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1.0 Security Concepts 12%
2.0 Secure Access 14%
3.0 VPN 17%
4.0 Secure Routing and Switching 18%
5.0 Cisco Firewall Technologies 18%
6.0 IPS 9%
7.0 Content and Endpoint Security

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QUESTION 21
Which ports need to be active for AAA server and a Microsoft server to permit Active Directory authentication?
A. 445 and 389
B. 888 and 3389
C. 636 and 4445
D. 363 and 983
210-260 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 22
DRAG DROP
Drag the hash or algorithm from the left column to its appropriate category on the right.
Select and Place:
210-260 dumps
Correct Answer:
210-260 dumps
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 23
If a switch receives a superior BPDU and goes directly into a blocked state, what mechanism must be in use?
A. root guard
B. EtherChannel guard
C. loop guard
D. BPDU guard
210-260  dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 24
Which two are valid types of VLANs using PVLANs? (Choose two.)
A. Backup VLAN
B. Secondary VLAN
C. Promiscuous VLAN
D. Community VLAN
E. Isolated VLAN
Correct Answer: DE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 25
Which two are the default settings for port security? (Choose two.)
A. Violation is Protect
B. Maximum number of MAC addresses is 1
C. Violation is Restrict
D. Violation is Shutdown
E. Maximum number of MAC addresses is 2
210-260 pdf Correct Answer: BD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 26
Refer to the exhibit.
210-260 dumps
Which area represents the data center?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 27
Refer to the exhibit.
210-260 dumps
A network security administrator checks the ASA firewall NAT policy table with the show nat command. Which statement is false?
A. First policy in the Section 1 is dynamic nat entry defined in the object configuration.
B. There are only reverse translation matches for the REAL_SERVER object.
C. NAT policy in Section 2 is a static entry defined in the object configuration.
D. Translation in Section 3 is used when a connection does not match any entries in first two sections.
210-260 vce Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 28
Which two are characteristics of RADIUS? (Choose two.)
A. Uses TCP ports 1812/1813
B. Uses UDP port 49
C. Encrypts only the password between user and server
D. Uses TCP port 49
E. Uses UDP ports 1812/1813
Correct Answer: CE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 29
Which two types of firewalls work at layer 4 and above? (Choose two.)
A. Application level firewall
B. Circuit-level gateway
C. Static packet filter
D. Network Address Translation
E. Stateful inspection
210-260 exam Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 30
When setting up a site-to-site VPN with PSK authentication on a Cisco router, which two elements must be configured under crypto map? (Choose two.)
A. nat
B. peer
C. pfs
D. reverse-route
E. transform-set
Correct Answer: BE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 31
Which two commands are used to implement Resilient IOS Configuration? (Choose two.)
A. copy flash:/ios.bin tftp
B. copy running-config tftp
C. copy running-config startup-config
D. secure boot-image
E. secure boot-config
210-260 dumps Correct Answer: DE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 32
Which two events would cause the state table of a stateful firewall to be updated? (Choose two.)
A. when a connection’s timer has expired within the state table
B. when a connection is created
C. when rate-limiting is applied
D. when a packet is evaluated against the outbound access list and is denied
E. when an outbound packet is forwarded to the outbound interface
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 33
Which IPSec mode is used to encrypt traffic directly between a client and a server VPN endpoint?
A. transport mode
B. tunnel mode
C. aggressive mode
D. quick mode
210-260 pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 34
On an ASA, the policy that indicates that traffic should not be translated is often referred to as which of the following?
A. NAT zero
B. NAT forward
C. NAT null
D. NAT allow
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 35
What is true of an ASA in transparent mode?
A. It requires a management IP address
B. It allows the use of dynamic NAT
C. It requires an IP address for each interface
D. It supports OSPF
210-260 vce Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 36
Which component offers a variety of security solutions, including firewall, IPS, VPN, antispyware, antivirus, and antiphishing features?
A. Cisco IOS router
B. Cisco ASA 5500-X Series Next Gen. Security appliance
C. Cisco 4200 series IPS appliance
D. Cisco ASA 5500 series security appliance
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 37
How does a zone pair handle traffic if the policy definition of the zone pair is missing?
A. It permits all traffic without logging.
B. It drops all traffic.
C. It inspects all traffic.
D. It permits and logs all traffic.
210-260 exam Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 38
Which command do you enter to configure your firewall to conceal internal addresses?
A. no ip logging facility
B. no ip directed-broadcast
C. no ip inspect
D. no proxy-arp
E. no ip source-route
F. no ip inspect audit-trail
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 39
Which IOS command do you enter to test authentication against a AAA server?
A. aaa authentication enable default test group tacacs+
B. dialer aaa suffix password C. ppp authentication chap pap test
D. test aaa-server authentication dialergroup username password
210-260 dumps Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 40
Which technology can block a non-malicious program that is run from a local computer that has been disconnected from the network?
A. antivirus software
B. firewall
C. host IPS
D. network IPS
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

Exam Code: 210-260
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Network Security
Q&As: 329

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IINS Study Material:

Security Concepts

  • Implementing Cisco Network Security (IINS) v3.0CLN Store Content
  • CCNA Security Official Study Guide by Cisco PressCisco Press Content
  • Diffie Hellman Exchange
  • Mitigating Layer 2 Attacks
  • CCNA Security 210-260 Complete Video CourseCisco Press Content
  • CCNA Security (210-260) Portable Command Guide, 2nd EditionCisco Press Content
  • Current Security Threat Landscape Networking Talks LiveLessonsCisco Press Content
  • Cisco Firepower Threat Defense (FTD): Configuration and Troubleshooting Best Practices for the Next-Generation Firewall (NGFW), Next-Generation Intrusion Prevention System (NGIPS), and Advanced Malware Protection (AMP)

Secure Access

  • Implementing Cisco Network Security (IINS) v3.0CLN Store Content
  • Securing Cisco Routers 1.0 (SECR)
  • CCNA Security Prep from Networkers
  • CCNA Security 210-260 Complete Video CourseCisco Press Content
  • CCNA Security (210-260) Portable Command Guide, 2nd EditionCisco Press Content
  • Cisco Firepower Threat Defense (FTD): Configuration and Troubleshooting Best Practices for the Next-Generation Firewall (NGFW), Next-Generation Intrusion Prevention System (NGIPS), and Advanced Malware Protection (AMP)

VPN

  • Implementing Cisco Network Security (IINS) v3.0CLN Store Content
  • CCNA Security: IPsec VPNs
  • CCNA Security: SSL VPNs Varies
  • Configuring IPsec Site-to-Site VPN
  • Site-to-Site IPsec VPN Operations
  • Diffie Hellman Exchange
  • Securing Cisco Routers 1.0 (SECR)
  • CCNA Security 210-260 Complete Video CourseCisco Press Content
  • CCNA Security (210-260) Portable Command Guide, 2nd EditionCisco Press Content

Secure Routing and Switching

  • Implementing Cisco Network Security (IINS) v3.0CLN Store Content
  • Mitigating Layer 2 Attacks
  • Hardening Cisco IOS Devices
  • Securing Cisco Routers 1.0 (SECR)
  • CCNA Security 210-260 Complete Video CourseCisco Press Content
  • CCNA Security (210-260) Portable Command Guide, 2nd EditionCisco Press Content

Cisco Firewall Technologies

  • Implementing Cisco Network Security (IINS) v3.0CLN Store Content
  • CCNA Security 210-260 Complete Video CourseCisco Press Content
  • CCNA Security (210-260) Portable Command Guide, 2nd EditionCisco Press Content
  • Cisco Next-Generation Security Solutions: All-in-one Cisco ASA Firepower Services, NGIPS, and AMPCisco Press Content

IPS

  • Implementing Cisco Network Security (IINS) v3.0CLN Store Content
  • Chapter 6: Network Security Using Cisco IOS IPS
  • Chapter 5: Cisco IOS IPS
  • Securing Hosts Using Cisco Security Agent (HIPS) v3.1
  • Securing Cisco Routers 1.0 (SECR)
  • CCNA Security 210-260 Complete Video CourseCisco Press Content
  • CCNA Security (210-260) Portable Command Guide, 2nd EditionCisco Press Content
  • Introduction to FirePOWER & FireSIGHT Policies
  • Cisco Next-Generation Security Solutions: All-in-one Cisco ASA Firepower Services, NGIPS, and AMPCisco Press Content
  • Cisco Firepower Threat Defense (FTD): Configuration and Troubleshooting Best Practices for the Next-Generation Firewall (NGFW), Next-Generation Intrusion Prevention System (NGIPS), and Advanced Malware Protection (AMP)

Content and Endpoint Security

  • Implementing Cisco Network Security (IINS) v3.0CLN Store Content
  • Securing Hosts Using Cisco Security Agent (HIPS) v3.1
  • CCNA Security 210-260 Complete Video CourseCLN Store Content
  • CCNA Security (210-260) Portable Command Guide, 2nd EditionCLN Store Content
  • Introduction to FirePOWER & FireSIGHT Policies
  • Cisco Next-Generation Security Solutions: All-in-one Cisco ASA Firepower Services, NGIPS, and AMPCisco Press Content
  • Cisco Firepower Threat Defense (FTD): Configuration and Troubleshooting Best Practices for the Next-Generation Firewall (NGFW), Next-Generation Intrusion Prevention System (NGIPS), and Advanced Malware Protection (AMP)

This exam tests the candidate’s knowledge of secure network infrastructure, understanding core security concepts, managing secure access, VPN encryption, firewalls, intrusion prevention, web and email content security, and endpoint security. This exam validates skills for installation, troubleshooting, and monitoring of a secure network to maintain integrity, confidentiality, and availability of data and devices. The pass4itsure practice test 210-260 prepares candidates for the Cisco exam 210-260: Implementing Cisco Network Security exam. This exam also shows competency in the technologies that Cisco uses in its security infrastructure. Experts assess students’ capability through pass4itsure 210-260 dumps exams. Pass4itsure have remarkably contributed to a vital role in your life and also the improvement of your living standards. Candidates can prepare for this exam by taking the Implementing Cisco Network Security (IINS) course.
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Download Complete List of Topics in PDF format
  • 1.0 Implement Cisco Unified Computing 28%
  • 2.0 Unified Computing Maintenance and Operations 20%
  • 3.0 Automation 12%
  • 4.0 Unified Computing Security 13%
  • 5.0 Unified Computing Storage 27%

