CCNA Data Center

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QUESTION 6
Which two layers of the OSI model relate to the transmission of bits over the wire and packet forwarding based on destination IP address? (Choose two.)
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
640-911 exam 
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 7
Which layer of the OSI model is associated with the reliable transmission of datagrams?
A. Datagram
B. Routing
C. Network
D. Data link
E. Transport
F. Transmission
G. Session
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 8
Which three terms are used to describe data at Layers 1, 2, and 4 of the OSI model? (Choose three.)
A. PDUs
B. Bits
C. Sequences
D. Segments
E. Packets
F. Frames
640-911 dumps 
Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 9
Which two layers of the OSI model are combined in the Internet protocol suite application layer? (Choose two.)
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. 6
F. 7
Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 10
Which two layers of the OSI model are combined in the Internet protocol suite network access layer? (Choose two.)
A. 1
B. 2

C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
F. 6
G. 7
640-911 pdf 
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 11
In an IEEE 802.3 Ethernet frame, what is the significance of the DSAP field?
A. The DSAP field specifies the TCP or UDP port that is associated with the transport protocol.
B. The DSAP field is only used on United States Department of Defense networks to indicate the information classification level.
C. The DSAP field is only used in Ethernet II frames.
D. The DSAP field indicates the network layer protocol.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12
Consider the following diagram, which represents a migration from a Baseline to a Target Architecture: Which of the following answers best interprets the unlabeled symbol in the middle of the diagram?
A. It represents a relatively stable intermediate state during the migration from the Baseline to the Target Architectures
B. It represents a project that progresses the architecture from Baseline to Target
C. It represents the deliverables necessary to transform the architecture from Baseline to Target
D. It represents a conceptual point of transition between the two architectures, but one that is unlikely to exist in reality for more than an instant
640-911 vce 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13
Which application layer concept is defined as a passive element?
A. Application component
B. Application function
C. Data object
D. Business object
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 14
The following diagram shows an example of the use of the Migration viewpoint: Which of the following best describes a reason for using this viewpoint?
A. To model the management of architecture change
B. To help determine the priorities of implementation projects
C. To relate programs and projects to the parts of the architecture that they implement
D. To help in planning the transition from the current architecture to a desired future architecture
640-911 exam 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 15
Consider the following diagram, in which CSR stands for Customer Service Representative: Which of the following statement is expressed by the diagram?
A. CSR Training has four key modules, each focusing on a different topic
B. The CSR Training business service is valuable in four different ways
C. CSR Training is a basic service, upon which four sub-services depend
D. CSR Training accesses four different types of information
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 16
Which ArchiMate concept describes the behavior of a business collaboration?
A. A business interaction
B. A business event
C. A business process
D. A business service
640-911 dumps 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 17
Consider the following symbol, which represents information about a transformation project at ArchiSurance involving systems and business processes: Which of the following statements correctly expresses the meaning of the symbol?
A. TheArchiSurance legal department has determined the impact of the new regulations
B. The project must satisfy requirements for additional reporting
C. The additional reporting requirements in new insurance regulations are driving change at ArchiSurance
D. The project’s systems must be flexible enough to accommodate any future changes in reporting requirements
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 18
Consider the following diagram: What does the diagram express about the Underwriting Application?
A. It has three distinct components
B. It processes three different types of data objects
C. It performs three different functions
D. It groups together three components that are not a part of the Underwriting Application
640-911 pdf 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 19
All ArchiSurance divisions use a Claims Adjudication Process specific to their lines of business to determine whether a claim should be paid as well as the payment amount, Consider the following diagram: Which of the following statements is expressed by the diagram?
A. The Claims Adjudication Process realizes the Claim File
B. Claims are filed after the Claims Adjudication process is complete
C. The Claims Adjudication team relies on the Claim File to get its work done
D. The Claims Adjudication process accesses the Claim File
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 20
What Implementation & Migration Extension concept is used to model the outcome of an analysis of the differences betweentwo architectural states?
A. Transition
B. Gap
C. Work Package
D. Deliverable
640-911 vce 
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 21
The ArchiMate modeling language can be used to describe different types of architecture and the relationships between them. Which of the following lists the three main layers of the ArchiMate language?
A. Business, Information, and Application
B. Application, Data, and Technology
C. Business, Application, and Technology
D. Business, Integration, and Infrastructure
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 22
Consider the following diagram with four relationships modeled: Which relationship modeled in the diagram is not allowed to connect the application layer with the technology layer?
A. Relationship 1
B. Relationship 2
C. Relationship 3
D. Relationship 4
640-911 exam 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 23
Consider the following diagram: What does the diagram express about the structure of the Underwriting Application?
A. The Underwriting Application groups together a number of modules that are either free- standing or part of other applications
B. The Underwriting Application is composed of three application components
C. The Underwriting Application invokes three other modules
D. The Underwriting Application performs three functions
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 24
The following diagram shows a typical group of stakeholders: Which ArchiMate viewpoint abstraction level would support these stakeholders for the purpose of change management?
A. Coherence
B. Designing
C. Details
D. Overview
640-911 dumps 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 25
Consider the following diagram: Which of the following best describes the relationship between the four objects in Group A?
A. The objects share information
B. The objects are collaborating on a key initiative
C. The objects were instantiated at the same time
D. The objects belong together based on some common characteristic
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 26
Consider the following symbol, which represents information about a transformation project at ArchiSurance involving systems and business processes: Which of the following statements correctly expresses the meaning of the symbol?
A. The Board of Directors will use the transformed systems
B. The Board of Directors has a business role in the project
C. The transformed systems will store information of interest to the Board of Directors
D. The Board of Directors has concerns about the project
640-911 pdf 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 27 Which heuristic technology does Symantec AntiVirus use?
A. Q-Factor
B. Bloodhound
C. pattern matching D.
regular expression
Answer: B
QUESTION 28 Which Symantec Client Security component is a minimum deployment requirement for a managed environment ?
A. LiveUpdate Administrator
B. Central Quarantine server
C. Quarantine Console snap-in
D. Symantec Client Security server
640-911 vce 
Answer: D
QUESTION 29 What is a benefit of Symantec Client Security Secure Port technology?
A. e liminates port scanning from external hackers
B. blocks connection requests for Trojan Horse ports
C. blocks port scans by blocking outbound RST packets
D. validates inbound traffic against the Symantec signature database
Answer: B
QUESTION 30 Which business problem does Symantec AntiVirus mitigate?
A. users visiting offensive websites
B. malware leading to loss of assets
C. hackers attacking ports on a web server
D. employees wasting time handling spam
640-911 exam 
Answer: B
QUESTION 31 Which Symantec Client Security component pushes configuration s and updated virus definitions to managed clients?
A. Central Quarantine
B. LiveUpdate Administrator
C. Symantec Client Security server
D. Symantec Client Firewall Administrator
Answer: C
QUESTION 32 Your company is running Norton AntiVirus Corporate Edition version 7. 5 , and you intend to upgrade to Symantec AntiVirus 9.0 or later. Which task must you perform first?

