
B. Test the theory by replacing the motherboard
C. Test the theory by running memory diagnostic software
D. Verify the system is working correctly
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Ann, a home user, brings a Windows XP PC in for repair and reports that several disk read errors are occurring. She
has run check disk and errors have been reported several times. Which of the following should a technician
recommend? (Select TWO).
A. Increase the amount of RAM to improve disk checks
B. Backup all data on the drive
C. Upgrade to a home server
D. Purchase a new hard drive
E. Change the drive configuration to RAID 0
F. Upgrade to Windows 7 Professional
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 5
A technician is troubleshooting a PC with multiple volumes. To verify which are active and assigned drive letters, the
technician should use the LIST function of which of the following commands?
A. extract
B. diskpart
C. bootrec
D. chkdsk
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Which of the following operating systems can be upgraded using an in-place procedure to Windows 7 Professional
x64?
A. Windows Vista Professional x86
B. Windows 7 Enterprise x64
C. Windows 7 Starter x86
D. Windows 7 Home Premium x64
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which of the following can cause a popup box to display on a laptop, alerting a user that they have performed the same
action 5 times, and asking them to click OK to enable this feature?
A. Lock indicator lights
B. Flickering display
C. Ghost cursor
D. Sticky keys
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
When installing Hyper-V, which of the following is a hardware requirement?
A. 64-bit processor
B. 32GB of RAM
C. 1TB of storage space
D. Multi-display video card
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
A technician arrives on site to find that two users who have the same model of smartphone are having the same issue
with a specific application. Whenever they attempt to launch the application, it fails and gives an error message. Which
of the following should the technician do NEXT?
A. Reinstall the application
B. Roll back the application to the earlier version
C. Clear the application cache
D. Update the OS of the smartphones
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
An electrical fire starts in a PC on a crowded sales floor of an office building. Which of the following is the BEST way to
extinguish the fire and keep all personnel safe?
A. Use a large container filled with water
B. Use a “C” labeled fire extinguisher
C. Use an “A” labeled fire extinguisher
D. Use a “B” labeled fire extinguisher
E. Use a halon fire suppression system
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
For the last year, a company has gathered statistics on the most common security incidents. The highest percentage
deals with opening email attachments that contain malware. Which of the following would mitigate this issue without
reducing productivity?
A. Annual cyber security education
B. Update antivirus signatures more often
C. Block all email attachments
D. Install an IPS on each workstation
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
A Windows PC suffered a bad update, so a systems administrator removed the update. Which of the following tools
should the systems administrator run to ensure the Windows files are not corrupted?
A. MSConfig
B. Sfc
C. Defrag
D. Chkdsk
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://support.microsoft.com/en-us/help/929833/use-the-system-file-checker-tool-to-repair-missing-or-corrupted-system

QUESTION 13
A user has become a victim of data harvesting. The user wants to know more about the potential for mobile device
application security issues. Which of the following settings should a technician advise the user to change on the user\\’s
mobile device? (Select three.)
A. Location tracking
B. Camera activation
C. Data transmission limit
D. System lockouts
E. Developer options
F. Accessibility
G. Synchronization
H. Storage
Correct Answer: AFH

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Oracle Database: Advanced PL/SQL | 1Z0-148: https://education.oracle.com/oracle-database-advanced-pl-sql/pexam_1Z0-148

The latest Oracle SQL and PL-SQL 1z0-148 exam practice questions test your strength

QUESTION 1
Which two statements are correct in Oracle Database 12c?
A. For native compilation, PLSQL_OPTIMIZE_LEWVEL should be set to 2.
B. Native compilation is the default compilation method
C. Native compilation should be used during development.
D. Natively compiles code is stored in the SYSTEM tablespace.
E. To change a PL/SQL object from interpreted to native code, set the PLSQL_CODE_TYPE to NATIVE and recompile
it.
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 2
Examine this external function declaration:
CREATE FUNCTION compare_and_sum(p1 PLS_INTEGER, p2 IN PLS_INTEGER, p3 IN OUT NUMBER)
RETURN PLS_INTEGER
AS LANGUAGE C LIBRARY mylib
NAME “compareAndSum” WITH CONTEXT;
Which C function does it publish?
A. OCINumber * compareAndSum (OCIExtProcContext *ctx, OCINumber *p1, OCINumber *p2, OCINumber *p3);
B. OCINumber compareAndSum (OCIExtProcContext *ctx, OCINumber p1, OCINumber p2, OCINumber *p3);
C. int compareAndSum (OCIExtProcContext *ctx, int p1, int p2, OCINumber *p3);
D. int compareAndSum (OCIExtProcContext *ctx, int p1, int p2, OCINumber p3);
E. int compareAndSum (OCIExtProcContext *ctx, int p1, int p2, int p3);
F. int compareAndSum (OCIExtProcContext *ctx, int p1, int p2, int* p3);
G. OCINumber compareAndSum (OCIExtProcContext *ctx, OCINumber p1, OCINumber p2, OCINumber p3);
Correct Answer: F

QUESTION 3
Identify three guidelines for the DBMS_ASSERT package. (Choose three.)
A. Prefix all calls to DBMS_ASSERT with the SYS schema name.
B. Embed DBMS_ASSERT verification routines inside the injectable string.
C. Escape single quotes when you use the ENQUOTE_LITERAL procedure.
D. Define and raise exceptions explicitly to handle DBMS_ASSERT exceptions.
E. Prefix all calls to DBMS_ASSERT with a schema name that owns the subprogram that uses the DBMS_ASSERT
package.
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 4
DATA_FILES is a directory object that contains the DETAILS.TXT text file.
You have the required permissions to access the directory object.
You create a table using the following command:
CREATE TABLE clob_tab(col2 CLOB);
View the Exhibit and examine the PL/SQL block that you execute for loading the external text file into the table that
currently has no rows. The PL/SQL block results in an error.
What correction must be done to ensure the PL/SQL block executes successfully?pass4itsure 1z0-148 exam question q4

A. The L_OUT variable must be initialized to an empty locator.
B. The L_OUT variable has to be declared as a temporary LOB.
C. The A_CLOB variable has to be declared as a temporary LOB.
D. The clause RETURNING col2 INTO a_clob should be added to the INSERT statement to correctly initialize the
locator.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
You issue this command to create a table called LOB_STORE:
CREATE TABLE lob_store
(lob_id NUMBER(3),
photo BLOB DEFAULT EMPTY_BLOB(),
cv CLOB DEFAULT NULL,
ext_file BFILE DEFAULT NULL)
/
What is the outcome?
A. The table is created successfully.
B. It generates an error because DEFAULT cannot be set to EMPTY_BLOB() during table creation.
C. It generates an error because DEFAULT cannot be set to null for a CLOB column during table creation.
D. It generates an error because DEFAULT cannot be set to null for a BFILE column during table creation.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which statement is true about internal and external LOBs?
A. An external LOB can be loaded into an internal LOB variable using the DBMS_LOB package.
B. A NOEXIST_DIRECTORY exception can be raised when using internal and external LOBs.
C. Internal and external LOBs can be written using DBMS_LOB.
D. After an exception transfers program control outside a PL/SQL block, all references to open external LOBs are lost.
E. When using DBMS_LOB.INSTR for internal and external LOBs, DBMS_LOB.OPEN should be called for each LOB.
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 7
View the Exhibit and examine the PL/SQL code.
The code takes a long time to execute. What would you recommend to improve performance?pass4itsure 1z0-148 exam question q7

A. using NOT NULL constraint when declaring the variables
B. using the BULK COLLECT option for query instead of cursor
C. using WHILE.. END LOOP instead of FOR .. END LOOP
D. using the SIMPLE_INTEGER data type instead of the NUMBER data type
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the EMPLOYEES table.
Examine the following PL/SQL block for storing the salary of all sales representatives from the EMPLOYEES table in an
associative array:
1 DECLARE
2 emp_cv SYS_REFCURSOR;
3 TYPE list IS TABLE OF emp_cv;
4 sals list;
5 BEGIN
6 OPEN emp_cv FOR SELECT salary FROM employees
7 WHERE job_id = \\’SA_REP\\’;
8 FETCH emp_cv BULK COLLECT INTO sals;
9 CLOSE emp_cv;
10 END;
What should you correct in the above code to ensure that it executes successfully?