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1. According to the SAS Rapid Warehousing Methodology, which of the following are valid outputs from the Requirements Phase? I.project plan II.cost/benefit analysis III.logical and physical models IV.metadata exploitation, population, and update process
A. I and II only
B. I, II, and III only
C. I, II, and IV only
D. I, II, III, and IV
300-175 exam Answer: A

2. Which of the following provides read access control to a SAS dataset?
A. Racf and RSA
B. LDAP and Racf
C. Roscoe and RSA
D. Panvelet and Roscoe
Answer: B

3. The performance scalability of SAS full table scans is being estimated. Which of the following metrics is appropriate for direct attached storage?
A. I/O per second
B. I/O latency per request
C. I/O request average size
D. I/O in megabytes per second
300-175 dumps Answer: D

4. Usage success criteria have been defined for a data warehouse project. Which of the following metrics supports these criteria?
A. number of queries in a given time period
B. performance against a pre-warehouse baseline
C. number of gigabytes of data stored in the warehouse
D. amount of time between the close of business and warehouse refresh
Answer: A

5. A data warehouse uses a relational database management system (RDBMS) for its core data repository. Bulk loading has been proposed as the method for loading larger RDBMS tables into the warehouse. Which of the following must be considered when developing the bulk load routines? I.indexes II.join efficiency III.integrity constraints IV.representation of null values
A. I and II only
B. III and IV only
C. I, II, and III only
D. I, III, and IV only
300-175 pdf Answer: D

6. Which of the following factors must be considered when designing an efficient client-server ad hoc query system?
A. output appearance
B. user access privileges
C. graphical user interface
D. number of rows in the result set
Answer: D

7. During warehouse process and architecture planning, which of the following are required inputs for an
effective gap analysis of the operational source systems? I.detailed logical models II.locations of source
data III.detailed physical models IV.business requirements document
A. I and III only
B. III and IV only
C. I, II, and IV only
D. I, III, and IV only
300-175 vce Answer: D

8. A diagram of a logical entity-relationship model of a magazine subscription company is shown below: Which of the following statements about this model is true?
A. Every sales region has several sales reps.
B. A package may be related to several subscriptions.
C. All magazines are included in at least one package.
D. A subscription may be related to several subscribers.
Answer: B

9. A medical insurance company has developed a data warehouse containing confidential data about its customers. Power users require OLAP functionality with reach-through to the detail data. Which of the following supports the users’ requirements while protecting customer privacy?
A. providing only aggregated statistics
B. securing the data within the OLAP application
C. securing sensitive data within the detail schema
D. suppressing personal details from summarized reports
300-175 exam Answer: C

10. A SAS reporting application is used by 100 users within a company. The user base is equally divided between power, intermediate, and novice users. All users are currently sharing the same temporary space when executing queries to produce reports. Examination of the user logs indicates I/O contention
when using the temporary space. Which of the following would improve I/O performance?
A. prioritizing execution of all jobs by user level
B. assigning all 100 users their individual temporary space
C. forcing all users to execute queries using permanent space
D. using logical partitioning of the temporary space by user group
Answer: B

QUESTION: 11
When applying the Messaging Metadata pattern, it is customary to place business document data in the message header and supplementary messaging metadata in the message body.
A. True
B. False
300-175 dumps Answer: B

QUESTION: 12
The Messaging Metadata pattern requires a messaging framework that supports the processing of messages with headers or properties.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

QUESTION: 13
Which of the following statements is false?
A. Widespread use of the Messaging Metadata pattern can be seen in the emergence of many WS-* extensions that define industry standard SOAP header blocks that carry metadata.
B. Messaging frameworks and technologies need to provide support for the reading and writing of message headers or properties in order to fully support the application of the Messaging Metadata pattern.
C. The Messaging Metadata pattern is not applicable to situations where the message sender and receiver need to participate in stateful or conversational message exchanges.
D. The Messaging Metadata pattern can support the application of patterns such as Intermediate Routing by supplementing messages with activity-specific metadata.
300-175 exam Answer: C

QUESTION: 14
A service agent has a technical contract that allows it to be explicitly invoked by service consumer programs.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

QUESTION: 15
Which of the following functions would not be suitable for a typical service agent?
A. event logging
B. message routing
C. complex Web service composition
D. error logging
300-175 dumps Answer: C

QUESTION: 16
The use of service agents will affect the design of service compositions as follows:
A. it will tend to increase the number of required services
B. it will tend to decrease the number of required services
C. it will tend to increase the number of required service compositions
D. it will tend to decrease the number of required service compositions
Answer: B

QUESTION: 17
Which of the following statements is true?
A. The overuse of service agents can lead to dependencies on proprietary vendor platforms.
B. The use of service agents is limited to the service architecture.
C. Service agents are common in orchestration environments but not within enterprise service bus environments.
D. None of these statements are true.
300-175 pdf Answer: A

QUESTION: 8
Governance can become an issue with service agents because:
A. You will need to determine who will own and maintain the service agents.
B. Changes to a single service agent can impact multiple services throughout a service inventory.
C. Service agents need to be versioned, just like services.
D. All of the above.
Answer: D

QUESTION: 9
Which of the following patterns may also require the application of the Service Agent pattern?
A. Reliable Messaging
B. Asynchronous Queuing
C. Intermediate Routing
D. Policy Centralization
300-175 exam Answer: A, B, C, D

QUESTION: 10
Which statement regarding intermediate routing is true?
A. The application of the Intermediate Routing pattern is suitable for handling message routing requirements that are dynamic in nature and difficult to anticipate in advance.
B. The application of the Intermediate Routing pattern is suitable for handling pre determined message paths with fixed routing requirements that cannot be changed at runtime.
C. The application of the Intermediate Routing pattern tends to improve runtime performance when compared to an approach whereby routing logic is embedded within individual services.
D. None of these statements are true.
Answer: A

QUESTION: 11
The application of the Intermediate Routing pattern can address which of the following needs?
A. The need to increase the autonomy of a service due to its reliance on a shared data source.
B. The need to perform content-based routing based upon metadata found in the message header.
C. The need for load-balanced access to a redundantly deployed service.
D. The need to provide pre-defined compensating logic for when an atomic service transaction fails.
300-175 dumps Answer: B, C

QUESTION: 12
Load balancing is commonly associated with which pattern?
A. Atomic Service Transaction
B. Intermediate Routing
C. Service Broker
D. Decoupled Contract
Answer: B

QUESTION: 13
The use of the Intermediate Routing pattern typically results in:
A. common routing logic being removed from service logic and placed into service agents
B. common routing logic being removed from service agents and placed into a database
C. common routing logic being physically centralized into a single service
D. common routing logic being physically centralized into a single service composition
300-175 pdf Answer: A

QUESTION: 14
The application of the Intermediate Routing pattern can result in multiple service agents intercepting a message before it arrives at its destination.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

QUESTION:15
When applying the Asynchronous Queuing pattern you aim to establish an environment in which:
A. an intermediate buffer exists between a service and its service consumer
B. temporary message storage is provided in case either the service or service consumer are unavailable
C. periodic re-transmission of a message is supported until it is successfully delivered
D. enforcement of consistent, uninterrupted, synchronous communication between service and service consumer are guaranteed
300-175 vce Answer: A, B, C

QUESTION: 16
The queue established by applying the Asynchronous Queuing pattern enables service consumer and service to revert to a stateless condition before a data exchange has fully completed.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

QUESTION: 17
The Reliable Messaging pattern requires:
A. the use of standardized service contracts in order to enable message atomic transaction details to be carried in the message header
B. a framework for temporarily persisting messages and issuing acknowledgements
C. the application of the Official Endpoint pattern in order to enable acknowledgement features
D. a framework capable of bridging disparate messaging protocols in order to exchange schemas between compatible services
300-175 exam Answer: B
300-175 dumps
Exam Code: 300-175
Exam Name: DCUCI Implementing Cisco Data Center Unified Computing (DCUCI)
Q&As: 249

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Implement Unified Computing:

  • BRKINI-2201 – Deploying Cisco UCS in Modern Datacenters
  • Cisco Unified Computing System At-a-glance
  • Cisco Data Center Equipment and Technology Overview
  • Cisco UCS B-Series Blade Servers
  • Cisco UCS C-Series Rack Servers
  • Cisco UCS Manager Support Documentation And Software
  • Cisco UCS Central Software Support Documentation And Software
  • Cisco UCS Director Support Documentation And Software
  • Understanding Cisco Unified Computing System Service Profiles

Unified Computing Maintenance and Operations

  • Cisco UCS Manager Support Documentation And Software
  • BRKCOM-3008 – Unraveling UCS Manager Features, Policies and Mechanics

Automation

  • DEVNET-2060 – Managing Cisco UCS with the Python SDK
  • Introduction to Python Programming
  • Cisco UCS Manager Support Documentation And Software

Unified Computing Security

  • Cisco UCS Manager Support Documentation And Software

Unified Computing Storage

  • Cisco UCS Manager Support Documentation And Software
  • BRKCOM-2007 – UCS Storage Integration, Technologies, and Topologies
  • Storage Networking Protocol Fundamentals
  • Storage Networking Fundamentals: An Introduction to Storage Devices, Subsystems, Applications, Management, and File Systems 480

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QUESTION 18
Which cloud computing characteristic enables consumers to grow and shrink the demand for resources dynamically?
A. Rapid elasticity
B. Resource pooling
C. Measured service
D. On-demand self-service
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Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Rapid Elasticity
Capabilities can be elastically provisioned and released, in some cases automatically, to scale rapidly outward and inward commensurate with demand. To the consumer, the capabilities available for provisioning often appear to be unlimited and can be appropriated in any quantity at any time. Consumers can leverage rapid elasticity of the cloud when they have a fluctuation in their IT resource requirements. For example, an organization might require doubling the number of web and application servers for a specific duration to accomplish a specific task. For the remaining period, they might want to release idle server resources to cut down the expenses. The cloud enables consumers to grow and shrink the demand for resources dynamically.
QUESTION 19
Which operation is performed while creating a VM snapshot?
A. Create a delta file to record changes to the virtual disk since the session is activated
B. Capture the configuration data of a VM to create an identical copy of the VM
C. Create a journal volume to update changes to the snapshot
D. Create a “Gold” copy of the snapshot before copying changes to the virtual disk
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
VM Snapshot
VM Snapshot captures the state and data of a running virtual machine at a specific point in time. The VM state includes VM files, such as BIOS, network configuration, and its power state (powered-on, powered off, or suspended). The VM data includes all the files that make up the VM, including virtual disks and memory. A VM Snapshot uses a separate delta file to record all the changes to the virtual disk since the snapshot session is activated. Snapshots are useful when a VM needs to be reverted to the previous state in the event of logical corruptions. EMC E10-001 Student Resource Guide. Module 11: Local Replication
QUESTION 20
Which cloud computing capability enables monitoring and reporting resource usage?
A. Metering