A. uninstall Norton AntiVirus clients
B. upgrade Norton AntiVirus clients
C. uninstall Norton AntiVirus servers
D. upgrade Norton AntiVirus servers
640-911 dumps 
Answer: C
QUESTION 33 What is the purpose of the Norton AntiSpam “Yahoo! Mail and Yahoo! Mail Plus Filtering” feature?
A. deletes spam email in your Yahoo! email account
B. forwards spam email to Symantec Security Response
C. adds addresses received by Yahoo! Mail to your Blocked List
D. moves spam email to a separate folder in your Yahoo! email account
Answer: D
QUESTION 34 Which two Symantec Client Security components can you install remotely to help reduce operating costs? (Choose two.)
A. Central Quarantine
B. Symantec Client Firewall
C. Symantec Client Security client
D. Symantec Client Security server
640-911 pdf 
Answer: CD
QUESTION 35 You are preparing to deploy Symantec AntiVirus. Which task must you perform before you install the Symantec System Center console on a computer running Windows NT 4.0 Workstation SP5?
A. run LiveUpdate
B. upgrade JRE to 1.3.1
C. upgrade the Windows operating system
D. upgrade Windows NT to Service Pack 6a
Answer: C
QUESTION 36 Which Symantec AntiVirus management component must you install to centrally manage antivirus protection?
A. Symantec AntiVirus snap-in
B. Symantec AntiVirus Client Administrator
C. Symantec Central Security Administrator
D. Symantec Enterprise Security Administrator
640-911 vce 
Answer: A
QUESTION 37 Wh at must you enable on a target computer before you perform a Symantec AntiVirus Web installation?