pass4itsure 1z0-148 exam question q8

A. Replace EMP_CV in line 3 with employees.salary%TYPE.
B. Replace line 2 with TYPE refcur IS REF CURSOR; emp_cv refcur;.
C. Replace BULK COLLECT in line 8 with the OPEN, FETCH, LOOP, and CLOSE statements.
D. Replace line 2 with TYPE refcur IS REF CURSOR RETURN employees.salary%TYPE; emp_cv refcur;.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which two statements are true about the DBMS_LOB.CREATETEMPORARY procedure that is used to create a
temporary LOB? (Choose two.)
A. It can be used for transforming data in permanent internal LOBs.
B. It is used only for the migration of BasicFile to the SecureFile format.
C. It is used only for the migration of the LONG column to the LOB column.
D. It creates a LOB variable that is not associated with any table and is stored in the user\\’s temporary tablespace.
E. It creates a LOB variable that is associated with a specific table and is temporarily stored in the user\\’s default
tablespace.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 10
You have an external C procedure stored in a dynamic-link library (DLL). The C procedure takes an integer as argument
and returns an integer. You want to invoke the C procedure through a PL/SQL program.
View the Exhibit.
Which statement is true about the C_OUTPUT PL/SQL program?pass4itsure 1z0-148 exam question q10

A. It invokes the external C procedure.
B. It only publishes the external C procedure.
C. It fails because the external C procedure is not published.
D. It fails because the input data type is BINARY_INTEGER and the external C procedure expects an integer.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the EMPLOYEES table.
Examine the following PL/SQL block for storing the salary of all sales representatives from the EMPLOYEES table in an
associative array:
1 DECLARE
2 emp_cv SYS_REFCURSOR;
3 TYPE list IS TABLE OF emp_cv;
4 sals list;
5 BEGIN
6 OPEN emp_cv FOR SELECT salary FROM employees
7 WHERE job_id = \\’SA_REP\\’;
8 FETCH emp_cv BULK COLLECT INTO sals;
9 CLOSE emp_cv;
10 END;
What should you correct in the above code to ensure that it executes successfully?

pass4itsure 1z0-148 exam question q11

A. Replace EMP_CV in line 3 with employees.salary%TYPE.
B. Replace line 2 with TYPE refcur IS REF CURSOR; emp_cv refcur;.
C. Replace BULK COLLECT in line 8 with the OPEN, FETCH, LOOP, and CLOSE statements.
D. Replace line 2 with TYPE refcur IS REF CURSOR RETURN employees.salary%TYPE; emp_cv refcur;.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Which two statements are true about the usage of the DBMS_DESCRIBE.DESCRIBE_PROCEDURE procedure?
(Choose two.)
A. You can describe remote objects.
B. You can describe anonymous PL/SQL blocks.
C. You can describe a stored procedure, stored function, packaged procedure, or packaged function.
D. You can obtain information about the position, name, and data type of the arguments of a procedure.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 13
View the Exhibit and examine the procedure to create a trigger name based on the table name supplied to the
procedure. Which three statements are appropriate for protecting the code in the procedure from SQL injection?
(Choose three.)pass4itsure 1z0-148 exam question q13

A. Explicitly validate the identifier length limit.
B. Add AUTHID DEFINER to the definition of the procedure.
C. Use PRAGMA RESTRICT_REFERENCES in the procedure.
D. Filter out control characters in user-supplied identifier names.
E. Use the object ID of the table from the data dictionary to build the trigger name.
Correct Answer: ADE

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Exam MS-300: Deploying Microsoft 365 Teamwork (beta): https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-ms-300.aspx

Candidates for this exam are Teamwork Administrators who are responsible for configuring, deploying and managing Office 365 and Azure workloads that focus on efficient and effective collaboration and adoption.
Teamwork Administrators manage apps, services, and supporting infrastructure to meet business requirements. The Teamwork administrator must be able to deploy, manage, migrate, and secure SharePoint (online, on-premises, and hybrid), OneDrive, and Teams.

The Teamwork administrator is involved with decisions regarding governance and works with other administrators to implement many
of the decisions made by governance bodies. The Teamwork administrator collaborates with the Messaging Administrator to configure
options and security related to email tasks, the Voice Administrator to integrate voice capabilities in organizations, and the Security Administrator to ensure an end to end security.

pass4itsure ms-300 Skills measured

Configure and manage SharePoint Online (35-40%)

  • Plan and configure site collections and hub sites
  • Plan and configure customizations and apps
  • Plan and configure managed metadata
  • Plan and configure guest access
  • Manage SharePoint Online
  • Manage search
  • Monitor and maintain the SharePoint Online service

Configure and manage OneDrive for Business (25-30%)

  • Configure and manage OneDrive for Business
  • Manage users and groups
  • Manage sharing and security
  • Manage sync security
  • Monitor and maintain the OneDrive service

Configure and manage Teams (20-25%)

  • Plan and configure Teams settings
  • Plan identity and authentication for Teams
  • Manage the Teams environment
  • Monitor and maintain the Teams service

Configure and manage workload integrations (15-20%)

  • Integrate M365 workloads
  • Manage Yammer capabilities
  • Manage Stream capabilities
  • Integrate M365 workloads with external data and systems

Latest effective Microsoft other Certification MS-300 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
Your company has a Microsoft SharePoint Online subscription.
The company purchases a new add-in for Microsoft Excel.
You need to deploy the add-in to all users.
Solution: From the Microsoft 365 admin center, you deploy the add-in.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription.
You need to prevent all users except for a user named User1 from uploading video to Microsoft Stream channels and
creating Stream channels. User1 must be able to create a channel and upload video to the created channel.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Turn on Restrict companywide channel creation and add User1 as an unrestricted user.
B. Turn on Restrict video uploads and add User1 as an unrestricted user.
C. Turn on Restrict companywide channel creation and add the Office 365 group associated to the channel as an
unrestricted user.
D. Add user1 to the Office 365 group associated to the channel.
E. Turn on Restrict video uploads and add the Office 365 group associated to the channel as an unrestricted user.
Correct Answer: AB
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/stream/restrict-companywide-channels https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/stream/restrict-uploaders

QUESTION 3
You are a Microsoft Teams administrator for your company.
The company creates a new Teams app named App1. A developer packages App1 as a ZIP file.
You need to ensure that App1 can be uploaded as a ZIP package to Teams.
Which Apps setting should you turn on?
A. Allow sideloading of external apps
B. Allow external in Microsoft Teams
C. Enable default apps
D. Enable new external apps by default
Correct Answer: A
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoftteams/admin-settings

QUESTION 4
You work for a Canadian company named Contoso, Ltd.
Contoso has a Microsoft 365 subscription.
Contoso discovers that some users share Canadian Personally Identifiable Information (PII) data with external users.
You need to notify users and administrators when sensitive information is shared with internal or external users.
What should you create?
A. a sensitivity label policy
B. a data governance policy
C. a Microsoft Azure Information Protection policy
D. a data loss prevention (DLP) policy
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription.
You need to add a user named Admin1 as an administrator of the Microsoft OneDrive for the Business site of a user named
User1.
What should you do?
A. Run the Set-SPOSite (site URL) ?owner Admin1 command.
B. From the SharePoint admin center, select user profiles, and then select Manage User Permissions.
C. Add Admin1 to the Site owners group.
D. From the SharePoint admin center, select user profiles, and then select Manage User Profiles. Select User1, and
then select Manage site collection owners.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Your company has a Microsoft SharePoint Online subscription.
The company purchases a new add-in for Microsoft Excel.
You need to deploy the add-in to all users.
Solution: From the App Catalog, you upload the add-in to the SharePoint Add-ins
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
You need to grant an external user guest access to the SharePoint site of the design department. What should you do?
A. From the SharePoint team site, modify the Visitors group.
B. From the SharePoint team site, modify the Members group
C. From Microsoft Outlook, add a member to a group.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
You have a Microsoft SharePoint Online site named Site1.
You are monitoring the usage patterns of the site collection.
What should you use to identify which files were shared with external users?
A. the Data governance dashboard in the Security and Compliance admin center
B. the usage report in the Microsoft 365 admin center
C. Sharing settings in the SharePoint admin center
D. the Site usage page in Site1
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
You are planning the deployment of a Microsoft SharePoint Online site collection.
You need to recommend a solution that provides consistent global navigation across multiple sites within the site
collection. The solution must use a term set for navigation.
Which navigation approach should you include in the recommendation?
A. hub sites
B. structural navigation
C. Quick Launch
D. metadata navigation
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
You need to configure retention for OneDrive. The solution must meet the technical requirements.
How should you complete the command? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:pass4itsure ms-300 exam question q10