B. Pooling
C. Self-service requesting
D. Publishing
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Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Measured Service
Cloud systems automatically control and optimize resource use by leveraging a metering capability at some level of abstraction appropriate to the type of service (example, storage, processing, bandwidth, and active user accounts). Resource usage can be monitored, controlled, and reported, providing transparency for both the provider and consumer of the utilized service.
QUESTION 21
In the context of protecting the FC SAN infrastructure, what is an example of infrastructure integrity?
A. Preventing node login to the fabric without proper authorization
B. Implementing iSNS discovery domains
C. Implementing an FSPF algorithm to create a virtual SAN
D. Not permitting physical segmentation of nodes
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Security controls for protecting the storage infrastructure address the threats of unauthorized tampering of data in transit that leads to a loss of data integrity, denial of service that compromises availability, and network snooping that may result in loss of confidentiality. The security controls for protecting the network fall into two general categories: network infrastructure integrity and storage network encryption. Controls for ensuring the infrastructure integrity include a fabric switch function that ensures fabric integrity. This is achieved by preventing a host from being added to the SAN fabric without proper authorization. Storage network encryption methods include the use of IPSec for protecting IP-based storage networks, and FC SP for protecting FC networks.
QUESTION 22
What is true about parity-based RAID?
A. Parity is updated each time a write is performed
B. Parity is read each time a read is performed
C. Parity is updated only when writes fill a stripe
D. Parity is updated each time when both reads and writes are performed
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Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Compared to mirroring, parity implementation considerably reduces the cost associated with data protection. Consider an example of a parity RAID configuration with five disks where four disks hold data, and the fifth holds the parity information. In this example, parity requires only 25 percent extra disk space compared to mirroring, which requires 100 percent extra disk space. However, there are some disadvantages of using parity. 
Parity information is generated from data on the data disk. Therefore, parity is recalculated every time there is a change in data. This recalculation is time-consuming and affects the performance of the RAID array. When choosing a RAID type, it is imperative to consider its impact on disk performance and application IOPS. In both mirrored and parity RAID configurations, every write operation translates into more I/O overhead for the disks, which is referred to as a write penalty. In a RAID 1 implementation, every write operation must be performed on two disks configured as a mirrored pair, whereas in a RAID 5 implementation, a write operation may manifest as four I/O operations. When performing I/Os to a disk configured with RAID 5, the controller has to read, recalculate, and write a parity segment for every data write operation.
QUESTION 23
What is an accurate statement about a gateway NAS solution?
A. NAS head and storage are managed independently
B. Consolidates file-level and block-level access on a single storage platform
C. Provides integrated management for both NAS head and storage
D. Creates a single file system that runs on all NAS heads
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A gateway NAS device consists of one or more NAS heads and uses external and independently managed storage. Similar to unified NAS, the storage is shared with other applications that uses block-level I/O. Management functions in this type of solution are more complex than those in a unified NAS environment because there are separate administrative tasks for the NAS head and the storage. A gateway solution can use the FC infrastructure, such as switches and directors for accessing SAN-attached storage arrays or direct-attached storage arrays. The gateway NAS is more scalable compared to unified NAS because NAS heads and storage arrays can be independently scaled up when required. For example, NAS heads can be added to scale up the NAS device performance. When the storage limit is reached, it can scale up, adding capacity on the SAN, independent of NAS heads. Similar to a unified NAS, a gateway NAS also enables high utilization of storage capacity by sharing it with the SAN environment.
QUESTION 24
What is prevented using RAID technology?
A. Data loss
B. Host Bus Adapter failures
C. Security breach
D. Switch failure
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Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Today’s data centers house hundreds of disk drives in their storage infrastructure. Disk drives are inherently susceptible to failures due to mechanical wear and tear and other environmental factors, which could result in data loss. The greater the number of disk drives in a storage array, the greater the probability of a disk failure in the array. For example, consider a storage array of 100 disk drives, each with an average life expectancy of 750,000 hours. The average life expectancy of this collection in the array, therefore, is 750,000/100 or 7,500 hours. This means that a disk drive in this array is likely to fail at least once in 7,500 hours. 
RAID is an enabling technology that leverages multiple drives as part of a set that provides data protection against drive failures. In general, RAID implementations also improve the storage system performance by serving I/Os from multiple disks simultaneously. Modern arrays with flash drives also benefit in terms of protection and performance by using RAID.
QUESTION 25
Which process minimizes the exposure to a loss of uncommitted cached data when there is a power failure?
A. Cache vaulting
B. Cache mirroring
C. Low watermarking
D. Prefetching
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Cache Data Protection
Cache is volatile memory, so a power failure or any kind of cache failure will cause loss of the data that is not yet committed to the disk. This risk of losing uncommitted data held in cache can be mitigated using cache mirroring and cache vaulting: Cache mirroring: Each write to cache is held in two different memory locations on two independent memory cards. If a cache failure occurs, the write data will still be safe in the mirrored location and can be committed to the disk. Reads are staged from the disk to the cache; therefore, if a cache failure occurs, the data can still be accessed from the disk. Because only writes are mirrored, this method results in better utilization of the available cache. In cache mirroring approaches, the problem of maintaining cache
coherency is introduced. Cache coherency means that data in two different cache locations must be identical at all times. It is the responsibility of the array operating environment to ensure coherency. Cache vaulting: The risk of data loss due to power failure can be addressed in various ways: powering the memory with a battery until the AC power is restored or using battery power to write the cache content to the disk. If an extended power failure occurs, using batteries is not a viable option. This is because in intelligent storage systems, large amounts of data might need to be committed to numerous disks, and batteries might not provide power for sufficient time to write each piece of data to its intended disk. Therefore, storage vendors use a set of physical disks to dump the contents of cache during power failure. This is called cache vaulting and the disks are called vault drives. When power is restored, data from these disks is written back to write cache and then written to the intended disks.
QUESTION 26
What are the three elements of the risk triad from an information security perspective?
A. Assets, threats, and vulnerabilities
B. Actions, threats, and vulnerabilities
C. Assets, threats, and countermeasures
D. Assets, countermeasures, and vulnerabilities
700-172 exam 
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 27
Which cloud computing characteristic enables consumers to request resources using a service catalog through a web-based user interface?
A. On-demand self-service
B. Broad network access
C. Metered services
D. Catalog management
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
On-Demand Self-Service
A consumer can unilaterally provision computing capabilities, such as server time and network storage, as needed automatically without requiring human interaction with each service provider. A cloud service provider publishes a service catalogue, which contains information about all cloud services available to consumers. The service catalogue includes information about service attributes, prices, and request processes. Consumers view the service catalogue via a web-based user interface and use it to request for a service. Consumers can either leverage the “ready-to- use” services or change a few service parameters to customize the services.
QUESTION 28
What is a purpose for distributing Switch Registered State Change Notifications (SW-RSCNs) in a fabric?
A. Updates the name server on all switches in the fabric
B. Stops or slows down transmissions from other switches in the fabric

C. Distributes configuration values and congestion notifications across the fabric
D. Exchanges requests for change notifications among distributed management servers
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Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Fabric Services
Each switch has a Fabric Controller located at the predefined address FFFFFD. The Fabric Controller provides services to both node ports and other switches. The Fabric Controller is responsible for managing and distributing Registered State Change Notifications (RSCNs) to the node ports registered with the Fabric Controller. If there is a change in the fabric, RSCNs are sent out by a switch to the attached node ports. The Fabric Controller also generates Switch Registered State Change Notifications (SW-RSCNs) to every other domain (switch) in the fabric. These RSCNs keep the name server up-to-date on all switches in the fabric.