A. ActiveX
B. Cookies
C. JavaScript
D. Java Runtime Environment
Answer: A
QUESTION 38 Your office has the following computer systems: 100 Windows XP Professional 50 Windows NT4.0 25 W indows 95 1 Windows 98 How many systems in your office can you protect with Norton AntiSpam?
A. 26
B. 75
C. 101
D. 151
E. 175
640-911 exam 
Answer: C
QUESTION 39 Which Symantec System Center context should you select to configure Quarantine options for unassigned clients?
A. client
B. server
C. client group
D. system hierarchy
Answer: B
QUESTION 40 Which Symantec System Center context should you select to configure Virus Sweep for a server and the clients that it manages?
A. server
B. client group

C. server group
D. primary server
E. system hierarchy
640-911 dumps 
Answer: A
QUESTION 41 Which Norton AntiSpam feature lets you add the recipients of your email to the Allowed List?
A. Self-training
B. Custom Spam Rules
C. Client Address Importer
D. Integration with Email Programs

Answer: A
QUESTION 42 Where would you copy the grc.dat file to change the parent server of a managed client without reinstalling the client software?
A. from the old server to the client
B. from the new server to the client
C. from the client to the new server
D. from the old server to the new server
640-911 pdf 
Answer: B
QUESTION 43 What does the Symantec System Center Discovery Service use to discover client computers?
A. UCP
B. Ipconfig
C. Intel PDS
D. Net Discover
Answer: C
QUESTION 44 Which Symantec Client Security component pushes updated virus definitions to an infected computer?
A. Central Quarantine
B. LiveUpdate Administrator
C. Symantec System Center console
D. Symantec Client Firewall Administrator
640-911 vce 
Answer: A
QUESTION 45 Which two data containers does Auto-Protect continuously scan for viruses as they are read or written to a client? (Choose two.)
A. file data
B. email data
C. data packets D.
encrypted files
Answer: AB
QUESTION 46 Which Symantec System Center component is installed by default?
A. LiveUpdate server
B. Quarantine Console snap-in
C. Symantec Firewall Administrator
D. Symantec Client Firewall snap-in
640-911 exam 
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 200-155
Exam Name: Introducing Cisco Data Center Technologies
Q&As: 85

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QUESTION: 119
What component of the project scope definition defines project exclusions?
A. Project boundaries

B. Project constraints
C. Project assumptions
D. Project objectives
200-155 exam Answer: A
QUESTION: 120
What tool and technique is used to determine whether work and deliverables meet requirements and product acceptance criteria?
A. Decomposition
B. Benchmarking
C. Inspection
D. Checklist analysis
Answer: C
QUESTION: 121
Which of the following is an output of Define Scope?
A. Project document updates
B. Project management plan
C. Scope baseline
D. Product analysis
200-155 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION: 122
What is an output of Control Scope?
A. Accepted deliverables
B. Work performance measurements
C. Requirements documentation
D. Work performance information
Answer: B
QUESTION: 123
The decomposition technique is used to do which of the following?
A. Subdivide the estimated costs of individual activities
B. Subdivide project deliverables and project work into smaller, more manageable components
C. Relate the work packages to the performing organizational units
D. Shorten the project schedule duration and the amount of resources needed
200-155 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION: 124
A project manager needs the project team to make a group decision. Which of the following is a method that can be used to reach a group decision?
A. Expert judgment
B. Majority
C. SWOT analysis
D. Brainstorming
Answer: B
QUESTION: 125
Decomposition is a tool and technique used in which of the following?
A. Define Scope and Define Activities
B. Collect Requirements and Estimate Activity Resources
C. Create WBS and Define Activities
D. Create WBS and Estimate Activity Duration
200-155 vce Answer: C
QUESTION: 126
Which of the following is a tool or technique of the Collect Requirements process?