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure ms-300 exam question q10-1

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/sharepoint-online/set-spotenant?view=sharepoint-ps

QUESTION 11
Your company has a Microsoft SharePoint Online subscription.
You use a DocumentType term set to tag documents. All existing terms are created in English.
The company opens a new office in Mexico.
You need to ensure that the tags are available in Spanish automatically.
Select and Place:pass4itsure ms-300 exam question q11

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure ms-300 exam question q11-1

QUESTION 12
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription.
SharePoint administrators open several Microsoft support tickets.
You need to view the status of the support tickets.
Solution: From the Microsoft 365 admin center, you select Support, and then you select View service requests.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription.
You need to ensure that users accessing files in Microsoft SharePoint Online from an unmanaged device can only view
the files in a browser.
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The latest CompTIA Server+ SK0-004 exam Practice Questions and Answers

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Latest effective CompTIA Server+ SK0-004 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
An administrator is updating theserver infrastructure atacompany\\’s disaster recovery site. Currently, an enormous
amount of effortisrequired by theadministratorto replicate operations. Which of the followingtypes of siteis the
administrator currently using?
A. Cold site
B. Hot site
C. Warm site
D. Replication site
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
A new server has two drives and a RAID controller. Which of the following is an option for configuring the storage on this
server?
A. RAID 0
B. RAID 5
C. RAID 6
D. RAID 10
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
A technician receives an error messagewhentrying to boot the server stating the operating system was not found.
Change management logs indicateanew hard drive backplane was installed in the server last night. Which of the
following should the technician do FIRST when troubleshooting the issue?
A. Check system board cables
B. Rebuild RAID array
C. Reinstall server OS
D. Remove newly installed hardware
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
A system administrator is tasked to setup a database server with failover clustering feature enabled. One of the
requirements is to have one database running at all times with data being synchronizedand replicated to the idle
database in case the primary database server fails. Both servers will be monitored by a witness on a LUN. Which of the
followingcluster techniques should be implemented to meet these requirements?
A. Active/Active
B. Active/Passive
C. Single Local Quorum
D. Passive/Passive
E. Shared Multiple Quorum
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
A technician notices a rack mounted server is beeping without booting up. The NEXT step to diagnose this issue would
be to:
A. continue to power cycle the server until it boots normally.
B. count the beeps and reference the service manual.
C. disable the alarm within the server.
D. install the server into a different rack.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
A company is planning to replace old hardware and needs to budget accordingly. Which of the following is likely to
contain a list of end of life servers?
A. The server\\’s warranty information.
B. The server\\’s life cycle schedule.
C. The asset management database.
D. The software licensing agreement.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
A server administrator wants to upgrade the memory of the server using two memory modules. The server has two
banks of memorywith the followingslotsavailable: A2, A3, A4, B2, B3, and B4. In whichof the following two slotsshould
theadministrator install the additional RAM?
A. Slots A2 and A3
B. Slots A2 and B2
C. Slots A2 and B4
D. Slots B2 and B3
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Server A hosts a mission-critical business application. The server has one disk and one NIC. The administrator has
been asked to implement a solution to meet the business requirement that the application must maintain high
availability, even in case of a hardware failure. Which of the following BEST meets this requirement?
A. Configure failover clustering using Server A and a new server.
B. Add multiple disks on the server and configure RAID 5.
C. Add an additional NIC and configure the NIC as standby.
D. Move the application to another server that has more resources.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
A technician is upgrading the memory in a server. The server requires DDR3 Registered DIMMs. The server
hasfourbanks ofthreeslots for memory and currently there is one 2GBmodule in each bank. When the technician
attempts to add eight more 4GB modules of DDR3unbuffered ECC memory,the memory does notfit in the slots. Which
of the following is thecause ofthis issue?
A. In a bank, 2GB and 4GB memory cannot be mixed.
B. The server cannot use ECC memory.
C. The server requires fully buffered memory.
D. The total memory on the server cannot exceed 24GB of RAM.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
A server technician is connecting a server to a switch in the server room. Both the server and the switch are equipped
with 10 Gigabit Ethernet adapters. Which of the following cable choices would produce the BEST throughput?
A. CAT6 rollover cable
B. CAT5e straight-through cable
C. CAT6 straight-through cable
D. CAT5e crossover cable
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
In an effort to reduce recovery time during hardware failures, a server administrator needs to implement a backup
method that will allow for complete OS and service/application recovery as long as compatible hardware is available.
Which of the following backup types meets this requirement?
A. Incremental
B. Bare metal
C. Snapshot
D. Full
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
When attempting to diagnose service access issues between multiple hosts that coordinateinformation, whichof the
followingcan be used to track dependencies?
A. Dataflow diagrams
B. Architecture diagrams
C. Baseline documentation
D. Service manuals
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
A technician wants to implement a grandfather-father-son tape rotation policy. Which of the following implements this
backup strategy?
A. Assign a different set of tapes for daily, weekly, and monthly backups.
B. Use a different set of tapes for every two, four, and eight days.
C. Designate a different set of tapes for odd-day and even-day backups.
D. Use a queue to rotate tapes based on the age and usage of the tape.
Correct Answer: A

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The CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) certification verifies that successful candidates have the knowledge and skills required to configure and use threat detection tools, perform data analysis and interpret the results to identify vulnerabilities, threats and risks to an organization, with the end goal of securing and protecting applications and systems within an organization.

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QUESTION 1
A security analyst begins to notice the CPU utilization from a sinkhole has begun to spike Which of the following
describes what may be occurring?
A. Someone has logged on to the sinkhole and is using the device
B. The sinkhole has begun blocking suspect or malicious traffic
C. The sinkhole has begun rerouting unauthorized traffic
D. Something is controlling the sinkhole and causing CPU spikes due to malicious utilization.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Following a recent security breach, a post-mortem was done to analyze the driving factors behind the breach. The
cybersecurity analysis discussed potential impacts, mitigations, and remediations based on current events and
emerging threat vectors tailored to specific stakeholders. Which of the following is this considered to be?
A. Threat intelligence
B. Threat information
C. Threat data
D. Advanced persistent threats
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
During a routine network scan, a security administrator discovered an unidentified service running on a new embedded
and unmanaged HVAC controller, which is used to monitor the company\\’s datacenter:

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should the security administrator implement to harden the system?
A. Patch and restart the unknown service.
B. Segment and firewall the controller\\’s network.
C. Disable the unidentified service on the controller.
D. Implement SNMPv3 to secure communication.
E. Disable TCP/UDP ports 161 through 163.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
A recently issued audit report highlight exception related to end-user handling of sensitive data access and credentials.
A security manager is addressing the findings. Which of the following activities should be implemented?
A. Update the password policy
B. Increase training requirements
C. Deploy a single sign-on platform
D. Deploy Group Policy Objects
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Which of the following is a control that allows a mobile application to access and manipulate information which should
only be available by another application on the same mobile device (e.g. a music application posting the name of the
current song playing on the device on a social media site)?
A. Co-hosted application
B. Transitive trust
C. Mutually exclusive access
D. Dual authentication
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Following a data compromise, a cybersecurity analyst noticed the following executed query:
SELECT * from Users WHERE name = rick OR 1=1
Which of the following attacks occurred, and which of the following technical security controls would BEST reduce the
risk of future impact from this attack? (Select TWO).
A. Cookie encryption
B. XSS attack
C. Parameter validation
D. Character blacklist
E. Malicious code execution
F. SQL injection
Correct Answer: CF
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QUESTION 7
A nuclear facility manager (determined the need to monitor utilization of water within the facility. A startup company just
announced a state-of-the-art solution to address the need for integrality \\’be business and ICS networks The solution
leqmies a very small agent lo be installed on the 1CS equipment Which of the following is the MOST important security
control for the manager to invest in to protect the facility?
A. Run a penetration lest on the installed agent.
B. Require that the solution provider make the agent source code available for analysis.
C. Require thorough guides for administrator and users
D. Install the agent tor a week on a test system and monitor the activities
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which of the following BEST describes the offensive participants in a tabletop exercise?
A. Red team
B. Blue team
C. System administrators
D. Security analysts
E. Operations team
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
File integrity monitoring states the following files have been changed without a written request or approved change. The
following change has been made:
chmod 777 -Rv /usr
Which of the following may be occurring?
A. The ownership pf /usr has been changed to the current user.
B. Administrative functions have been locked from users.
C. Administrative commands have been made world readable/writable.
D. The ownership of/usr has been changed to the root user.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
An analyst was testing the latest version of an internally developed CRM system. The analyst created a basic user
account. Using a few tools in Kali\\’s latest distribution, the analyst was able to access configuration files, change
permissions on folders and groups, and delete and create new system objects. Which of the following techniques did
the analyst use to perform these unauthorized activities?
A. Impersonation
B. Privilege escalation
C. Directory traversal
D. Input injection
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
A retail corporation with widely distributed store locations and IP space must meet PCI requirements relating to
vulnerability scanning. The organization plans to outsource this function to a third party to reduce costs.
Which of the following should be used to communicate expectations related to the execution of scans?
A. Vulnerability assessment report
B. Lessons learned documentation
C. SLA
D. MOU
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
A cybersecurity analyst has received an alert that well-known “call home” messages are continuously observed by
network sensors at the network boundary. The proxy firewall successfully drops the messages. After determining the
alert was a true positive, which of the following represents the MOST likely cause?
A. Attackers are running reconnaissance on company resources.
B. An outside command and control system is attempting to reach an infected system.
C. An insider is trying to exfiltrate information to a remote network.
D. Malware is running on a company system.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
A cybersecurity analyst is completing an organization\\’s vulnerability report and wants it to reflect assets accurately.
Which of the following items should be in the report?
A. Processor utilization
B. Virtual hosts
C. Organizational governance
D. Log disposition
E. Asset isolation
Correct Answer: B

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Work at the Linux command line

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QUESTION 1
What is true regarding the statement beginning with #! that is found in the first line of a script?
A. It prevents the script from being executed until the ! is removed.
B. It specifies the path and the arguments of the interpreter used to run the script.
C. It is a comment that is ignored by the script.
D. It specifies the character encoding of the script.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which Bash option prevents a user from accidentally overwriting a file with a “>”?
A. set -o safe
B. set -o noglob
C. set -o noclobber
D. set -o append
E. set -o nooverwrite
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Which of the following commands prints the exit value of the most recently executed program in Bash?
A. echo $?
B. echo $#
C. echo $exit
D. echo $status
E. echo $&
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which of the following SQL statements will select the fields name and address from the contacts table?
A. SELECT (name, address) FROM contacts;
B. SELECT (name address) FROM contacts;
C. SELECT name, address FROM contacts;
D. SELECT name address FROM contacts;
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Which of the following configuration files should be modified to globally set shell variables for all users?
A. /etc/bashrc
B. /etc/profile
C. ~/.bash_profile
D. /etc/.bashrc
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Which of the following commands are used to manage the environment and shell variables within a shell
process? (Choose TWO correct answers.)A. export
B. init
C. reset
D. set
E. tset
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 7
Which of the following are operators used for comparisons by the test command? (Choose TWO correct
answers.)
A. equals
B. =
C. -is
D. -eq
E. null
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 8
Which of the following commands creates a function in Bash that outputs the sum of two numbers?
A. function sumitup { echo $(($1 + $2)) ; }
B. command sumitup { echo $(($1 + $2)) ; }
C. function sumitup { echo $1 + $2 ; }
D. method sumitup { echo $1 + $2 ; }
E. command sumitup { echo $1 + $2 ; }
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
What output will the following command sequence produce?
echo ‘1 2 3 4 5 6’ | while read a b c; do echo result: $c $b $a; done
A. result: 3 4 5 6 2 1
B. result: 1 2 3 4 5 6
C. result: 6 5 4
D. result: 6 5 4 3 2 1
E. result: 3 2 1
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
When the command echo $? outputs 1, which of the following statements are true?
A. It is the process ID of the echo command.
B. It is the process ID of the current shell.
C. It is the exit value of the command executed immediately before echo.
D. It is the exit value of the echo command.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Which command makes the shell variable named VARIABLE visible to subshells?A. export $VARIABLE
B. export VARIABLE
C. set $VARIABLE
D. set VARIABLE
E. env VARIABLE
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
What output will the command seq 10 produce?
A. A continuous stream of numbers increasing in increments of 10 until stopped.
B. The numbers 1 through 10 with one number per line.
C. The numbers 0 through 9 with one number per line.
D. The number 10 to standard output.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Which of the following files, when existing, affect the behavior of the Bash shell? (Choose TWO correct
answers.)
A. ~/.bashconf
B. ~/.bashrc
C. ~/.bashdefaults
D. ~/.bash_etc
E. ~/.bash_profile
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 14
After issuing:
function myfunction { echo $1 $2 ; }
in Bash, which output does:
myfunction A B C
Produce?
A. A B
B. A B C
C. A C
D. B C
E. C B A
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
Which of the following commands puts the output of the command date into the shell variable mydate?
A. mydate=”$(date)”
B. mydate=”exec date”
C. mydate=”$((date))”
D. mydate=”date”E. mydate=”${date}”
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
What is the purpose of the sticky keys feature in X?
A. To assist users who have difficulty holding down multiple keys at once.
B. To prevent repeated input of a single character if the key is held down.
C. To ignore brief keystrokes according to a specified time limit.
D. To repeat the input of a single character.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
On a machine running several X servers, how are the different instances of the X11 server identified?
A. By a fixed UUID that is defined in the X11 configuration file.
B. By a unique IPv6 address from the fe80::/64 subnet.
C. By the name of the user that runs the X server like x11:bob.
D. By a device name like /dev/X11/xservers/1.
E. By a display name like:1.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 18
What is the purpose of the xhost program?
A. Grant or revoke access to a X11 session.
B. Install all packages and video drivers required to run X11 on a host.
C. Start the X11 server and announce its availability within the local network.
D. Send informational messages to all users logged into a host using X11.
E. Display the MOTD and other important information when a user logs in via X11.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
What of the following statements is true regarding a display manager?
A. A display manager handles remote X11 logins only and has no purpose on a system that is not
attached to a network.
B. The display manager is configured in the X11 configuration file xorg.conf.
C. There is only one display manager X11DM that must be started on all systems running X11.
D. After system startup, the display manager handles the login of a user.
E. Without a display manager, no graphical programs can be run.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 20
How is a display manager started?
A. It is started by a user using the command startx.
B. It is started like any other system service by the init system.
C. It is started by inetd when a remote hosts connects to the X11 port.
D. It is started automatically when a X11 user logs in to the system console.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 21
In which file, if present, must all users be listed that are allowed to use the cron scheduling system?
(Specify the full name of the file, including path.)
Correct Answer: /etc/cron.allow

QUESTION 22
In which file, if present, must all users be listed that are allowed to use the cron scheduling system?
(Specify the full name of the file, including path.)
Correct Answer: /etc/cron.allow

QUESTION 23
Which command is used to add an empty group to the system? (Specify ONLY the command without any
path or parameters.)
Correct Answer: groupadd, /usr/sbin/groupadd