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QUESTION 7
What is needed to perform a non-disruptive migration of virtual machines (VMs) between hypervisors?
A. Hypervisors must have access to the same storage volume
B. Physical machines running hypervisors must have the same configuration
C. Hypervisors must be running within the same physical machine
D. Both hypervisors must have the same IP address
300-210 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
VM Migration: Hypervisor-to-Hypervisor
In hypervisor-to-hypervisor VM migration, the entire active state of a VM is moved from one hypervisor to another. This method involves copying the contents of virtual machine memory from the source hypervisor
  to the target and then transferring the control of the VM’s disk files to the target hypervisor. Because the virtual disks of the VMs are not migrated, this technique requires both source and target hypervisor access to the same storage.
EMC E10-001 Student Resource Guide. Module 12: Remote Replication
QUESTION 8
Which iSCSI name requires an organization to own a registered domain name?
A. IQN
B. EUI
C. WWNN
D. WWPN
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
iSCSI Name
A unique worldwide iSCSI identifier, known as an iSCSI name, is used to identify the initiators and targets within an iSCSI network to facilitate communication. The unique identifier can be a combination of the names of the department, application, or manufacturer, serial number, asset number, or any tag that can be used to recognize and manage the devices. Following are two types of iSCSI names commonly used:· iSCSI Qualified Name (IQN): An organization must own a registered domain name to generate iSCSI Qualified Names. This domain name does not need to be active or resolve to an address. It just needs to be reserved to prevent other organizations from using the same domain name to generate iSCSI names. A date is included in the name to avoid potential conflicts caused by the transfer of domain names. An example of an IQN is iqn.2008-02.com.example:optional_string. The optional_string provides a serial number, an asset number, or any other device identifiers. An iSCSI Qualified Name enables storage administrators to assign meaningful names to iSCSI devices, and therefore, manage those devices more easily. Extended Unique Identifier (EUI): An EUI is a globally unique identifier based on the IEEE EUI-64 naming standard. An EUI is composed of the eui prefix followed by a 16-character exadecimal name, such as
eui.0300732A32598D26. In either format, the allowed special characters are dots, dashes, and blank spaces. EMC E10-001 Student Resource Guide. Module 6: IP SAN and FCoE
QUESTION 9
Which data center requirement refers to applying mechanisms that ensure data is stored and retrieved as it was received?
A. Integrity
B. Availability
C. Security
D. Performance
300-210 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Information Security Framework
The basic information security framework is built to achieve four security goals, confidentiality, integrity, and availability (CIA) along with accountability. This framework incorporates all security standards, procedures and controls, required to mitigate threats in the storage infrastructure environment. Confidentiality: Provides the required secrecy of information and ensures that only authorized users have access to data. This requires authentication of users who need to access information. Data in transit (data
  transmitted over cables) and data at rest (data residing on a primary storage, backup media, or in the archives) can be encrypted to maintain its confidentiality. In addition to restricting unauthorized users from accessing information, confidentiality also requires to implement traffic flow protection measures as part of the security protocol. These protection measures generally include hiding source and destination addresses, frequency of data being sent, and amount of data sent. Integrity: Ensures that the information is unaltered . Ensuring integrity requires detection and protection against unauthorized alteration or deletion of information. Ensuring integrity stipulate measures such as error detection and correction for both data and systems. Availability: This ensures that authorized users have reliable and timely access to systems, data and applications residing on these systems. Availability requires protection against unauthorized deletion of data and denial of service. Availability also implies that sufficient resources are available to provide a service. Accountability: Refers to accounting for all the events and operations that take place in the data center
infrastructure. The accountability service maintains a log of events that can be audited or traced later for the purpose of security.
QUESTION 10
What describes a landing zone in a disk drive?
A. Area on which the read/write head rests
B. Area where the read/write head lands to access data
C. Area where the data is buffered before writing to platters
D. Area where sector-specific information is stored on the disk
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Disk Drive Components
The key components of a hard disk drive are platter, spindle, read-write head, actuator arm assembly, and controller board. I/O operations in a HDD is performed by rapidly moving the arm across the rotating flat platters coated with magnetic particles. Data is transferred between the disk controller and magnetic platters through the read-write (R/W) head which is attached to the arm. Data can be recorded and erased on magnetic platters any number of times. Platter: A typical HDD consists of one or more flat circular disks called platters. The data is recorded on
  these platters in binary codes (0s and 1s). The set of rotating platters is sealed in a case, called Head Disk Assembly (HDA). A platter is a rigid, round disk coated with magnetic material on both surfaces (top and bottom). The data is encoded by polarizing the magnetic area, or domains, of the disk surface. Data can be written to or read from both surfaces of the platter. The number of platters and the storage capacity of each platter determine the total capacity of the drive. Spindle: A spindle connects all the platters and is connected to a motor. The motor of the spindle rotates with a constant speed. The disk platter spins at a speed of several thousands of revolutions per minute (rpm). Common spindle speeds are 5,400 rpm, 7,200 rpm, 10,000 rpm, and 15,000 rpm. The speed of the platter is increasing with improvements in technology; although, the extent to which it can be improved is limited. Read/Write Head: Read/Write (R/W) heads, read and write data from or to platters. Drives have two R/W heads per platter, one for each surface of the platter. The R/W head changes the agnetic polarization on the surface of the platter when writing data. While reading data, the head detects the magnetic polarization on the surface of the platter. During reads and writes, the R/W head senses the magnetic polarization and never touches the surface of the platter. When the spindle is rotating, there is a microscopic air gap maintained between the R/W heads and the platters, known as the head flying height. This air gap is removed when the spindle stops rotating and the R/W head rests on a special area on the platter near the spindle. This area is called the landing zone . The landing zone is coated with a lubricant to reduce friction between the head and the platter. The logic on the disk drive ensures that heads are moved to the landing zone before they touch the surface. If the drive malfunctions and the R/W head accidentally touches the surface of the platter outside the landing zone, a head crash occurs. In a head crash, the magnetic coating on the platter is scratched and may cause damage to the R/W head. A head crash generally results in data loss. Actuator Arm Assembly: R/W heads are mounted on the actuator arm assembly, which positions the R/W head at the location on the platter where the data needs to be written or read. The R/W heads for all platters on a drive are attached to one actuator arm assembly and move across the platters simultaneously. Drive Controller Board: The controller is a printed circuit board, mounted at the bottom of a disk drive. It consists of a microprocessor, internal memory, circuitry, and firmware. The firmware controls the power to the spindle motor and the speed of the motor. It also manages the communication between the drive and the host. In addition, it controls the R/W operations by moving the actuator arm and switching between different R/W heads, and performs the optimization of data access.
QUESTION 11
What is a characteristic of unified storage?
A. Supports multiple protocols for data access and managed through a single management interface
B. Supports a common protocol for data access and managed through a unified management interface
C. Provides compute, storage, and network virtualization products in one solution
D. Stores all data in the form of objects and managed through a unified management interface
300-210 pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 12
What defines the time taken to position the read/write head across the platter with a radial movement in a
disk drive?
A. Seek time
B. Rotational latency
C. Data transfer time
D. Service time
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Seek Time
The seek time (also called access time) describes the time taken to position the R/W heads across the platter with a radial movement (moving along the radius of the platter). In other words, it is the time taken to position and settle the arm and the head over the correct track. Therefore, the lower the seek time, the faster the I/O operation. Disk vendors publish the following seek time specifications: Full Stroke: The time taken by the R/W head to move across the entire width of the disk, from the innermost track to the outermost track. Average: The average time taken by the R/W head to move from one random track to another, normally listed as the time for one-third of a full stroke. Track-to-Track: The time taken by the R/W head to move between adjacent tracks.
Each of these specifications is measured in milliseconds. The seek time of a disk is typically specified by the drive manufacturer. The average seek time on a modern disk is typically in the range of 3 to 15 milliseconds. Seek time has more impact on the I/O operation of random tracks rather than the adjacent
tracks. To minimize the seek time, data can be written to only a subset of the available cylinders. This results in lower usable capacity than the actual capacity of the drive. For example, a 500-GB disk drive is set up to use only the first 40 percent of the cylinders and is effectively treated as a 200-GB drive. This is known as short stroking the drive.

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QUESTION 6
Which two layers of the OSI model relate to the transmission of bits over the wire and packet forwarding based on destination IP address? (Choose two.)
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
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Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 7
Which layer of the OSI model is associated with the reliable transmission of datagrams?
A. Datagram
B. Routing
C. Network
D. Data link
E. Transport
F. Transmission
G. Session
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 8
Which three terms are used to describe data at Layers 1, 2, and 4 of the OSI model? (Choose three.)
A. PDUs
B. Bits
C. Sequences
D. Segments
E. Packets
F. Frames
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Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 9
Which two layers of the OSI model are combined in the Internet protocol suite application layer? (Choose two.)
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. 6
F. 7
Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 10
Which two layers of the OSI model are combined in the Internet protocol suite network access layer? (Choose two.)
A. 1
B. 2

C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
F. 6
G. 7
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Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 11
In an IEEE 802.3 Ethernet frame, what is the significance of the DSAP field?
A. The DSAP field specifies the TCP or UDP port that is associated with the transport protocol.
B. The DSAP field is only used on United States Department of Defense networks to indicate the information classification level.
C. The DSAP field is only used in Ethernet II frames.
D. The DSAP field indicates the network layer protocol.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12
Consider the following diagram, which represents a migration from a Baseline to a Target Architecture: Which of the following answers best interprets the unlabeled symbol in the middle of the diagram?
A. It represents a relatively stable intermediate state during the migration from the Baseline to the Target Architectures
B. It represents a project that progresses the architecture from Baseline to Target
C. It represents the deliverables necessary to transform the architecture from Baseline to Target
D. It represents a conceptual point of transition between the two architectures, but one that is unlikely to exist in reality for more than an instant
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Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13
Which application layer concept is defined as a passive element?
A. Application component
B. Application function
C. Data object
D. Business object
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 14
The following diagram shows an example of the use of the Migration viewpoint: Which of the following best describes a reason for using this viewpoint?
A. To model the management of architecture change
B. To help determine the priorities of implementation projects
C. To relate programs and projects to the parts of the architecture that they implement
D. To help in planning the transition from the current architecture to a desired future architecture
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Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 15
Consider the following diagram, in which CSR stands for Customer Service Representative: Which of the following statement is expressed by the diagram?
A. CSR Training has four key modules, each focusing on a different topic
B. The CSR Training business service is valuable in four different ways
C. CSR Training is a basic service, upon which four sub-services depend
D. CSR Training accesses four different types of information
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 16
Which ArchiMate concept describes the behavior of a business collaboration?
A. A business interaction
B. A business event
C. A business process
D. A business service
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Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 17
Consider the following symbol, which represents information about a transformation project at ArchiSurance involving systems and business processes: Which of the following statements correctly expresses the meaning of the symbol?
A. TheArchiSurance legal department has determined the impact of the new regulations
B. The project must satisfy requirements for additional reporting
C. The additional reporting requirements in new insurance regulations are driving change at ArchiSurance
D. The project’s systems must be flexible enough to accommodate any future changes in reporting requirements
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 18
Consider the following diagram: What does the diagram express about the Underwriting Application?
A. It has three distinct components
B. It processes three different types of data objects
C. It performs three different functions
D. It groups together three components that are not a part of the Underwriting Application
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Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 19
All ArchiSurance divisions use a Claims Adjudication Process specific to their lines of business to determine whether a claim should be paid as well as the payment amount, Consider the following diagram: Which of the following statements is expressed by the diagram?
A. The Claims Adjudication Process realizes the Claim File
B. Claims are filed after the Claims Adjudication process is complete
C. The Claims Adjudication team relies on the Claim File to get its work done
D. The Claims Adjudication process accesses the Claim File
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 20
What Implementation & Migration Extension concept is used to model the outcome of an analysis of the differences betweentwo architectural states?
A. Transition
B. Gap
C. Work Package
D. Deliverable
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Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 21
The ArchiMate modeling language can be used to describe different types of architecture and the relationships between them. Which of the following lists the three main layers of the ArchiMate language?
A. Business, Information, and Application
B. Application, Data, and Technology
C. Business, Application, and Technology
D. Business, Integration, and Infrastructure
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 22
Consider the following diagram with four relationships modeled: Which relationship modeled in the diagram is not allowed to connect the application layer with the technology layer?
A. Relationship 1
B. Relationship 2
C. Relationship 3
D. Relationship 4
640-911 exam 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 23
Consider the following diagram: What does the diagram express about the structure of the Underwriting Application?
A. The Underwriting Application groups together a number of modules that are either free- standing or part of other applications
B. The Underwriting Application is composed of three application components
C. The Underwriting Application invokes three other modules
D. The Underwriting Application performs three functions
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 24
The following diagram shows a typical group of stakeholders: Which ArchiMate viewpoint abstraction level would support these stakeholders for the purpose of change management?
A. Coherence
B. Designing
C. Details
D. Overview
640-911 dumps 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 25
Consider the following diagram: Which of the following best describes the relationship between the four objects in Group A?
A. The objects share information
B. The objects are collaborating on a key initiative
C. The objects were instantiated at the same time
D. The objects belong together based on some common characteristic
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 26
Consider the following symbol, which represents information about a transformation project at ArchiSurance involving systems and business processes: Which of the following statements correctly expresses the meaning of the symbol?
A. The Board of Directors will use the transformed systems
B. The Board of Directors has a business role in the project
C. The transformed systems will store information of interest to the Board of Directors
D. The Board of Directors has concerns about the project
640-911 pdf 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 27 Which heuristic technology does Symantec AntiVirus use?
A. Q-Factor
B. Bloodhound
C. pattern matching D.
regular expression
Answer: B
QUESTION 28 Which Symantec Client Security component is a minimum deployment requirement for a managed environment ?
A. LiveUpdate Administrator
B. Central Quarantine server
C. Quarantine Console snap-in
D. Symantec Client Security server
640-911 vce 
Answer: D
QUESTION 29 What is a benefit of Symantec Client Security Secure Port technology?
A. e liminates port scanning from external hackers
B. blocks connection requests for Trojan Horse ports
C. blocks port scans by blocking outbound RST packets
D. validates inbound traffic against the Symantec signature database
Answer: B
QUESTION 30 Which business problem does Symantec AntiVirus mitigate?
A. users visiting offensive websites
B. malware leading to loss of assets
C. hackers attacking ports on a web server
D. employees wasting time handling spam
640-911 exam 
Answer: B
QUESTION 31 Which Symantec Client Security component pushes configuration s and updated virus definitions to managed clients?
A. Central Quarantine
B. LiveUpdate Administrator
C. Symantec Client Security server
D. Symantec Client Firewall Administrator
Answer: C
QUESTION 32 Your company is running Norton AntiVirus Corporate Edition version 7. 5 , and you intend to upgrade to Symantec AntiVirus 9.0 or later. Which task must you perform first?