A. Group decision making techniques
B. Project management information system
C. Alternative identification
D. Communication requirement analysis
Answer: A
QUESTION: 127
Which of the following is an input to Collect Requirements?
A. Stakeholder register
B. Requirements documentation
C. Prototypes
D. Organizational process assets
200-155 exam Answer: A
QUESTION: 128
The use of group creativity techniques as a tool and technique is done in which of the following processes?
A. Plan Quality
B. Collect Requirements
C. Define Scope
D. Perform Quality Control
Answer: B
QUESTION: 129
Which is an input to the Collect Requirements process?
A. Requirement documentation
B. Organizational process assets
C. Requirements management plan
D. Stakeholder register

200-155 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION: 130
Which of the following can be used to track the requirements throughout the project life cycle?
A. Requirements traceability matrix
B. Scope management plan
C. Project charter
D. Work breakdown structure
Answer: A
QUESTION: 131
Which of the following is an example of a group creativity technique?
A. Delphi technique
B. Unanimity
C. Observation
D. Presentation technique
200-155 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION: 132
Which process includes facilitated workshops as a tool and technique?
A. Collect Requirements
B. Plan Communications
C. Develop Project Team
D. Report Performance
Answer: A
QUESTION: 133
Which of the following is a tool or technique used to verify scope?

A. Product analysis
B. Ishikawa diagram
C. Inspection
D. Requirements traceability matrix
200-155 vce Answer: C
QUESTION: 134
Inspection is a tool and technique for which of the following processes?
A. Create WBS
B. Define Scope
C. Control Scope
D. Verify Scope
Answer: D
QUESTION: 135
What is the lowest level in the WBS at which the cost and activity durations for the work can be reliably estimated and managed?
A. Work product
B. Work package
C. Project deliverable
D. Scope baseline
200-155 exam Answer: B
QUESTION: 136
Many organizations categorize requirements into which of the following two categories?
A. Project and Product
B. Staffing and Budget
C. Stakeholder and Customer
D. Business and Technical

Answer: A
QUESTION: 137
Plurality is a type of which of the following?
A. Group creativity techniques
B. Group decision making techniques
C. Facilitated workshops
D. Prototypes
200-155 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION: 138
Which of the following events would result in a baseline update?
A. Your project is behind schedule and you want your baseline to reflect estimated actual completion.
B. Your customer has approved a change request broadening the project scope and increasing the budget.
C. One of the risks identified in the Risk Management Plan occurs resulting in a schedule delay.
D. One of your key project team resources has left your team and no replacement is available.
Answer: B
QUESTION: 139
Which schedule compression technique has phases or activities done in parallel that would normally have been done sequentially?
A. Crashing
B. Fast tracking
C. Leads and lags adjustment
D. Parallel task development
200-155 exam Answer: B
QUESTION: 140
Which schedule development technique modifies the project schedule to account for limited resources?
A. Human resource planning
B. Fast tracking
C. Critical chain method
D. Rolling wave planning
Answer: C
QUESTION: 141
Which schedule development tool and technique produces a theoretical early start date and late start date?
A. Critical path method
B. Variance analysis
C. Schedule compression
D. Schedule comparison bar charts
200-155 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION: 142
What is the minimum a project schedule must include?
A. Variance analysis
B. A planned start date and a planned finish date for each schedule activity
C. A critical path diagram
D. Critical chain analysis
Answer: B
QUESTION: 143
What cost control technique is used to compare actual project performance to planned or expected performance?

A. Cost aggregation
B. Trend analysis
C. Forecasting
D. Variance analysis
200-155 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION: 144
Using the following data, what is the Schedule Performance Index (SPI)?
EV = $500
PV= $750
AC= $1000
BAC= $1200
A. 0.67
B. 1.50
C. 0.75
D. 0.50
Answer: A
QUESTION: 145
Which enterprise environmental factors are considered during cost estimating?
A. Marketplace conditions and commercial databases
B. Marketplace conditions and company structure
C. Commercial databases and company structure
D. Existing human resources and market place conditions
200-155 vce Answer: A
QUESTION: 146
Which process involves aggregating the estimated costs of the individual schedule activities or work packages?
A. Cost baseline
B. Cost forecasting

C. Cost variance
D. Cost budgeting
Answer: D
QUESTION: 147
What is the schedule performance index (SPI) using the following data?
BAC = $100,000
PV = $50,000
AC = $80,000
EV = $40,000
A. 1.00
B. 0.40
C. 0.50
D. 0.80
200-155 exam Answer: D

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