QUESTION 24
Which command, available with all MTAs, is used to list the contents of the MTA’s mail queue? (Specify
ONLY the command without any path or parameters.)
Correct Answer: mailq, /usr/bin/mailq, sendmail -bp, /usr/sbin/sendmail -bp, /usr/lib/sendmail – bp,
sendmail, /usr/sbin/sendmail, /usr/lib/sendmail

QUESTION 25
Please specify the top directory containing the configuration files for the CUPS printing system. (Specify
the full path to the directory.)
Correct Answer: /etc/cups, /etc/cups/

QUESTION 26
Which command is used to manually assign an IP address to a network interface? (Specify ONLY the
command without any path or parameters.)
Correct Answer: ifconfig, /sbin/ifconfig, ip, /sbin/ip

QUESTION 27
What is the assigned port number for the HTTP service? (Specify the port number using digits.)
Correct Answer: 80

QUESTION 28
Given the following line from /etc/nsswitch.conf:
hosts: files mdns4_minimal [NOTFOUND=return] dns mdns4
By default, which file will be queried first for hostname lookups? (Specify the full name of the file, including
path.)
Correct Answer: /etc/hosts

QUESTION 29
What is the name of the file that defines the sources (like DNS or local configuration files) and the order in
which they are consulted when resolving hostnames? (Specify the full name of the file, including path.)
Correct Answer: /etc/nsswitch.conf

QUESTION 30
How many IP-addresses can be used for unique hosts inside the IPv4 subnet 192.168.2.128/28? (Specify
the number only without any additional information.)
Correct Answer: 14

QUESTION 31
What is the lowest numbered unprivileged TCP port? (Specify the number in digits only.)
Correct Answer: 1024

QUESTION 32
Which command, depending on its options, can display the open network connections, the routing tables,
as well as network interface statistics. (Specify ONLY the command without any path or parameters.)
Correct Answer: netstat, /bin/netstat, ss, /usr/bin/ss

QUESTION 33
Which port is the default server port for the HTTPS protocol? (Specify the port number using digits.)
Correct Answer: 443

QUESTION 34
Which keyword must be listed in the hosts option of the Name Service Switch configuration file in order to
make host lookups consult the /etc/hosts file?
Correct Answer: files

QUESTION 35
In an xinetd configuration file, which attribute specifies the network address that will be used to provide the
service?
Correct Answer: bind, interface

QUESTION 36
What argument to the -type option of find will match files that are symbolic links? (Specify only the
argument and no other options or words.)
Correct Answer: l

QUESTION 37
With X11 forwarding in ssh, what environment variable is automatically set in the remote host shell that is
not set when X11 forwarding is not enabled? (Specify only the environment variable without any additional
commands or values.)
Correct Answer: DISPLAY, $DISPLAY

QUESTION 38
The presence of what file will temporarily prevent all users except root from logging into the system?
(Specify the full name of the file, including path.)
Correct Answer: /etc/nologin

QUESTION 39
Instead of using specific host names or IP addresses, which string can be used in /etc/hosts.allow entries
to cover any remote host no matter of its name or address? (Specify the relevant string only without any
additional options or arguments.)
Correct Answer: ALL

QUESTION 40
Which command is used to add OpenSSH private keys to a running ssh-agent instance? (Specify the file
name only without any path.)
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Exam F
QUESTION 1
Which of the following protocols works at the LOWEST layer of the OSI model?
A. L2TP
B. PPTP
C. ISAKMP
D. IPSec
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Layer Two Tunneling Protocol (L2TP) is an extension of the Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol (PPTP) used by an Internet service provider (ISP) to
enable the operation of a virtual private network (VPN) over the Internet.

QUESTION 2
An employee connects to a work computer from home via the built-in Windows remote desktop connection.
Which of the following is MOST likely being used to establish the connection?
A. RDP
B. RTP
C. RIP
D. RAS
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) is a proprietary protocol developed by Microsoft, which provides a user with a graphical interface to connect to another computer
over a network connection. The user employs RDP client software for this purpose, while the other computer must run RDP server software.

QUESTION 3
Discover, Offer, Request, and Acknowledge are the steps for which of the following protocols?
A. DNS
B. DOS
C. DHCP
D. DSL
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
When we install a dhcp server into our network then dhcp server works on the basis of dora process first dhcp server sends a hello message in to the network to
discover the clients pc and when any client pc found in the network then, dhcp server offers the IP to client pc. When client pc selects any IP from dhcp server
then client pc request for selected IP to dhcp server then dhcp server provide that IP to client pc and both send ackonledgement to each other.

QUESTION 4
Which of the following commands displays the routing table on a server or workstation?
A. nbtstat
B. route
C. traceroute
D. nmap
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The route command allows you to make manual entries into the network routing tables. The route command distinguishes between routes to hosts …

QUESTION 5
At which of the following layers of the OSI model does ASCII work?
A. Session
B. Transport
C. Presentation
D. Application
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The presentation layer is responsible for the delivery and formatting of information to the application layer for further processing or display. It relieves the
application layer of concern regarding syntactical differences in data representation within the end-user systems. An example of a presentation service would be
the conversion of an EBCDIC-coded text computer file to an ASCII-coded file.

QUESTION 6
Which of the following uses port 23 by default?
A. TELNET
B. IMAP
C. FTP
D. SNMPCorrect Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Telnet is a network protocol used on the Internet or local area networks to provide a bidirectional interactive text-oriented communication facility using a virtual
terminal connection. User data is interspersed in-band with Telnet control information in an 8-bit byte oriented data connection over the Transmission Control
Protocol (TCP).

QUESTION 7
Assigning the same IP address to a network device is which of the following?
A. SSID
B. Scope
C. Reservation
D. Lease
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
You might want to assign network printers and certain servers DHCP reservations to ensure that they always have the same IP address, but continue to receive
updated configuration information from the DHCP server. For example, create reservations for servers that must always have the same IP address.

QUESTION 8
At which of the following layers do frames exist? (Select TWO).
A. OSI model Data link layer
B. TCP/IP model Network Interface layer
C. OSI model Physical layer
D. OSI model Network layer
E. TCP/IP model Internet layer
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The data link layer is concerned with local delivery of frames between devices on the same LAN. Data-link frames, as these protocol data units are called, do not
cross the boundaries of a local network. Inter-network routing and global addressing are higher layer functions, allowing data-link protocols to focus on local
delivery, addressing, and media arbitration. In this way, the data link layer is analogous to a neighborhood traffic cop; it endeavors to arbitrate between parties
contending for access to a medium, without concern for their ultimate destination.

QUESTION 9
A user is unable to access any network resources. The IP configuration of the workstation is as follows:
IP Address: 192.168.10.32
Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240
Default Gateway: 192.168.10.46
Which of the following would allow the user to connect to network resources?
A. Change the default gateway to 192.168.10.1
B. Change the default gateway to 192.168.10.254
C. Change the IP address to 192.168.10.31
D. Change the IP address to 192.168.10.33
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The given ip address is network id which we don’t assign to the host so the next ip is applicable to this.

QUESTION 10
Which of the following DNS records is used to identify a domain’s SMTP server?
A. CNAME
B. PTR
C. MX
D. A
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A mail exchanger record (MX record) is a type of resource record in the Domain Name System that specifies a mail server responsible for accepting email
messages on behalf of a recipient’s domain, and a preference value used to prioritize mail delivery if multiple mail servers are available. The set of MX records of
a domain name specifies how email should be routed with the Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP).

QUESTION 11
Which of the following TCP ports are used by FTP? (Select TWO).
A. 20
B. 21
C. 22
D. 23
E. 25
F. 80
Correct Answer: ABExplanation
Explanation/Reference:
FTP uses two ports by default: 21 for sending commands, and 20 for sending data. For instance if you said “FTP <ServerName>” it would make the attempt using
port 21. If the session was established, port 20 would be using for the data. NotE. These are the default ports which is what I assume you were asking. A server
administrator can however configure FTP to use whatever port he defines.

QUESTION 12
Which of the following protocols is MOST commonly used for the transfer of router configuration files?
A. SSL
B. TFTP
C. DNS
D. IMAP
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP) is a file transfer protocol notable for its simplicity. It is generally used for automated transfer of configuration or boot files
between machines in a local environment. Compared to FTP, TFTP is extremely limited, providing no authentication, and is rarely used interactively by a user.