A. uninstall Norton AntiVirus clients
B. upgrade Norton AntiVirus clients
C. uninstall Norton AntiVirus servers
D. upgrade Norton AntiVirus servers
640-911 dumps 
Answer: C
QUESTION 33 What is the purpose of the Norton AntiSpam “Yahoo! Mail and Yahoo! Mail Plus Filtering” feature?
A. deletes spam email in your Yahoo! email account
B. forwards spam email to Symantec Security Response
C. adds addresses received by Yahoo! Mail to your Blocked List
D. moves spam email to a separate folder in your Yahoo! email account
Answer: D
QUESTION 34 Which two Symantec Client Security components can you install remotely to help reduce operating costs? (Choose two.)
A. Central Quarantine
B. Symantec Client Firewall
C. Symantec Client Security client
D. Symantec Client Security server
640-911 pdf 
Answer: CD
QUESTION 35 You are preparing to deploy Symantec AntiVirus. Which task must you perform before you install the Symantec System Center console on a computer running Windows NT 4.0 Workstation SP5?
A. run LiveUpdate
B. upgrade JRE to 1.3.1
C. upgrade the Windows operating system
D. upgrade Windows NT to Service Pack 6a
Answer: C
QUESTION 36 Which Symantec AntiVirus management component must you install to centrally manage antivirus protection?
A. Symantec AntiVirus snap-in
B. Symantec AntiVirus Client Administrator
C. Symantec Central Security Administrator
D. Symantec Enterprise Security Administrator
640-911 vce 
Answer: A
QUESTION 37 Wh at must you enable on a target computer before you perform a Symantec AntiVirus Web installation?

A. ActiveX
B. Cookies
C. JavaScript
D. Java Runtime Environment
Answer: A
QUESTION 38 Your office has the following computer systems: 100 Windows XP Professional 50 Windows NT4.0 25 W indows 95 1 Windows 98 How many systems in your office can you protect with Norton AntiSpam?
A. 26
B. 75
C. 101
D. 151
E. 175
640-911 exam 
Answer: C
QUESTION 39 Which Symantec System Center context should you select to configure Quarantine options for unassigned clients?
A. client
B. server
C. client group
D. system hierarchy
Answer: B
QUESTION 40 Which Symantec System Center context should you select to configure Virus Sweep for a server and the clients that it manages?
A. server
B. client group

C. server group
D. primary server
E. system hierarchy
640-911 dumps 
Answer: A
QUESTION 41 Which Norton AntiSpam feature lets you add the recipients of your email to the Allowed List?
A. Self-training
B. Custom Spam Rules
C. Client Address Importer
D. Integration with Email Programs

Answer: A
QUESTION 42 Where would you copy the grc.dat file to change the parent server of a managed client without reinstalling the client software?
A. from the old server to the client
B. from the new server to the client
C. from the client to the new server
D. from the old server to the new server
640-911 pdf 
Answer: B
QUESTION 43 What does the Symantec System Center Discovery Service use to discover client computers?
A. UCP
B. Ipconfig
C. Intel PDS
D. Net Discover
Answer: C
QUESTION 44 Which Symantec Client Security component pushes updated virus definitions to an infected computer?
A. Central Quarantine
B. LiveUpdate Administrator
C. Symantec System Center console
D. Symantec Client Firewall Administrator
640-911 vce 
Answer: A
QUESTION 45 Which two data containers does Auto-Protect continuously scan for viruses as they are read or written to a client? (Choose two.)
A. file data
B. email data
C. data packets D.
encrypted files
Answer: AB
QUESTION 46 Which Symantec System Center component is installed by default?
A. LiveUpdate server
B. Quarantine Console snap-in
C. Symantec Firewall Administrator
D. Symantec Client Firewall snap-in
640-911 exam 
Answer: D

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QUESTION 8
An engineer has received an alarm on a wireless LAN controller and is unsure of its meaning. The engineer attempted to ping the wireless LAN controller interfaces. Which troubleshooting methodology does this action demonstrate?
A. bottom-up
B. follow the path
C. shoot from the hip
D. top-down
E. divide and conquer
300-370 exam Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 9
Which three steps would a network engineer use to troubleshoot an AP join problem? (Choose three.)
A. Validate the STP configuration.
B. Verify the ping AP from the controller.
C. Verify the ping AP from the client.
D. Verify that the AP is getting an address from the DHCP server.
E. I Validate the SNMP configuration.
F. Verify the authentication configuration parameters.
Correct Answer: ABF
QUESTION 10
A wireless engineer has completed the configuration of a new WLAN on the existing Cisco wireless infrastructure. During testing he found that the wireless client’s authenticate and received the correct ip address from the switch, but they were not able to access any of the internal or external resources. Which action will resolve the issue?
A. Configure static ip addresses for the wireless clients.
B. Configure the default-router on the switch DHCP pool.
C. Configure option 82 on the switch DHCP pool.
D. Configure a dns-server on the switch DHCP pool.
300-370 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11
Which statement about the usage of the debug command in a Cisco Unified Wireless Network is true?
A. Debug is enabled until manual shut off.
B. Debug is a message logging severity 7.
C. Debug is a restricted command and is not available in the AP CLI.
D. Debug is available on the WLC serial console and web interface.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12
A client is failing EAP authentication and a debug shows that the server is sending an Access-Reject message. Which action must you take to resolve authentication?
A. Verify that the Validate server certificate on the client is disabled.
B. Verify that the client certificates are from the proper CA and server certificate.
C. Verify that the client server certificate has the proper Windows OlDs.
D. Verify that the user account is the same in the client certificate.
E. Verify that the user is using the same password that is on the server
300-370 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
A WLC receives a coverage hole detection alert from an AP. What two conditions must occur for the controller to dynamically mitigate the situation? (Choose two.)
A. The AP serving the troubled client must currently have a power level 2 or lower.
B. The client must be able to dynamically raise its power level to match the new AP power.
C. The AP must be RF visible to additional APs on the other side of the coverage hole for calibration.
D. The client must have WMM-PS disabled to allow for the increased power usage.
E. The AP serving the troubled client must currently have a power level higher than 2.
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION NO: 14
S5600T and S6800T when the system power loss by the built- safe dish BBU to power, to ensure that the data written to the Cache dirty safe dish without losing.
A. True
B. False
300-370 vce Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 15
The only two hard disk storage devices, you can choose to create a RAID levels are () (Choose two)
A. RAID3
B. RAID0
C. RAID1
D. RAID6
Answer: B,C
QUESTION NO: 16
Huawei package maintenance tool storage products acquisition mode
A. Local Service Manager
B. 400 Response Center
C. Huawei support website.
D. Dealer
300-370 exam Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 17
Application for the license file storage system mail must include the following items which (Choose two)
A. Contract Number
B. Control box serial number
C. Customer Name
D. LAC code
Answer: B,D
QUESTION NO: 18
Host port type S2600 series storage arrays provide not include ()
A. SAS
B. FC
C. iSCSI
D. SATA
300-370 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 19
S5000T storage array in the configuration export function to export the system configuration file
format ()
A. .DAT
B. .EXE
C. .TXT
D. .DOC
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 20
According SHARE 78 international organizations, disaster recovery system is divided into the number of class
A. 5
B. 6
C. 7
D. 8
300-370 pdf Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 21
Same size, the number of hard drives configured in a RAID group, small random I / O write performance is relatively poor Which RAID?
A. RAID 1
B. RAID 3
C. RAID 0
D. RAID 5
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 22
About BBU battery, the following statement is wrong
A. BBU battery to ensure the external power supply is interrupted cache data will be saved to a specific location
B. BBU will automatically be charged and discharged regularly,if you see a regular alarm information BBU discharge is normal
C. The BBU inside the controller S2600,S5000’s BBU external controller
D. S5000T product no BBU Module
300-370 vce Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 23
G type fabric switch port is a universal port, depending on the implementation, as F port or E port.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 24
Which of the following are ISCSI protocol advantages in practical applications? (Choose three)
A. Powerful
B. Long distance transmission
C. Safe
D. Low Cost
300-370 exam Answer: A,B,D
QUESTION NO: 25
Common storage devices include? (Choose three)
A. Minicomputer
B. Library
C. Virtual Tape Library
D. Disk Arrays
Answer: B,C,D
QUESTION NO: 26
SAN storage products for the upgrade, the following statement is wrong
A. Next in the array LUN is formatted,the systemcannotbe upgraded
B. When the system has a hard drive in a dormant state,the systemcannotbe upgraded
C. When using ISM upgrade,it is recommended to maintain the terminal and two controllers can manage network ports are connected
D. When you upgrade the controller software upgrade package file extension.Bin
300-370 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 27
RAID technology for efficient data organization and data security is primarily the means through which to achieve? (Choose three)
A. Data striping
B. Sequential read and write data between the members of the panel
C. Verification mechanism
D. Hot standby mechanism
Answer: A,C,D
QUESTION NO: 28
When configuring iSCSI attached storage devices on the application server, application server called the target device, a storage device called the Launcher.
A. True
B. False
300-370 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 29
SATA argument about the correct yes:
A. ATA to SATA transition from serial to parallel shift.
B. ATA to SATA transition from parallel to serial shift
C. SATA and ATA command set used in a completely different set of instructions.
D. The above statement is not correct.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 30
What NAS to meet the needs of users: (Choose three)
A. Unstructured data growth demands
B. Data sharing needs
C. FC networking support
D. Multi-protocol support requirements
300-370 vce Answer: A,B,D
QUESTION NO: 31
FC-SAN Direct Connect network, the connection between the host and storage via HBA card advantage of this networking is simple, economical, easy to host shared storage resources.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 32
SAN storage systems, real-time monitoring disk status, the suspected faulty disk data migration to hot spare disk is called:
A. Reconstruction
B. Reconstruction
C. Disk pre-copy
D. Disk Sleep
300-370 exam Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 33
S2600 system, or do before creating RAID configuration before other initialization is required to ensure that the two power modules are switched on, otherwise it cannot be the key configuration.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 34
Hard disk average seek time is usually the average access time, and average latency and.
A. True
B. False
300-370 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 35
After installing UltraPath for Linux, UltraPath for Linux can be found in the User Guide which catalog:
A. / opt / UltraPath
B. / etc / init.d / UltraPath
C. / bin / UltraPath
D. / bin / UltraPath / doc
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 36
RAID1 usually called mirroring, half of the members could theoretically damage the hard disk, but the data may not be lost.
A. True
B. False
300-370 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 37
Principles SAN storage array cable laying which of the following is correct. (Choose three)
A. Cable laying shall facilitate maintenance and future expansion
B. Cables should be uniform smooth cornering
C. When installed in a cabinet,the fiber should be set into the bellows
D. If Chutes, ladders should be erected on top of the cabinet line
Answer: A,B,C
QUESTION NO: 38
You can view the initiator node name on the label under which the windows of the initiator software interface
A. discovery
B. general
C. target
D. None of the above comments
300-370 vce Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 39
When you create a batch LUN, the LUN is created out which parameters are the same: (Choose three)
A. Name of the LUN
B. Slitting depth of the LUN
C. LUN ownership Controller
D. Write Policy
Answer: B,C,D
QUESTION NO: 40
The main hard drive interface types are there? (Choose three)
A. iSCSI
B. SATA
C. SAS
D. FC
300-370 exam Answer: B,C,D
QUESTION NO: 41
Have the ability to protect data redundancy RAID level is: (Choose three)
A. RAID6
B. RAID 0
C. RAID 50
D. RAID1
Answer: A,C,D
QUESTION NO: 42

Huawei is mapped to the common disk array storage space used by the host cell is called (), which is based on logical space created on the RAID.
A. LUN (Logic Unit Number)
B. RAID (Redundant Array of Independent Disks)
C. Hard disk
D. Disk Arrays
300-370 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 43
Failover feature multi-path refers to the main path when the fault automatically discharged or repair the I / O path from the transmission path from the switch back to the main path.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 44
When you install the Windows operating system, multi-path software is generally due to a blue screen:
A. Killing caused by antivirus software
B. Once the software is installed too many paths
C. When the installation is not super- user privileges by user
D. Windows operating system patch is not installed SP1/SP2
300-370 pdf Answer: D

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Exam Code: 600-512
Exam Name: Implementing with Cisco Network Programmability for ACI
Q&As: 112

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QUESTION 1
Which of the following is the MOST important reason to maintain key risk indicators (KRIs)?
A. In order to avoid risk
B. Complex metrics require fine-tuning
C. Risk reports need to be timely
D. Threats and vulnerabilities change over time
600-512 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2
You are the project manager of a HGT project that has recently finished the final compilation process. The project customer has signed off on the project completion and you have to do few administrative closure activities. In the project, there were several large risks that could have wrecked the project but you and your project team found some new methods to resolve the risks without affecting the project costs or project completion date. What should you do with the risk responses that you have identified during the project’s monitoring and controlling process?
A. Include the responses in the project management plan.
B. Include the risk responses in the risk management plan.
C. Include the risk responses in the organization’s lessons learned database.
D. Nothing. The risk responses are included in the project’s risk register already.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3
You are the project manager of GHT project. You have identified a risk event on your project that could save $100,000 in project costs if it occurs. Which of the following statements BEST describes this risk event?
A. This risk event should be mitigated to take advantage of the savings.
B. This is a risk event that should be accepted because the rewards outweigh the threat to the project.
C. This risk event should be avoided to take full advantage of the potential savings.
D. This risk event is an opportunity to the project and should be exploited.
600-512 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4
You are the project manager of a large construction project. This project will last for 18 months and will cost $750,000 to complete. You are working with your project team, experts, and stakeholders to identify risks within the project before the project work begins. Management wants to know why you have
scheduled so many risk identification meetings throughout the project rather than just initially during the project planning. What is the best reason for the duplicate risk identification sessions?
A. The iterative meetings allow all stakeholders to participate in the risk identification processes throughout the project phases.
B. The iterative meetings allow the project manager to discuss the risk events which have passed the project and which did not happen.
C. The iterative meetings allow the project manager and the risk identification participants to identify newly discovered risk events throughout the project.
D. The iterative meetings allow the project manager to communicate pending risks events during project execution.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5
You are the risk official in Bluewell Inc. You are supposed to prioritize several risks. A risk has a rating for  occurrence, severity, and detection as 4, 5, and 6, respectively. What Risk Priority Number (RPN) you would give to it?
A. 120
B. 100
C. 15
D. 30
600-512 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6
Which of the following is the MOST important use of KRIs?
A. Providing a backward-looking view on risk events that have occurred
B. Providing an early warning signal
C. Providing an indication of the enterprise’s risk appetite and tolerance
D. Enabling the documentation and analysis of trends
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7
Which of the following role carriers will decide the Key Risk Indicator of the enterprise? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose two.
A. Business leaders
B. Senior management
C. Human resource
D. Chief financial officer
600-512 vce Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 8
What are the requirements for creating risk scenarios? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose three.
A. Determination of cause and effect
B. Determination of the value of business process at risk
C. Potential threats and vulnerabilities that could cause loss
D. Determination of the value of an asset
Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 9
You work as the project manager for Bluewell Inc. Your project has several risks that will affect several stakeholder requirements. Which project management plan will define who will be available to share information on the project risks?
A. Resource Management Plan
B. Risk Management Plan
C. Stakeholder management strategy
D. Communications Management Plan
600-512 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10
Which of the following controls is an example of non-technical controls?
A. Access control

B. Physical security
C. Intrusion detection system
D. Encryption
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11
You are the project manager of GHT project. Your project team is in the process of identifying project risks on your current project. The team has the option to use all of the following tools and techniques to diagram some of these potential risks EXCEPT for which one?
A. Process flowchart
B. Ishikawa diagram
C. Influence diagram
D. Decision tree diagram
600-512 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12
Which of the following BEST describes the utility of a risk?
A. The finance incentive behind the risk
B. The potential opportunity of the risk
C. The mechanics of how a risk works
D. The usefulness of the risk to individuals or groups
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13
Which of the following aspect of monitoring tool ensures that the monitoring tool has the ability to keep up with the growth of an enterprise?
A. Scalability
B. Customizability
C. Sustainability
D. Impact on performance
600-512 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 14
You are the project manager in your enterprise. You have identified risk that is noticeable failure threatening the success of certain goals of your enterprise. In which of the following levels do this identified risk exists?
A. Moderate risk
B. High risk
C. Extremely high risk
D. Low risk
Correct Answer: A

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Exam Code: 200-155
Exam Name: Introducing Cisco Data Center Technologies
Q&As: 85

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QUESTION: 119
What component of the project scope definition defines project exclusions?
A. Project boundaries

B. Project constraints
C. Project assumptions
D. Project objectives
200-155 exam Answer: A
QUESTION: 120
What tool and technique is used to determine whether work and deliverables meet requirements and product acceptance criteria?
A. Decomposition
B. Benchmarking
C. Inspection
D. Checklist analysis
Answer: C
QUESTION: 121
Which of the following is an output of Define Scope?
A. Project document updates
B. Project management plan
C. Scope baseline
D. Product analysis
200-155 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION: 122
What is an output of Control Scope?
A. Accepted deliverables
B. Work performance measurements
C. Requirements documentation
D. Work performance information
Answer: B
QUESTION: 123
The decomposition technique is used to do which of the following?
A. Subdivide the estimated costs of individual activities
B. Subdivide project deliverables and project work into smaller, more manageable components
C. Relate the work packages to the performing organizational units
D. Shorten the project schedule duration and the amount of resources needed
200-155 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION: 124
A project manager needs the project team to make a group decision. Which of the following is a method that can be used to reach a group decision?
A. Expert judgment
B. Majority
C. SWOT analysis
D. Brainstorming
Answer: B
QUESTION: 125
Decomposition is a tool and technique used in which of the following?
A. Define Scope and Define Activities
B. Collect Requirements and Estimate Activity Resources
C. Create WBS and Define Activities
D. Create WBS and Estimate Activity Duration
200-155 vce Answer: C
QUESTION: 126
Which of the following is a tool or technique of the Collect Requirements process?