QUESTION 13
Which of the following protocols resolves IP addresses to MAC addresses?
A. DNS
B. ARP
C. RARP
D. NTP
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
ARP is used to convert an IP address to a physical address such as an Ethernet address. ARP has been implemented with many combinations of network and
data link layer technologies, such as IPv4, Chaosnet, DECnet and Xerox PARC Universal Packet (PUP) using IEEE 802 standards, FDDI, X.25, Frame Relay and
Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM). IPv4 over IEEE 802.3 and IEEE 802.11 is the most common case.

QUESTION 14
Which of the following port numbers is used for SNMP?
A. 61
B. 151
C. 161
D. 1611
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) is an “Internet-standard protocol for managing devices on IP networks”. Devices that typically support SNMP
include routers, switches, servers, workstations, printers, modem racks, UPSes and more. It is used mostly in network management systems to monitor network-
attached devices for conditions that warrant administrative attention.

QUESTION 15
Which of the following is the definition of a DNS server?
A. Hosts proprietary business applications
B. Translates FQDN’s to IP addresses
C. Provides network IDS/IPS security
D. Assigns IP addresses to network devices
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Domain Name System (DNS) is the name resolution protocol for TCP/IP networks, such as the Internet. Client computers query a DNS server to resolve
memorable, alphanumeric DNS names to the IP addresses that computers use to communicate with each other.

QUESTION 16
Which of the following features can BEST be used to facilitate authorized remote access to a network?
A. VPN concentrator
B. Proxy server
C. Content filter
D. Load balancer
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The VPN Concentrator is used for Remote Access VPN’s. In typical use, a Remote Access VPN allows users to use an encrypted tunnel to securely access a
corporate or other network via the Internet.

QUESTION 17
Which of the following is a Class A IP address?
A. 10.4.0.1B. 169.254.0.1
C. 192.168.0.1
D. 254.200.0.1
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Class A ip address ranges from 10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255

QUESTION 18
A network where all traffic feeds through a centralized gateway uses which of the following topologies?
A. Peer-to-peer
B. Ring
C. Bus
D. Star
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A bus topology is a type of network setup where each computer and network device is connected to a single cable or backbone.

QUESTION 19
In order to limit the number of dynamic addresses of hosts on a network, which of the following can be implemented?
A. Scope options
B. Leases
C. Reservations
D. DNS suffixes
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 20
Which of the following switch features allows for both incoming and outgoing data across physical ports at the same time?
A. Burst-frame
B. Full-duplex
C. Half-duplex
D. VoIP
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A full-duplex (FDX), or sometimes double-duplex system, allows communication in both directions, and, unlike half-duplex, allows this to happen simultaneously.
Land-line telephone networks are full-duplex, since they allow both callers to speak and be heard at the same time

QUESTION 21
Which of the following is a common physical network topology?
A. Cross-over
B. Loopback
C. Star
D. Straight
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A star network consists of one central switch, hub or computer, which acts as a conduit to transmit messages. This consists of a central node, to which all other
nodes are connected; this central node provides a common connection point for all nodes through a hub. In star topology, every node (computer workstation or
any other peripheral) is connected to central node called hub or switch.

QUESTION 22
Which of the following is always true when a router selects a destination?
A. The default gateway is selected over any other static or dynamic route.
B. The shortest route is always selected.
C. The most specific route is selected over the default gateway.
D. A dynamic route is selected over a directly attached network.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Router always looks for the most closely matched route for forwarding the packet. For example if there are two routes in your router and you have to send a
packet to a host with an ip 10.10.10.10 then it will forward packet to 192.168.1.10 rather than 192.168.1.1:
Network Destination Netmask Gateway
0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.1
10.10.10.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.10

QUESTION 23
A proxy server would MOST likely be installed to provide which of the following functions? (Select TWO).
A. Combined DNS and DHCP hosting
B. Encryption
C. Content filtering
D. Fault tolerance
E. Website caching
Correct Answer: CE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A content-filtering web proxy server provides administrative control over the content that may be relayed in one or both directions through the proxy.
A caching proxy server accelerates service requests by retrieving content saved from a previous request made by the same client or even other clients.

QUESTION 24
Which of the following would the telecommunications carrier use to segregate customer traffic over long fiber links?
A. VLAN
B. MPLS
C. VPN
D. PSTN
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
MPLS is a mechanism in high-performance telecommunications networks that directs data from one network node to the next based on short path labels rather
than long network addresses, avoiding complex lookups in a routing table. The labels identify virtual links (paths) between distant nodes rather than endpoints

QUESTION 25
An administrator notices SMTP traffic is being blocked by the company firewall. Which of the following ports should be opened?
A. 25
B. 53
C. 110
D. 443
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
SMTP is an Internet standard for electronic mail (e-mail) transmission across Internet Protocol (IP) networks. SMTP uses TCP port 25.

QUESTION 26
Which of the following network topologies would be separated into two networks if a client in the middle is removed or the cable is cut?
A. Mesh
B. Ring
C. Bus
D. Star
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A bus network topology is a network topology in which a set of clients are connected via a shared communications line/cables, called a bus.

QUESTION 27
Which of the following is an example of a Class C address?
A. 10.19.0.79
B. 127.34.8.197
C. 176.96.1.222
D. 192.168.1.105
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Class C address range varies from 192.0.0.0 to 223.255.255.255.

QUESTION 28
A computer’s DNS has bad cach records.which tools can be used to clear the DNS record.
A. netstat
B. ipconfig
C. nslookup
D. tracert
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
ipconfig/flushdns will flush/clear the old DNS record, which includes good and bad cached records

QUESTION 29
A technician has low signal strength connecting two wireless bridges. Which of the following could be the problem?
A. Low PoE wattage
B. Opposing antenna polarizations
C. Short distance between antennas
D. WPA 2 encryption
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The polarization of an antenna is the orientation of the electric field (E-plane) of the radio wave with respect to the Earth’s surface and is determined by the
physical structure of the antenna and by its orientation. It has nothing in common with antenna directionality terms: “horizontal”, “vertical”, and “circular”. Thus, a
simple straight wire antenna will have one polarization when mounted vertically, and a different polarization when mounted horizontally.

QUESTION 30
Which of the following is a terminal emulator used to manage a network device?
A. VPN
B. IDS
C. PuTTY
D. IPS
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
PuTTY is a free and open-source terminal emulator, serial console and network file transfer application. It supports several network protocols, including SCP,
SSH, Telnet and rlogin.

QUESTION 31
A network administrator suspects a broadcast storm is causing performance issues on the network.
Which of the following would be used to verify this situation?
A. Environmental monitor
B. Multimeter
C. Toner probe
D. Protocol analyzer
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A “Protocol analyzer” is a tool (hardware or software) used to capture and analyze signals and data traffic over a communication channel.

QUESTION 32
Ann, a technician, is installing network cables for an office building. Some of the cables are not showing active on the switch even when moved to different ports.
Which of the following is MOST likely the cause?
A. Port speed mismatch
B. Faulty F-connectors
C. Bad wiring
D. Bad switch
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Bad wiring refers to the state when you do not follow a pattern and everything seems messed up and you are not able to figure out the cause.

QUESTION 33
After a new user moves furniture into a cubicle, the computer does not connect to the network any longer.
Which of the following would be the MOST likely reason? (Select TWO).
A. Bad Ethernet switch port
B. TX/RX reversed
C. Bad connectors
D. Bad patch cable
E. Mismatched MTU
Correct Answer: CD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
It could be problem with the bad connector because the user just moved furniture to the cubicle and it is quite possible that the movement of the furniture has
created problem by disrupting the cabling and connections. These two are the important things which can be broken down whenever there is a physical
movement.