A. Group decision making techniques
B. Project management information system
C. Alternative identification
D. Communication requirement analysis
Answer: A
QUESTION: 127
Which of the following is an input to Collect Requirements?
A. Stakeholder register
B. Requirements documentation
C. Prototypes
D. Organizational process assets
200-155 exam Answer: A
QUESTION: 128
The use of group creativity techniques as a tool and technique is done in which of the following processes?
A. Plan Quality
B. Collect Requirements
C. Define Scope
D. Perform Quality Control
Answer: B
QUESTION: 129
Which is an input to the Collect Requirements process?
A. Requirement documentation
B. Organizational process assets
C. Requirements management plan
D. Stakeholder register

200-155 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION: 130
Which of the following can be used to track the requirements throughout the project life cycle?
A. Requirements traceability matrix
B. Scope management plan
C. Project charter
D. Work breakdown structure
Answer: A
QUESTION: 131
Which of the following is an example of a group creativity technique?
A. Delphi technique
B. Unanimity
C. Observation
D. Presentation technique
200-155 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION: 132
Which process includes facilitated workshops as a tool and technique?
A. Collect Requirements
B. Plan Communications
C. Develop Project Team
D. Report Performance
Answer: A
QUESTION: 133
Which of the following is a tool or technique used to verify scope?

A. Product analysis
B. Ishikawa diagram
C. Inspection
D. Requirements traceability matrix
200-155 vce Answer: C
QUESTION: 134
Inspection is a tool and technique for which of the following processes?
A. Create WBS
B. Define Scope
C. Control Scope
D. Verify Scope
Answer: D
QUESTION: 135
What is the lowest level in the WBS at which the cost and activity durations for the work can be reliably estimated and managed?
A. Work product
B. Work package
C. Project deliverable
D. Scope baseline
200-155 exam Answer: B
QUESTION: 136
Many organizations categorize requirements into which of the following two categories?
A. Project and Product
B. Staffing and Budget
C. Stakeholder and Customer
D. Business and Technical

Answer: A
QUESTION: 137
Plurality is a type of which of the following?
A. Group creativity techniques
B. Group decision making techniques
C. Facilitated workshops
D. Prototypes
200-155 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION: 138
Which of the following events would result in a baseline update?
A. Your project is behind schedule and you want your baseline to reflect estimated actual completion.
B. Your customer has approved a change request broadening the project scope and increasing the budget.
C. One of the risks identified in the Risk Management Plan occurs resulting in a schedule delay.
D. One of your key project team resources has left your team and no replacement is available.
Answer: B
QUESTION: 139
Which schedule compression technique has phases or activities done in parallel that would normally have been done sequentially?
A. Crashing
B. Fast tracking
C. Leads and lags adjustment
D. Parallel task development
200-155 exam Answer: B
QUESTION: 140
Which schedule development technique modifies the project schedule to account for limited resources?
A. Human resource planning
B. Fast tracking
C. Critical chain method
D. Rolling wave planning
Answer: C
QUESTION: 141
Which schedule development tool and technique produces a theoretical early start date and late start date?
A. Critical path method
B. Variance analysis
C. Schedule compression
D. Schedule comparison bar charts
200-155 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION: 142
What is the minimum a project schedule must include?
A. Variance analysis
B. A planned start date and a planned finish date for each schedule activity
C. A critical path diagram
D. Critical chain analysis
Answer: B
QUESTION: 143
What cost control technique is used to compare actual project performance to planned or expected performance?

A. Cost aggregation
B. Trend analysis
C. Forecasting
D. Variance analysis
200-155 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION: 144
Using the following data, what is the Schedule Performance Index (SPI)?
EV = $500
PV= $750
AC= $1000
BAC= $1200
A. 0.67
B. 1.50
C. 0.75
D. 0.50
Answer: A
QUESTION: 145
Which enterprise environmental factors are considered during cost estimating?
A. Marketplace conditions and commercial databases
B. Marketplace conditions and company structure
C. Commercial databases and company structure
D. Existing human resources and market place conditions
200-155 vce Answer: A
QUESTION: 146
Which process involves aggregating the estimated costs of the individual schedule activities or work packages?
A. Cost baseline
B. Cost forecasting

C. Cost variance
D. Cost budgeting
Answer: D
QUESTION: 147
What is the schedule performance index (SPI) using the following data?
BAC = $100,000
PV = $50,000
AC = $80,000
EV = $40,000
A. 1.00
B. 0.40
C. 0.50
D. 0.80
200-155 exam Answer: D

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Exam Code: 210-260
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Network Security
Q&As: 310

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QUESTION 50
What are purposes of the Internet Key Exchange in an IPsec VPN? (Choose two.)
A. The Internet Key Exchange protocol establishes security associations
B. The Internet Key Exchange protocol provides data confidentiality
C. The Internet Key Exchange protocol provides replay detection
D. The Internet Key Exchange protocol is responsible for mutual authentication
210-260 exam 
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 51
A data breach has occurred and your company database has been copied. Which security principle has
been violated?
A. confidentiality
B. availability
C. access
D. control
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 52
A proxy firewall protects against which type of attack?
A. cross-site scripting attack
B. worm traffic
C. port scanning
D. DDoS attacks
210-260 dumps 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 53
What hash type does Cisco use to validate the integrity of downloaded images?
A. Sha1
B. Sha2
C. Md5
D. Md1

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 54
What VPN feature allows traffic to exit the security appliance through the same interface it entered?
A. hairpinning
B. NAT
C. NAT traversal
D. split tunneling
210-260 pdf 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 55
What is the suggested order of an exercise session?
A. Stretch, warm-up, endurance phase, cool-down
B. Warm-up, endurance phase, cool-down, stretch
C. Stretch, endurance phase, warm-up, cool-down
D. Warm-up, endurance phase, stretch, cool-down
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 56
What does it mean if a specific activity is contraindicated?
A. Perform less-intensively than normal
B. Do not perform it as often
C. Perform it slower than normal
D. Do not perform at all
210-260 vce 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 57
Which of the following statements is true regarding exercise for the prepubescent child?
A. Children are less tolerant of heat because of a higher threshold for sweating.
B. Since children are anatomically immature, they should not participate in any form of resistance training
exercise.
C. Because of the lack of development of the epiphyseal growth plates, children should not participate in
any form of endurance training.
D. Both B and C are true
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 58
Using the Heart Rate Reserve method, what is the target heart rate for a 40 year-old man with a resting
heart rate of 70 beats/min, exercising at an intensity of 65%?
A. 110 beats/min
B. 129 beats/min
C. 142 beats/min
D. 180 beats/min
210-260 exam 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 59
On Friday, your trader lends GBP 10,000,000.00 overnight at 0.60%. The instructions are for repayment of
principal + interest. How much would you expect to be repaid?
A. GBP 10,000,500.00

B. GBP 10,000,164.38
C. GBP 10,000,493.15
D. GBP 10,000,166.67
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 60
A Certificate of Deposit (CD) was issued at 2.50% which you now purchase at 1.75%. What would you
expect to pay?
A. The original face value of the CD
B. More than the originally paid value
C. Less than the originally paid value
D. There is too little information to decide
210-260 dumps 
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 61
Internationally, USD FRAs are settled with reference to which market rate?
A. LIBOR
B. FEDFUNDS
C. LIBID
D. EURIBOR
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 62
EURIBOR is a:
A. Daily fixing of EUR interest rates within the EMU zone
B. Daily fixing of EUR interest rates in London
C. A rate used for the settlement of USD FRAs between European counterparties
D. The official successor to LIBOR rates
210-260 pdf 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 63
An interest rate CAP can be defined as:
A. A series of American call options on FRAs
B. A series of European call options on FRAs
C. A series of American put options on FRAs
D. A series of European put options on FRAs
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 64
As to futures contracts:
A. The maintenance margin is a predetermined fraction of initial margin
B. The initial margin is a predetermined fraction of maintenance margin
C. The maintenance margin represents the brokerage costs
D. The maintenance margin represents management fees
210-260 vce 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 65
Which of these statements is correct?
A. The strike price of a Bermudan option is an average.
B. A Bermudan option can be exercised only on a few specific dates prior to expiration.
C. A Bermudan option can be exercised at any time before its maturity date.
D. A Bermudan option can be exercised only at maturity.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 66
You bought a 6×9 EUR 8,000,000.00 FRA at 0.75%. Settlement is now due and 3 months (90 days)
EURIBOR is 0.25%. What amount do you pay or receive?
A. Pay EUR 10,000.00
B. Receive EUR 10,000.00
C. Pay EUR 9,993.75
D. Receive EUR 9,993.75
210-260 exam 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 67
What deals are usually associated with a collar?
A. A purchase of a cap and a sale of a cap at higher reference rate
B. A purchase of a floor and a sale of a cap or vice versa
C. A purchase of a cap and a purchase of a floor
D. A purchase of a step-up cap and a sale of a step-down floor
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 68
Which of the following is true about interest rate swaps (IRS)?
A. The fixed rate and the floating rate payers know the cash value of their payments at the outset
B. There is exchange of principal at the start and at the end of the swap
C. Payment netting is only allowed through a third party
D. The notional amount of the swap is generally not exchanged between counterparties
210-260 dumps 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 69
When is the settlement amount of a FRA normally payable?
A. At the beginning of the forward period
B. On the trade date
C. On the maturity (final) date
D. At any time before the contract’s maturity date
Correct Answer: A

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[New Cisco Release] Most Accurate CCNP Switch 300-115 Dumps PDF Questions with Latest Version PDF&VCE Youtube Study (From Google Drive)

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Exam Code: 300-115
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Switched Networks (SWITCH v2.0)
Updated: Sep 05, 2017
Q&As: 437

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Question Set 1
QUESTION 1
What is the maximum number of switches that can be stacked using Cisco StackWise?
A. 4
B. 5
C. 8
D. 9
E. 10
F. 13
300-115 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Up to 9 Cisco Catalyst switches can be stacked together to build single logical StackWise switch since Cisco IOS XE Release 3.3.0SE. Prior to Cisco IOS XE
Release3.3.0SE, up to 4 Cisco Catalyst switches could be stacked together.
QUESTION 2
A network engineer wants to add a new switch to an existing switch stack. Which configuration must be added to the new switch before it can be added to the 300-115 dumps switch stack?
A. No configuration must be added.
B. stack ID
C. IP address
D. VLAN information
E. VTP information
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Switch Stack Offline Configuration
You can use the offline configuration feature to provision (to supply a configuration to) a new switch before it joins the switch stack. You can configure in advance
the stack member number, the switch type, and the inter- faces associated with a switch that is not currently part of the stack. The configuration that you create on
the switch stack is called the provisioned configuration . The switch that is added to the switch stack and that re- ceives this configuration is called the provisioned
switch .
You manually create the provisioned configuration through the switch stack-member-number provision type global configuration command. The provisioned
configuration is automatically created when a switch is added to a switch stack and when no provisioned configuration exists.
When you configure the interfaces associated with a provisioned switch (for example, as part of a VLAN), the switch stack accepts the configuration, and the
information appears in the running configuration. The interface associated with the provisioned switch is not active, operates as if it is administratively shut down,
and the no shutdown interface configuration command does not return it to active service. The interface associated with the provisioned switch does not appear in
the display of the specific feature; for example, it does not appear in the show vlan user EXEC command output.
The switch stack retains the provisioned configuration in the running configuration whether or not the provi- sioned switch is part of the stack. You can save the
provisioned configuration to the startup configuration file by entering the copy running-config startup-config privileged EXEC command. The startup configuration
file ensures that the switch stack can reload and can use the saved information whether or not the provisioned switch is part of the switch stack.Effects of Adding a Provisioned Switch to a Switch Stack
When you add a provisioned switch to the switch stack, the stack applies either the provisioned configuration or the default configuration. Table 5-1 lists the events that occur when the switch stack compares the provisioned configuration with the provisioned switch.Table 5-1 Results of Comparing the Provisioned Configuration with the Provisioned Switch
Scenario Result The stack member num- 1. If the stack member number The switch stack applies bers and the switch types of the provisioned switch the provisioned configura match. matches the stack member num- tion to the provisioned ber in the provisioned configura- switch and adds it to the tion on the stack, and stack.
2. If the switch type of the provisioned switch matches the switch type in the provisioned configuration on the stack.
The stack member num- 1. If the stack member number The switch stack applies bers match but the switch of the provisioned switch the default configuration to types do not match. matches the stack member num- the provisioned switch and ber in the provisioned configuration on the stack, but adds it to the stack.
2. The switch type of the provi- The provisioned configura- sioned switch does not match the tion is changed to reflect switch type in the provisioned the new information.configuration on the stack.The stack member num- The switch stack appliesber is not found in the pro- the default configuration tovisioned configuration. the provisioned switch and adds it to the stack.The provisioned configuration is changed to reflect the new information. The stack member num- The stack master assigns a new The switch stack applies ber of the provisioned stack member number to the pro- the provisioned configura- switch is in conflict with an visioned switch. tion to the provisioned existing stack member. switch and adds it to the The stack member numbers and stack.
 the switch types match: The provisioned configura-
1. If the new stack member
tion is changed to reflect
number of the provisioned switch
the new information.
matches the stack member num
ber in the provisioned configura
tion on the stack, and
2. If the switch type of the provi
sioned switch matches the switch
type in the provisioned configura
tion on the stack.
The stack member numbers The switch stack applies
match, but the switch types do the default configuration to not match: the provisioned switch and
adds it to the stack.
1. If the stack member number
of the provisioned switch The provisioned configura
matches the stack member num- tion is changed to reflect
ber in the provisioned configura- the new information.
tion on the stack, but
2. The switch type of the provi
sioned switch does not match the
switch type in the provisioned
configuration on the stack.
The stack member num- The switch stack applies
ber of the provisioned the default configuration to
switch is not found in the the provisioned switch and
provisioned configuration. adds it to the stack.
Reference:
QUESTION 3
What percentage of bandwidth is reduced when a stack cable is broken?
A. 0
B. 25
C. 50
D. 75
E. 100
300-115 pdf Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Physical Sequential Linkage
The switches are physically connected sequentially, as shown in Figure 3. A break in any one of the cables will result in the stack bandwidth being reduced to half
of its full capacity. Subsecond timing mechanisms detect traffic problems and immediately institute failover. This mechanism restores dual path flow when the
timing mechanisms detect renewed activity on the cable.
Figure 3. Cisco StackWise Technology Resilient Cabling

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps

Which set of configurations will result in all ports on both switches successfully bundling into an EtherChannel?
A. switch1
channel-group 1 mode active
switch2
channel-group 1 mode auto
B. switch1
channel-group 1 mode desirable
switch2
channel-group 1 mode passive
C. switch1
channel-group 1 mode on
switch2
channel-group 1 mode auto
D. switch1
channel-group 1 mode desirable
switch2
channel-group 1 mode auto
300-115 vce Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The different etherchannel modes are described in the table below:
Mode Description
active Places an interface into an active negotiating state, in which the interface starts negotiations with other interfaces by sending LACP packets.
auto Places an interface into a passive negotiating state, in which the interface re- sponds to PAgP packets it receives but does not start PAgP packet negotia
tion. This setting minimizes the transmission of PAgP packets.
desirable Places an interface into an active negotiating state, in which the interface starts negotiations with other interfaces by sending PAgP packets.
on Forces the interface into an EtherChannel without PAgP or LACP. With the on mode, a usable EtherChannel exists only when an interface group in the on
mode is connected to another interface group in the on mode.
passive Places an interface into a passive negotiating state, in which the interface re- sponds to LACP packets that it receives, but does not start LACP packet ne
gotiation. This setting minimizes the transmission of LACP packets.
Both the auto and desirable PAgP modes allow interfaces to negotiate with partner interfaces to determine if they can form an EtherChannel based on criteria such
as interface speed and, for Layer 2 EtherChannels, trunking state and VLAN numbers.
Interfaces can form an EtherChannel when they are in different PAgP modes as long as the modes are compatible. For example:
An interface in the desirable mode can form an EtherChannel with another interface that is in the desirable or auto mode.
An interface in the auto mode can form an EtherChannel with another interface in the desirable mode.
An interface in the auto mode cannot form an EtherChannel with another interface that is also in the auto mode because neither interface starts PAgP negotiation.
An interface in the on mode that is added to a port channel is forced to have the same characteristics as the already existing on mode interfaces in the channel.

5.Consider an information system of a Pay-Tv company based on a SOA architecture.
The integrated system currently consists of three core systems:
– a CRM (Customer Relationship Management) system
– a BRM (Billing and Revenue Management) system
– a CAS (Conditional Access System) system all of them communicating with SOA Middleware.
You have been asked to manage the testing activities for the integration of two additional off-the-shelf
systems from two different vendors: a SMS (Short Message Service) server and an IVR (Interactive Voice
Response) system.
Assume that there is a high likelihood that the two off-the-shelf systems will be low-quality and that you
have a clear proof that the testing performed by the two vendors on their systems has been unsystematic
and unprofessional. This obviously leads to higher quality risk for the overall integrated system.
You are the Test Manager of this project. Your main goal is to plan for testing activities to mitigate this risk.

Which of the following answers best describes the test activities (assuming it is possible to perform all of
them) you should plan for?
K4 3 credits
A. You should plan for an informal and minimal acceptance test of the two off-the-shelf systems and then
a single end-to-end test of the overall integrated system
B. You should directly plan for a single end-to-end test focused on end-to-end tests of the overall
integrated system without an acceptance test of the two off-the-shelf systems
C. You should plan for two levels: a system integration test and an end-to-end test of the overall
integrated system
D. You should plan for adequate re-testing of both the systems followed by a system integration test and
an end-to-end test of the overall integrated system
300-115 exam Answer: D
6.The following are the exit criteria described in the test plan of a software product:
EX1. The test suite for the product must ensure that at least each quality risk item is covered by at least
one test case (a quality risk item can be covered by more test cases).
EX2. All test cases in the test suite must be run during the execution phase.
EX3. Defects are classified into two categories: C (critical defect) and NC (non-critical defect). No
known C defects shall exist in the product at the end of the test execution phase.
Which of the following information is useless when the specified exit criteria is evaluated?
A. A traceability matrix showing the relationships between the product risk items and the test cases
B. A list of all the open defects with the associated classification information extracted from the defect
tracking system
C. A chart, showing the trend in the lag time from defect reporting to resolution, extracted from the defect
tracking system
D. The execution status of all the test cases extracted from the test management tool
300-115 dumps Answer: C
7.Which of the following is an example of the test closure activity indicated as “lessons learned”?
A. Archive all the test results of the acceptance testing phase
B. Deliver a list of the open defects of a software product released into production to the service desk
team
C. Participate in a meeting at the end of a project aimed at better managing the events and problems of
future projects
D. Deliver an automated regression test suite, used during the system test phase of a software product
released into production, to the team responsible for maintenance testing
Answer: C
8.Assume that you are the Test Manager for a small banking application development project.
You have decided to adopt a risk-based testing strategy and 5 product risks (R1, R2, R3, R4, and R5)
have been identified during the quality risk analysis.
The following table shows the risk level associated to these product risks (higher numbers mean higher
risk):

55 test cases have been designed and implemented to cover all these 5 product risks. The coverage is
described in a traceability matrix.
This is the test execution status table, after the after the first week of test execution:
About 56% of the planned test cases have been successfully executed.
Assume that no additional product risks have been identified during the first week of test execution.

Which of the following answers would you expect to best describe the residual risks associated with the
identified product risks, at the end of the first week of test execution?
A. Since R3 is the only risk for which all test cases have passed, the risk has been reduced by 20%
B. The test execution status table indicates that the risk has been reduced by 56%
C. The residual risk level can t be determined, because it requires that all the test cases have been
executed
D. The test execution table doesn t give an indication of the risk level of the open defects and the test
cases that failed or are not run yet
Answer: D

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