QUESTION 34
Which of the following performance benefits would multiple domain controllers BEST provide?
A. Fault tolerance
B. Caching engine
C. Proxy serverD. Quality of service
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Fault-tolerant design is a design that enables a system to continue its intended operation, possibly at a reduced level, rather than failing completely, when some
part of the system fails. The term is most commonly used to describe computer-based systems designed to continue more or less fully operational with, perhaps, a
reduction in throughput or an increase in response time in the event of some partial failure

QUESTION 35
After a network technician has added a new workstation and cabling to the network, users report the network is very slow. The activity lights on all switches are
blinking rapidly, showing large amounts of traffic.
Which of the following is the BEST explanation for the traffic?
A. The new user is downloading large files.
B. The router failed, flooding the network with beacons.
C. The new user’s IP address is a duplicate.
D. A switching loop was created.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Switching loop or Bridge loop occurs in computer networks when there is more than one Layer 2 (OSI model) path between two endpoints (e.g. multiple
connections between two network switches or two ports on the same switch connected to each other). The loop creates broadcast radiation as broadcasts and
multicasts are forwarded by switches out every port, the switch or switches will repeatedly rebroadcast the broadcast messages flooding the network.

QUESTION 36
A company has recently allowed its employees to telecommute two days a week. The employees MUST have a minimum of 1Mbps non-shared connection to the
Internet.
Which of the following MUST the employees have at their home in order to connect to the Internet?
A. ISDN
B. Cable modem
C. DSL
D. Dial-up networking
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Digital subscriber line (DSL, originally digital subscriber loop) is a family of technologies that provide Internet access by transmitting digital data over the wires of a
local telephone network.

QUESTION 37
Some visitors are unable to access the wireless network. The network’s wireless infrastructure is comprised of three different buildings with the configurations
listed below. Wireless network in Building A and C is used exclusively for internal employees and Building B is used for visitors and requires no additional
configuration on their devices.
Which of the following settings would need to be modified to provide wireless access to all visitors?
Building A Building B Building C
Channel: 2 Channel: 6 Channel: 11
Encryption: WPA2 Encryption: WPA2 Encryption: WPA2
A. Encryption set to Open in all Buildings
B. Encryption set to Open in Building B
C. Encryption set to WEP in Building B
D. Channel set to 11 in Building B
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Because the building B is in the middle, the wireless access router will have reachability to the building A and C. Now, the only thing that we need to do is to open
the Wireless access on B for the guest users for the WAP in B so that the users coming to building A and C can get access to internet using the open connection.

QUESTION 38
Some employees are unable to maintain a wireless network connection. The network’s wireless infrastructure is comprised of three different buildings with the
configurations listed below. Wireless network in Building A and C is used exclusively for internal employees and Building B is used for visitors and requires no
additional configuration on their devices.
Which of the following settings would need to be modified to provide the BEST wireless experience for all employees as they move between buildings?
Building A Building B Building C
Channel: 1 Channel: 6 Channel: 11
Encryption: WPA2 Encryption: Open Encryption: WPA2
SSID. Corp SSID. Guest SSID. Sales
A. Change Channel in Building B to 7
B. Change Encryption in Building B to match A and C
C. Change Channel in Building C to 1
D. Change SSID in Building C to match Building A
Correct Answer: D
ExplanationExplanation/Reference:
The configuration difference between users in building A and C is that they have same encryption however the SSID is different so the user has to manually
authenticate and connect to the network whenever he will move between buildings. If the SSID’s are same then he will not have to authenticate himself again and
he will get automatic connectivity.

QUESTION 39
A technician has been given the task to install a wireless network in a user’s home.
Which of the following should the technician consider when implementing the network? (Select TWO).
A. That there is strong encryption enabled and configured on the access point.
B. The user’s home network has a correctly completed WHOIS entry.
C. The access point is broadcasting the SSID based upon manufacturer’s standards.
D. There are no conflicts of channels in use by neighboring wireless networks.
E. There are redundant internal DNS names set in the access point’s settings.
F. That the access point’s MAC address is properly set in its configuration settings.
Correct Answer: AD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Strong encryption is required to keep the user’s internet safe and secure so as to avoid misuse of the internet connection and to ensure that channel conflicts are
not there so that the signals do not compete with each other and user start to face intermittent connection.

QUESTION 40
A technician working for a company with a wireless network named WirelessA notices a second wireless network named WirelessB. WirelessB is MOST likely a:
A. man-in-the-middle attack
B. rogue access point
C. evil twin
D. packet sniffer
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A rogue access point is a wireless access point that has either been installed on a secure company network without explicit authorization from a local network
administrator, or has been created to allow a hacker to conduct a man-in-the-middle attack.

QUESTION 41
A user cannot access the LAN after working successfully most of the day.
Which of the following should the network administrator check FIRST?
A. VLAN settings
B. History logs
C. Patch cable
D. Port security
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A patch cable or patch cord or patch lead is an electrical or optical cable used to connect (“patch- in”) one electronic or optical device to another for signal routing.

QUESTION 42
Which of the following can be used to limit wireless network access to a single computer?
A. Configure PPP
B. Packet sniffing
C. MAC address filtering
D. Omni-directional antennas
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Wireless access can be filtered by using the Media Access Control (MAC) addresses of the wireless devices transmitting within your wireless network. You can
either permit or prevent specific wireless computers and devices access to your wireless network.

QUESTION 43
A small business owner is setting up a SOHO office. The business owner needs one device that will allow for Internet access, trunk VLANs, translate multiple
private IP addresses into public IP addresses, and filter packets.
Which of the following network devices will allow for all functions?
A. A VPN concentrator
B. A switch
C. A router
D. A firewall
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A router is a device which is capable of performing entire task required by the business owner.

QUESTION 44
A Linux-based workstation is unable to connect to an IP printer on the same network segment. The printer IP address settings have been verified.
How would a network technician verify IP address settings on the Linux-based workstation?
A. Run the dig command on the workstation.
B. Run the nslookup command on the workstation.
C. Run the ipconfig command on the workstation.
D. Run the ifconfig command on the workstation.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The “ifconfig” command allows the linux/unix operating system to setup network interfaces and allow the user to view information about the configured network
interfaces.

QUESTION 45
Users have been stating that they need to logon to too many applications and web apps with different credentials that use different rule sets.
Which of the following would BEST address these concerns?
A. Alter the domain account login policies to reflect the most common application rule sets.
B. Ensure that the user accounts are properly configured in domain services.
C. Implement a software solution that facilitates single sign-on authentication.
D. Increase the time between mandatory password changes by a factor of three.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A single signon permits a user to enter one name and password in order to access multiple applications

QUESTION 46
A network consultant arrives at a customer’s site to troubleshoot their email server. The server is running a Linux operating system, but the consultant is only
familiar with Windows operating systems.
Which of the following troubleshooting steps should the consultant take?
A. Document findings
B. Identify the problem
C. Escalate the problem
D. Establish a plan of action
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
It is better to escalate the problem if you are not aware of the situation as it saves downtime and keeps customer happy.

QUESTION 47
A network administrator is adding 24 – 802.3af class 2 VoIP phones and needs to purchase a single PoE switch to power the phones.
Which of the following is the MINIMUM PoE dedicated wattage the switch supports to power all of the phones at full power?
A. 96W
B. 168W
C. 240W
D. 369.6W
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The switch supports 168W to power all the phones at full power.

QUESTION 48
Which of the following defines a rack located in an office building between the main rack and other office equipment?
A. DSU
B. MDF
C. CSU
D. IDF
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
An intermediate distribution frame (IDF) is a distribution frame in a central office or customer premises, which cross-connects the user cable media to individual
user line circuits and may serve as a distribution point for multipair cables from the main distribution frame (MDF) or combined distribution frame (CDF) to
individual cables connected to equipment in areas remote from these frames.
IDFs are used for telephone exchange central office, customer-premise equipment, wide area network (WAN), and local area network (LAN) environments, among
others.

QUESTION 49
The ISP needs to terminate the WAN connection. The connection should be located in the network server room where the company LAN equipment resides.
Which of the following identifies the location?A. Smart jack
B. MDF
C. VPN
D. 66 block
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Short for main distribution frame, a cable rack that interconnects and manages the telecommunications wiring between itself and any number of IDFs. Unlike an
IDF, which connects internal lines to the MDF, the MDF connects private or public lines coming into a building with the internal network.

QUESTION 50
A Chief Executive Officer (CEO) decided that only a limited number of authorized company workstations will be able to connect to the Internet.
Which of the following would BEST accomplish this goal?
A. Use content filtering
B. Install and configure IDS
C. Enable MAC address filtering
D. Enable RAS on the network firewall
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Most Wi-Fi access points and routers ship with a feature called hardware or MAC address filtering. This feature is normally turned “off” by the manufacturer,
because it requires a bit of effort to set up properly. However, to improve the security of your Wi-Fi LAN (WLAN), strongly consider enabling and using MAC
address filtering.

QUESTION 51
Multiple computers are connected to a hub near a wall plate. In order to get to the computers, students step on and around the cable that connects the teacher’s
station, a few feet away, to the same hub. The teacher is experiencing no network connectivity.
Which of the following is MOST likely the problem?
A. Cross-talk
B. Split cables
C. Distance
D. EMI
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A split cable is invisible to wire maps and continuity testers, making it very difficult to troubleshoot.

QUESTION 52
Which of the following network topologies describes a network where each node is connected to every other node?
A. Bus
B. Star
C. Mesh
D. Ring
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
In a true mesh topology every node has a connection to every other node in the network.

QUESTION 53
Which of the following supports faster wireless broadband speeds?
A. Satellite
B. Wi-MAX
C. ISDN
D. OC-3
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Wi-MAX (Worldwide Interoperability for Microwave Access) is a wireless communications standard designed to provide 30 to 40 megabit-per-second data rates
with the 2011 update providing up to 1 G bit/s for fixed stations

QUESTION 54
Ann, a home user, wishes to confine a wireless network to devices ONLY inside of her house.
Which of the following will accomplish this?
A. Decreasing radio strength
B. MAC filtering
C. WEP encryption
D. SSID broadcast disable
Correct Answer: A
ExplanationExplanation/Reference:
Decreasing Radio Strength will reduce signal strength outside the house and will accomplish what she is intending to do.

QUESTION 55
Which of the following WAN technologies has the HIGHEST latency?
A. ADSL
B. LTE
C. Satellite
D. WiMAX
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Satellite WAN latency is the delay caused by the physical distance a signal must travel from earth, to the satellite, and back to earth to complete a round-trip
transmission. Because of the physics involved in the round-trip-time (RTT), end-to-end latency can take 600 milliseconds or more due to geosynchronous
satellites orbiting miles above the earth.

QUESTION 56
Which of the following connectors are MOST commonly used on a POTS line?
A. RJ-45
B. MTRJ
C. DB-9
D. RJ-11
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The six-position plug and jack commonly used for telephone line connections may be used for RJ11, RJ14 or even RJ25, all of which are actually names of
interface standards that use this physical connector. The RJ11 standard dictates a 2-wire connection, while RJ14 uses a 4-wire configuration, and RJ25 uses all
six wires. The RJ abbreviations, though, only pertain to the wiring of the jack (hence the name “registered jack”); it is commonplace but not strictly correct to refer
to an unwired plug connector by any of these names. Typically you’ll find the RJ-11 and RJ-14 on your Plain Old Telephone Service (POTS)

QUESTION 57
Which of the following cable types is required to run through an air duct?
A. UTP
B. Fiber
C. PVC
D. Plenum
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Plenum rated cable has a special insulation that has low smoke and low flame characteristics. Plenum cable is mandated to be installed in any “air handling”
space. For example, most large office buildings use the ceiling to return air to the AC unit. This qualifies this ceiling as a plenum ceiling, and all the cables that go
through that ceiling must be plenum rated.

QUESTION 58
Which of the following technologies can cause interference for 802.11g?
A. RADAR
B. 802.11a
C. IrDA
D. Bluetooth
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
This wireless communication standard has a maximum transmission speed of 54 Mbits per second and a typical indoor range of 30 meters. It uses the 2.4 GHz
band. This band may have to deal with interference from cordless telephones, Bluetooth devices, and various appliances.

QUESTION 59
Which of the following reduces the deployment cost of a wireless LAN?
A. WPA
B. 802.1x
C. MIMO
D. PoE
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Power over Ethernet or PoE describes any of several standardized or ad-hoc systems which pass electrical power along with data on Ethernet cabling. This allows
a single cable to provide both data connection and electrical power to devices such as wireless access points or IP cameras.

QUESTION 60
Which of the following is the MAXIMUM rated speed for CAT5 cabling?
A. 10Mbps
B. 100MbpsC. 1000Mbps
D. 10Gbps
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Category 5 cable (Cat 5) is a twisted pair cable for carrying signals. This type of cable is used in structured cabling for computer networks such as Ethernet. The
cable standard provides performance of up to 100 MHz and is suitable for 10BASE-T, 100BASE-TX (Fast Ethernet), and 1000BASE-T (Gigabit Ethernet)

QUESTION 61
Which of the following connector types would be found with a VoIP system utilizing CAT6 cabling?
A. SC
B. RJ-45
C. RJ-11
D. BNC
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The heavier wire in some Cat 6 cables makes them too thick to attach to standard 8P8C (RJ-45) connectors without a special modular piece

QUESTION 62
A technician notices a newly installed CAT5 cable is longer than the standard maximum length.
Which of the following problems would this MOST likely cause?
A. Split cable
B. EMI
C. DB loss
D. Crosstalk
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The maximum length for a cable segment is 100 m per TIA/EIA 568-5-A. If longer runs are required, the use of active hardware such as a repeater or switch is
necessary. The specifications for 10BASE-T networking specify a 100metre length between active devices. This allows for 90metres of solid-core permanent
wiring, two connectors and two stranded patch cables of 5metres, one at each end.

QUESTION 63
Which of the following could be installed to allow a home user with one desktop computer to economically have Internet access in every room in the house?
A. Fiber optic
B. CAT6
C. Broadband over powerline
D. CAT5
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Internet access service through existing power lines is often marketed as broadband over power lines (BPL), also known as power-line Internet or powerband. A
computer (or any other device) would need only to plug a BPL modem into any outlet in an equipped building to have high-speed Internet access

QUESTION 64
Which of the following 802.11 standards transmits the signals the GREATEST distance?
A. a
B. b
C. g
D. n
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
802.11n uses multiple antennas to increase data rates.

QUESTION 65
Which of the following fiber types is MOST often used indoors?
A. Plenum
B. Modal conditioning
C. Multimode
D. Singlemode
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Multi-mode optical fiber is a type of optical fiber mostly used for communication over short distances, such as within a building or on a campus.
Typical multimode links have data rates of 10 Mbit/s to 10 Gbit/s over link lengths of up to 600 meters (2000 feet) and 10 Gbit/s for 300m (1000 feet) — more than
sufficient for the majority of premises applications.

QUESTION 66
Users are reporting wired connectivity drops in a new office with brand new CAT6 infrastructure.
Which of the following tools should a technician use to BEST troubleshoot this issue?
A. OTDR
B. Protocol analyzer
C. Toner probe
D. Cable certifier
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A cable certifier is an electronic device used to verify the source of electric current, voltage and a switching matrix used to connect the current source and the volt
meter to all of the contact points in a cable.

QUESTION 67
Which of the following wireless technologies only uses the 5GHz spectrum but reaches a theoretical throughput of only 54Mbps?
A. A
B. B
C. G
D. N
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
802.11a standard uses the same core protocol as the original standard, operates in 5 GHz band, and uses a 52-subcarrier orthogonal frequency-division
multiplexing (OFDM) with a maximum raw data rate of 54 Mbit/s, which yields realistic net achievable throughput in the mid-20 Mbit/s. The data rate is reduced to
48, 36, 24, 18, 12, 9 then 6 Mbit/s if required.

QUESTION 68
Which of the following WAN technology types has the GREATEST latency?
A. ISDN
B. Fiber
C. Satellite
D. Cable
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Because satellites provide a microwave radio relay technology complementary to that of communication cables. They are also used for mobile applications such
as communications to ships, vehicles, planes and hand-held terminals, and for TV and radiobroadcasting.

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